FPGEE Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield FPGEE facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. What is the correct needle gauge to use when administering a subcutaneous (SQ) injection to an average-weight adult? → 25–27 gauge
2. A 65-year-old patient requires a loading dose of digoxin. Which factor most significantly affects the volume of distribution (Vd) of digoxin? → Lean body weight and tissue binding
3. A patient taking phenytoin for seizures is started on valproic acid. What is the expected net effect on phenytoin? → Decreased total phenytoin with possible increased free phenytoin levels
4. A patient with a penicillin allergy (anaphylaxis) requires antibiotic therapy for MