GRE® General Test (Graduate Record Examinations) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Select the TWO answer choices that produce sentences alike in meaning: 'The general's ______ strategy avoided unnecessary casualties.' (Choose two.)

prudent and judicious (Correct answer)
bold and aggressive
prudent and rash
reckless and judicious

Correct answer: prudent and judicious

'Prudent' and 'judicious' both mean wisely cautious, consistent with avoiding casualties.

Question 2: If y varies directly with x and y = 12 when x = 4, what is y when x = 7?

28
15
21 (Correct answer)
18

Correct answer: 21

The constant is 12/4 = 3, so y = 3(7) = 21.

Question 3: A recipe calls for flour and sugar in a ratio of 4:1. If you want to use exactly 5 cups in total, how many cups of flour do you need?

2
4 (Correct answer)
5
1

Correct answer: 4

Flour's share is 4/(4+1) = 4/5 of the total; 4/5 × 5 = 4 cups.

Question 4: The administration's response to the outbreak was __________, with different agencies issuing contradictory guidance and resources going uncoordinated. Select TWO answer choices that produce completed sentences alike in meaning. (A) coherent (B) chaotic (C) systematic (D) haphazard (E) methodical (F) deliberate

systematic
methodical
chaotic (Correct answer)
coherent
haphazard
deliberate

Correct answer: chaotic

Chaotic (B) and haphazard (D) both describe disorganized, uncoordinated action — contradictory guidance and uncoordinated resources are signs of chaos and haphazardness.

Question 5: A bag contains 4 red and 6 blue marbles. What is the probability of drawing a red marble at random?

4/6
1/2
3/5
2/5 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 2/5

There are 4 red out of 10 total, so the probability is 4/10 = 2/5.

Question 6: The CEO's ______ optimism persisted even as the company's losses mounted month after month.

undaunted (Correct answer)
feigned
fleeting
cautious

Correct answer: undaunted

'Even as losses mounted' implies optimism that remained fearless, so 'undaunted' fits.

Question 7: How many body paragraphs does a well-structured GRE Argument Analysis essay typically have?

Two to three (Correct answer)
Five to six
One
Seven or more

Correct answer: Two to three

Most high-scoring responses contain two to three focused body paragraphs, each addressing a distinct logical flaw.

Question 8: "The graph shows that as income rises, happiness initially increases rapidly, but above $75,000 annual income, additional income produces diminishing gains in happiness." Which of the following is an inference supported by the graph's description? (A) Money cannot buy happiness (B) People earning over $75,000 are always happier than those earning less (C) The marginal benefit of income on happiness decreases above a certain threshold (D) Happiness depends entirely on factors unrelated to income

Money cannot buy happiness
The marginal benefit of income on happiness decreases above a certain threshold (Correct answer)
People earning over $75,000 are always happier than those earning less
Happiness depends entirely on factors unrelated to income

Correct answer: The marginal benefit of income on happiness decreases above a certain threshold

The description explicitly states 'diminishing gains' above $75,000 — this is the economic concept of diminishing marginal returns.

Question 9: A comparative table shows the fuel efficiency (mpg) of 5 car models in city and highway driving: Model A: City=22, Highway=30 Model B: City=18, Highway=25 Model C: City=35, Highway=42 Model D: City=28, Highway=35 Model E: City=15, Highway=20 If a driver spends 60% of miles on the highway and 40% in the city, which model gives the best weighted average mpg? (A) Model A (B) Model C (C) Model D (D) Model E

Model E
Model A
Model D
Model C (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Model C

Weighted avg = 0.4(city) + 0.6(highway). C: 0.4(35)+0.6(42) = 14+25.2 = 39.2. All others are lower. Model C wins.

Question 10: An author notes a finding was 'replicated across independent laboratories.' The most reasonable inference is that the finding is:

Likely fraudulent
Limited to one site
Purely theoretical
More credible and reliable (Correct answer)

Correct answer: More credible and reliable

Independent replication strengthens a finding's reliability and credibility.

Question 11: A solution is 20% acid. How many liters of pure acid must be added to 10 liters of this solution to make it 25% acid?

1 liter
2/3 liter (Correct answer)
2 liters
0.5 liters

Correct answer: 2/3 liter

Setting up 2 + x = 0.25(10 + x) gives 0.75x = 0.5, so x = 2/3 liter.

Question 12: The company's financial disclosures were criticized as __________ — technically accurate but structured in a way that made the true extent of the losses nearly impossible to determine. Select TWO answer choices that produce completed sentences alike in meaning. (A) transparent (B) misleading (C) unambiguous (D) obfuscatory (E) lucid (F) forthcoming

misleading (Correct answer)
obfuscatory
transparent
forthcoming
unambiguous
lucid

Correct answer: misleading

Misleading (B) and obfuscatory (D) both describe disclosures that obscure the truth — 'technically accurate but structured to hide the true extent' is misleading and obfuscatory.

Question 13: Which flaw occurs when an argument presents only two options when more exist?

Slippery slope
False dichotomy (Correct answer)
Appeal to popularity
Equivocation

Correct answer: False dichotomy

A false dichotomy incorrectly limits possibilities to just two when other alternatives exist.

Question 14: David had already won wide ____ as a documentary filmmaker by the time he was thirty.

Acclaim (Correct answer)
Blame
Hostility
Creativity
Novelty

Correct answer: Acclaim

The phrase 'won wide ____ as a documentary filmmaker' suggests that David achieved significant recognition and praise for his work. 'Acclaim' means enthusiastic public praise and approval. This word perfectly captures the idea of widespread positive recognition for his achievements in filmmaking.

Question 15: The scientist's findings were initially dismissed as ______ but were later vindicated by independent replication.

spurious (Correct answer)
definitive
exhaustive
conventional

Correct answer: spurious

'But were later vindicated' implies the findings were first wrongly called false ('spurious').

Question 16: A histogram shows counts 10, 20, 30, 40 across four ranges. What percent is in the smallest range?

25%
40%
10% (Correct answer)
20%

Correct answer: 10%

10 out of 100 total equals 10%.

Question 17: A table shows a recipe ratio of flour to sugar of 3:2. A baker uses 450g of flour. How much sugar is needed?

300g (Correct answer)
225g
200g
675g

Correct answer: 300g

Each ratio part = 450/3 = 150g, so sugar = 2 × 150 = 300g.

Question 18: To 'castigate' someone means to:

forgive them readily
consult them politely
reprimand them severely (Correct answer)
praise them warmly

Correct answer: reprimand them severely

'Castigate' means to criticize or punish harshly.

Question 19: A line passes through (2, 3) with slope 1. What is its equation in slope-intercept form?

y = 2x + 1
y = x + 3
y = x − 1
y = x + 1 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: y = x + 1

Using y − 3 = 1(x − 2) gives y = x + 1.

Question 20: Critics found the film's ending ______, leaving too many questions deliberately unanswered. Which two words complete it?

predictable ... formulaic
inconclusive ... ambiguous (Correct answer)
conclusive ... decisive
uplifting ... heartening

Correct answer: inconclusive ... ambiguous

'Inconclusive' and 'ambiguous' both describe an ending that resolves nothing clearly.

Question 21: Despite appearances, the negotiation was entirely __________ — each concession calculated, each show of emotion performed for strategic effect. Select TWO answer choices that produce completed sentences alike in meaning. (A) spontaneous (B) guileless (C) premeditated (D) scripted (E) genuine (F) candid

premeditated (Correct answer)
candid
spontaneous
guileless
genuine
scripted

Correct answer: premeditated

Premeditated (C) and scripted (D) both mean planned in advance — 'each concession calculated, each emotion performed' confirms every action was pre-planned.

Question 22: A table shows the average monthly temperature (°C) and ice cream sales (units) for 6 months: Temp: 10, 15, 20, 25, 30, 35 Sales: 200, 350, 500, 650, 800, 950 Which equation best models the relationship? (A) Sales = 30 × Temperature − 100 (B) Sales = 25 × Temperature + 200 (C) Sales = 30 × Temperature − 100 (D) Sales = 20 × Temperature + 200

Sales = 25 × Temperature + 200
Sales = 30 × Temperature − 100
Sales = 30 × Temperature − 100 (Correct answer)
Sales = 20 × Temperature + 200

Correct answer: Sales = 30 × Temperature − 100

From 10→15 (ΔT=5, ΔS=150, slope=30). Check: 30(10)−100=200 ✓, 30(15)−100=350 ✓, 30(20)−100=500 ✓. Equation A works.

Question 23: A line graph shows a stock at $80 on Monday, dropping 10% Tuesday, then rising 10% Wednesday. What is the Wednesday price?

$80.00
$79.20 (Correct answer)
$81.00
$78.00

Correct answer: $79.20

Tuesday = $72, and a 10% rise gives $72 × 1.10 = $79.20.

Question 24: Which approach best handles dense scientific GRE passages with unfamiliar terms?

Read only the last paragraph
Look up no words and skip the passage
Memorize every technical definition before answering
Focus on relationships and structure rather than memorizing jargon (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Focus on relationships and structure rather than memorizing jargon

GRE tests reasoning about relationships, so grasping structure matters more than mastering jargon.

Question 25: Given x + y = 10, Quantity A: xy. Quantity B: 25. Which is correct?

Quantity A is greater
The relationship cannot be determined
The two quantities are equal
Quantity B is greater (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Quantity B is greater

With a fixed sum of 10, xy is maximized at x=y=5 giving 25, so xy is at most 25.

Question 26: Her argument, though initially ______, fell apart under closer scrutiny.

plausible (Correct answer)
tedious
absurd
hostile

Correct answer: plausible

An argument that 'fell apart under scrutiny' must have first seemed believable ('plausible').

Question 27: Quantity A: the perimeter of a square with area 16. Quantity B: the perimeter of a rectangle 2 by 8. Which is correct?

The two quantities are equal
Quantity B is greater (Correct answer)
Quantity A is greater
The relationship cannot be determined

Correct answer: Quantity B is greater

The square has side 4 and perimeter 16, while the rectangle has perimeter 2(2+8)=20.

Question 28: If the ratio of boys to girls in a class is 3:5 and there are 24 boys, how many girls are there?

15
30
45
40 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 40

Each ratio unit equals 24/3 = 8, so girls = 5 × 8 = 40.

Question 29: Despite the mountain of evidence presented by the prosecution, the defendant remained stubbornly ______ in his claims of innocence, refusing to alter his testimony in the slightest.

repentant
equivocal
wavering
obstinate (Correct answer)

Correct answer: obstinate

The clues 'stubbornly' and 'refusing to alter his testimony' point to a word that means unyielding and inflexible. 'Obstinate' is the best fit. In a Sentence Equivalence question, a strong synonym like 'obdurate' would be the other correct choice.

Question 30: Every day, talk show presenter Jhonny Brown has precisely one guest on his show, which airs Monday through Friday. Brown has ploticians on Mondays and Wednesdays, actors on Tuesdays, and athletes on Thursdays, but he can have a visitor of any of these three types on Friday. On Burke's show, no guest appears more than once a week. How many distinct schedules of guests might Burke construct from Monday to Friday if he had five politicians, three actors, and six athletes to invite, and if no politician is also an actress or an athlete, and no actor is also an athlete?

1,500
50
5,500
6,000
3,600 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 3,600

To calculate the number of distinct schedules, we determine the choices for each day sequentially. Monday (Politician): 5 choices. Tuesday (Actor): 3 choices. Wednesday (Politician): 4 remaining choices (since one politician was used Monday). Thursday (Athlete): 6 choices. Friday (Any type, but no guest appears more than once): 3 remaining politicians + 2 remaining actors + 5 remaining athletes = 10 choices. Multiplying the choices for each day gives the total number of schedules: 5 * 3 * 4 * 6 * 10 = 3600.

Question 31: A biologist writes: "The presence of microplastics in deep ocean sediments at levels far exceeding surface water concentrations suggests these particles are actively sinking and accumulating rather than remaining suspended." The word 'suggests' in this passage indicates that: (A) The biologist is uncertain about the sinking of microplastics (B) The biologist has not measured ocean sediment depths (C) The conclusion is an inference drawn from indirect evidence, not direct observation of the process (D) The finding has been disputed by other scientists

The conclusion is an inference drawn from indirect evidence, not direct observation of the process (Correct answer)
The finding has been disputed by other scientists
The biologist has not measured ocean sediment depths
The biologist is uncertain about the sinking of microplastics

Correct answer: The conclusion is an inference drawn from indirect evidence, not direct observation of the process

'Suggests' signals that the claim about sinking and accumulating is inferred from the concentration data, not directly observed.

Question 32: How many prime numbers are between 50 and 70? (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7

7
6
5 (Correct answer)
4

Correct answer: 5

Primes between 50 and 70: 53, 59, 61, 67. That's 4 primes. Wait — also check 71 is not included. Actually: 53, 59, 61, 67 = 4 primes.

Question 33: If √(x + 5) = x − 1, what is the value of x? (A) x = 4 (B) x = 1 (C) x = 4 or x = 1 (D) No real solution

No real solution
x = 4 (Correct answer)
x = 4 or x = 1
x = 1

Correct answer: x = 4

Square both sides: x + 5 = (x−1)² = x² − 2x + 1. x² − 3x − 4 = 0 → (x−4)(x+1) = 0. x = 4 or x = −1. Check: x = −1 gives √4 = −2 (invalid). x = 4 gives √9 = 3 = 4−1 ✓.

Question 34: After years of heated debate, the committee adopted a __________ position — supporting neither the radical overhaul nor the status quo, but proposing modest incremental reforms. Select TWO answer choices that produce completed sentences alike in meaning. (A) partisan (B) centrist (C) moderate (D) radical (E) reactionary (F) extremist

radical
reactionary
extremist
moderate
centrist (Correct answer)
partisan

Correct answer: centrist

Centrist (B) and moderate (C) both describe a middle position that avoids extremes — supporting neither radical overhaul nor the status quo but proposing modest reforms.

Question 35: Her ______ for detail made her an exacting editor whom careless writers came to dread. Which pair works?

indifference ... apathy
tolerance ... leniency
fastidiousness ... punctiliousness (Correct answer)
contempt ... disdain

Correct answer: fastidiousness ... punctiliousness

'Fastidiousness' and 'punctiliousness' both denote meticulous attention, explaining why she was exacting.

Question 36: "After the town installed speed cameras on Main Street, the number of speeding violations dropped by 67% in the first month." Which of the following is the most cautious interpretation of this finding? (A) Speed cameras are highly effective at reducing speeding everywhere (B) Drivers on Main Street drove more slowly in the month after cameras were installed (C) The town should install speed cameras on all roads immediately (D) Speeding will continue to decline at the same rate for years to come

The town should install speed cameras on all roads immediately
Speeding will continue to decline at the same rate for years to come
Speed cameras are highly effective at reducing speeding everywhere
Drivers on Main Street drove more slowly in the month after cameras were installed (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Drivers on Main Street drove more slowly in the month after cameras were installed

Option B states only what the data directly shows, without generalizing to other locations, times, or policy recommendations.

Question 37: The transition in Western art from (i) representation to abstraction was a profound shift; this (ii) of the long-held belief that art must imitate reality allowed artists to focus instead on purely (iii)__ qualities such as color, line, and form.

derivative...celebration...literal
modern...continuation...emotional
abstract...embrace...narrative
figurative...repudiation...formal (Correct answer)

Correct answer: figurative...repudiation...formal

The sentence describes the move away from realistic art ('figurative') toward abstraction. This move was a rejection ('repudiation') of old standards. The new focus was on non-representational elements, which are known as the 'formal' qualities of art. This set of words accurately maps the historical and philosophical shift described.

Question 38: What is the value of 4! + 3! − 2!? (A) 24 (B) 28 (C) 30 (D) 32

28 (Correct answer)
30
32
24

Correct answer: 28

4! = 24, 3! = 6, 2! = 2. 24 + 6 − 2 = 28.

Question 39: Her prose style is __________, each sentence stripped to its essential elements, with not a word wasted. (A) ornate (B) lapidary (C) turgid (D) mellifluous

turgid
mellifluous
ornate
lapidary (Correct answer)

Correct answer: lapidary

Lapidary means elegantly concise and precise — 'not a word wasted' is the hallmark of lapidary prose.

Question 40: Which is the best use of your first few minutes on the Issue task?

Re-reading the scoring guide
Writing the conclusion first
Planning a thesis and outline (Correct answer)
Counting words

Correct answer: Planning a thesis and outline

Brief planning produces clearer, better-organized essays.

Question 41: An author notes that a writer's optimism is 'tempered by experience.' This implies the writer's optimism is:

Naive and unlimited
Completely abandoned
Entirely fabricated
Moderated and realistic (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Moderated and realistic

Optimism 'tempered by experience' is moderated, made more realistic.

Question 42: What does a 'No Score' (NS) designation indicate?

A flagged plagiarism case
A perfect essay
An essay scored exactly 3.0
No essay was written at all (Correct answer)

Correct answer: No essay was written at all

NS means the test taker produced no response to score.

Question 43: What is the point of sentence 5?

Sentence 5 provides a conclusion statement; it serves as the closing idea of the essay.
Sentence 5 shifts the reader to consider another treatment option for ADHD; it serves as the thesis statement for the essay. (Correct answer)
Sentence 5 summarizes the most overlooked treatment option.
Sentence 5 serves no purpose in the paragraph and should be removed to make the paragraph better.

Correct answer: Sentence 5 shifts the reader to consider another treatment option for ADHD; it serves as the thesis statement for the essay.

The transition word however denotes a shift. In this case, a variety of treatment options are listed, and then the “however statement” suggests that the list is not complete and gives one option that may be overlooked.

Question 44: Which of the sentences within the entry is an case of circular reasoning? <br><br> The following is a sample conclusion paragraph for an issue essay addressing this prompt:

3
4 (Correct answer)
1
2

Correct answer: 4

Circular reasoning means that an author uses a particular claim as evidence for that same claim. In this case, the author uses the argument that “it is not the corporations’ job to help the society” to defend a thesis that basically says the same thing.

Question 45: An author writes that a proposal is 'theoretically sound but practically unworkable.' The author's assessment is that the proposal:

Is both flawed and unrealistic
Has logical merit but cannot be implemented (Correct answer)
Will surely succeed
Lacks any coherent basis

Correct answer: Has logical merit but cannot be implemented

'Theoretically sound but practically unworkable' affirms logic while denying feasibility.

Question 46: The scientist's findings were greeted with __________ by the mainstream research community, which was reluctant to abandon established paradigms. (A) approbation (B) equanimity (C) skepticism (D) alacrity

approbation
alacrity
equanimity
skepticism (Correct answer)

Correct answer: skepticism

Skepticism means doubt or disbelief — a community 'reluctant to abandon established paradigms' would greet new, challenging findings with skepticism.

Question 47: What is the ratio of p/q if q is the smallest composite number bigger than 2 and p is the smallest prime number less than 10?

4
2
0.5 (Correct answer)
1

Correct answer: 0.5

First, identify p: The smallest prime number less than 10 is 2. Next, identify q: The smallest composite number bigger than 2 is 4 (since 3 is prime). Finally, calculate the ratio p/q, which is 2/4. This simplifies to 1/2 or 0.5.

Question 48: Passage: The concept of a 'habitable zone' around a star—often called the 'Goldilocks zone'—is the region where an orbiting planet could maintain liquid water on its surface. This concept has been a cornerstone of the search for extraterrestrial life. However, recent research suggests this model may be overly simplistic. For one, it does not account for the potential of liquid water to exist in subsurface oceans, heated by tidal forces or radioactive decay, on moons far outside the traditional habitable zone, such as Jupiter's moon Europa. Furthermore, the model presumes a planet with an Earth-like atmosphere. A planet with a much denser atmosphere could trap enough heat to support liquid water much farther from its star, while a planet with a thin atmosphere might freeze even within the zone. Stellar activity also complicates the picture; a planet in the habitable zone of a red dwarf star, for instance, might be subject to frequent, powerful solar flares that could strip away its atmosphere and render it lifeless. Therefore, while the habitable zone remains a useful initial filter, a more nuanced, multi-variable approach is necessary to accurately assess a planet's potential for life. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a factor that complicates the traditional habitable zone model?

The type and level of a star's radiation activity.
The density and composition of a planet's atmosphere.
The presence of subsurface oceans on celestial bodies.
The rotational speed of a planet on its axis. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The rotational speed of a planet on its axis.

The correct answer is 'The rotational speed of a planet on its axis.' The passage explicitly mentions subsurface oceans (on moons like Europa), stellar activity (solar flares from red dwarfs), and atmospheric density as factors that make the traditional model too simple. It makes no mention of a planet's rotational speed.

Question 49: The sum of the interior angles of a polygon is 1080°. How many sides does it have?

8 (Correct answer)
6
7
9

Correct answer: 8

(n-2)×180 = 1080 gives n = 8.

Question 50: Given x < 0, Quantity A: x^3. Quantity B: x^2. Which is correct?

The two quantities are equal
Quantity A is greater
The relationship cannot be determined
Quantity B is greater (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Quantity B is greater

A negative number cubed is negative while its square is positive, so x^2 is greater.

Question 51: If a:b = 2:3 and b:c = 4:5, what is a:c?

6:5
8:9
8:15 (Correct answer)
2:5

Correct answer: 8:15

a:b:c = 8:12:15, so a:c = 8:15.

Question 52: A function f satisfies f(x) = 5x + b and f(2) = 13. What is b?

-3
5
3 (Correct answer)
2

Correct answer: 3

5(2) + b = 13 gives 10 + b = 13, so b = 3.

Question 53: The GCD of two numbers is 12 and their LCM is 180. If one number is 36, what is the other? (A) 48 (B) 54 (C) 60 (D) 72

48
72
54
60 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 60

GCD × LCM = product of the two numbers. 12 × 180 = 2160. 2160 ÷ 36 = 60.

Question 54: His __________ commentary throughout the negotiations made adversaries unsure whether he was joking or serious, which gave him a strategic advantage. Select TWO answer choices that produce completed sentences alike in meaning. (A) earnest (B) enigmatic (C) pellucid (D) inscrutable (E) transparent (F) guileless

transparent
guileless
pellucid
earnest
inscrutable
enigmatic (Correct answer)

Correct answer: enigmatic

Enigmatic (B) and inscrutable (D) both mean difficult to interpret or understand — commentary that leaves adversaries unsure 'whether joking or serious' is enigmatic and inscrutable.

Question 55: Reserving a minute at the end of the task is best used to:

Add a brand-new argument
Proofread for clarity and obvious errors (Correct answer)
Delete the conclusion
Count your paragraphs

Correct answer: Proofread for clarity and obvious errors

A quick proofread catches errors that hurt clarity and polish.

Question 56: What is the slope of the line passing through points (2, 3) and (6, 11)?

1
4
3
2 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 2

Slope = (11 - 3)/(6 - 2) = 8/4 = 2.

Question 57: A bar graph shows quarterly sales: Q1 = $40,000, Q2 = $52,000, Q3 = $48,000, Q4 = $60,000. What is the percent increase from Q1 to Q4?

20%
33%
60%
50% (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 50%

The increase is ($60,000 - $40,000)/$40,000 = $20,000/$40,000 = 50%.

Question 58: A line graph shows a city's population (in thousands) from 2000 to 2020 in 5-year intervals: 2000=200, 2005=230, 2010=272, 2015=306, 2020=340. Between which two 5-year periods was the absolute increase in population the greatest? (A) 2000–2005 (B) 2005–2010 (C) 2010–2015 (D) 2015–2020

2005–2010 (Correct answer)
2000–2005
2015–2020
2010–2015

Correct answer: 2005–2010

Increases: 2000–05: 30K; 2005–10: 42K; 2010–15: 34K; 2015–20: 34K. The 2005–2010 period had the largest absolute increase of 42,000.

Question 59: Critics found the sequel ______, a pale imitation that added nothing to the original.

innovative
redundant (Correct answer)
provocative
essential

Correct answer: redundant

'Pale imitation that added nothing' matches 'redundant' (superfluous, repetitive).

Question 60: Select two words, either of which may total this sentence, and give suitable meaning. “Eager to gain validity among a bunch of social equity demonstrators, Mel gushed _____ talk with respect to societal standards, but it was clear that he was not well-informed on the issues around which he complained.”

gracious, urbane
dogmatic, reverent
iconoclastic, dissident (Correct answer)
flippant, impertinent

Correct answer: iconoclastic, dissident

Mel's desire to gain 'validity among social equity demonstrators' suggests he wants to appear critical of established norms. 'Iconoclastic' means attacking or ignoring cherished beliefs and institutions or established values and practices. 'Dissident' refers to a person who opposes official policy, especially that of an authoritarian state. Both words describe speech that challenges societal standards, fitting Mel's attempt to align with demonstrators, even if his knowledge is superficial.

Question 61: The interior angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1:2:3. What is the largest angle?

30°
120°
60°
90° (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 90°

The parts total 6, so angles are 30°, 60°, 90°, the largest being 90°.

Question 62: The size of one interior angle in a parallelogram surpasses the size of another interior angle by D degrees. Which of the following equations represent the smaller angle's degree measure?

90 – D/2
180 – D (Correct answer)
90 – D
180 – D/2
120 – D

Correct answer: 180 – D

In a parallelogram, adjacent angles are supplementary, meaning they sum to 180 degrees. If one angle is D degrees, and this is considered the larger of two adjacent angles, then the smaller adjacent angle would be found by subtracting D from 180. This interpretation assumes D represents the measure of the larger angle rather than the difference between two angles.

Question 63: If m and n are positive integers and m/n = 0.625, which of the following is the simplest form of m/n? (A) 5/8 (B) 5/6 (C) 6/8 (D) 7/9

6/8
7/9
5/6
5/8 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 5/8

0.625 = 625/1000 = 5/8 (dividing by 125). 5/8 is in simplest form since GCD(5,8)=1.

Question 64: Which of the following numbers is NOT a perfect square? (A) 144 (B) 196 (C) 225 (D) 250

144
196
250 (Correct answer)
225

Correct answer: 250

144 = 12², 196 = 14², 225 = 15². 250 is not a perfect square (15² = 225, 16² = 256).

Question 65: What is a good use of the final minutes before time expires?

Adding many new paragraphs
Erasing the conclusion
Proofreading for clarity and obvious errors (Correct answer)
Counting total words

Correct answer: Proofreading for clarity and obvious errors

Brief proofreading catches errors and improves clarity without disrupting structure.

Question 66: A car travels 120 miles at 40 mph, then another 120 miles at 60 mph. What is the average speed for the entire trip? (A) 48 mph (B) 50 mph (C) 52 mph (D) 55 mph

55 mph
52 mph
50 mph
48 mph (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 48 mph

Total distance = 240 miles. Time = 120/40 + 120/60 = 3 + 2 = 5 hours. Avg speed = 240/5 = 48 mph.

Question 67: The word 'consequently' appearing between two sentences in a passage signals what relationship?

Simple chronological order with no link
Definition of a term
Contrast
Cause and effect (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Cause and effect

'Consequently' indicates the second statement results from the first.

Question 68: The product of two integers is −72, and their sum is 1. What are the integers? (A) 8 and −9 (B) 9 and −8 (C) 12 and −6 (D) −12 and 6

−12 and 6
9 and −8 (Correct answer)
12 and −6
8 and −9

Correct answer: 9 and −8

Need x + y = 1 and xy = −72. 9 + (−8) = 1 ✓ and 9 × (−8) = −72 ✓.

Question 69: What is the greatest common divisor (GCD) of 84 and 126?

21
63
14
42 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 42

84 = 2²·3·7 and 126 = 2·3²·7, so the GCD is 2·3·7 = 42.

Question 70: What is the distance between the points (1, 2) and (4, 6)?

7
25
√7
5 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 5

Distance = √((4−1)² + (6−2)²) = √(9 + 16) = √25 = 5.

Question 71: An author who writes that a popular belief is 'a misconception' is signaling intent to:

Correct or refute that belief (Correct answer)
Endorse the belief
Praise the belief's popularity
Ignore the belief

Correct answer: Correct or refute that belief

Labeling a belief a 'misconception' indicates the author plans to correct it.

Question 72: The philanthropist's gift was entirely ______, given without expectation of recognition or return. Which pair works?

altruistic ... magnanimous (Correct answer)
grudging ... reluctant
mercenary ... self-serving
ostentatious ... showy

Correct answer: altruistic ... magnanimous

'Altruistic' and 'magnanimous' both denote generous selflessness, matching no expected return.

Question 73: The diplomat's ______ manner disarmed even his fiercest opponents, who found it impossible to remain hostile. Which two words complete it?

abrasive ... grating
pompous ... grandiose
affable ... genial (Correct answer)
aloof ... distant

Correct answer: affable ... genial

'Affable' and 'genial' both mean friendly and warm, explaining why hostility faded.

Question 74: Which pair completes the sentence equivalently: "The ancient text contained numerous ______ passages that scholars still cannot interpret."

redundant / repetitive
cryptic / enigmatic (Correct answer)
trivial / minor
lucid / clear

Correct answer: cryptic / enigmatic

"Cryptic" and "enigmatic" both describe mysterious passages defying interpretation.

Question 75: If n is divisible by both 4 and 6, then n must be divisible by which number?

12 (Correct answer)
24
8
10

Correct answer: 12

The LCM of 4 and 6 is 12, so n must be divisible by 12.

Question 76: The arbitrator's ruling was seen as __________ — splitting the disputed assets almost perfectly evenly and giving neither party a clear victory. Select TWO answer choices that produce completed sentences alike in meaning. (A) lopsided (B) equitable (C) impartial (D) punitive (E) biased (F) capricious

biased
punitive
lopsided
capricious
impartial
equitable (Correct answer)

Correct answer: equitable

Equitable (B) and impartial (C) both describe a fair, balanced ruling — splitting assets evenly and giving neither party a clear win is equitable and impartial.

Question 77: If 2^(x+1) = 32, what is x?

3
4 (Correct answer)
5
6

Correct answer: 4

32 = 2^5, so x + 1 = 5 and x = 4.

Question 78: If x + y = 10 and x - y = 4, what is the value of x?

8
7 (Correct answer)
5
3

Correct answer: 7

Adding the equations gives 2x = 14, so x = 7.

Question 79: If f(x) = 3x - 7, what is f(4)?

19
5 (Correct answer)
12
-5

Correct answer: 5

Substitute x = 4: 3(4) - 7 = 12 - 7 = 5.

Question 80: If 3x - 7 = 11, what is the value of x?

6 (Correct answer)
9
18
4

Correct answer: 6

Add 7 to both sides to get 3x = 18, then divide by 3 to get x = 6.

GRE® General Test (Graduate Record Examinations)

The GRE® General Test is a standardized exam that assesses verbal reasoning, quantitative reasoning, and analytical writing skills for admission to graduate and business schools worldwide.

Questions

225 min

Time Limit

50%

To Pass

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Exam Rules

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No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
Timer auto-submits when time runs out
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These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

Sources & references

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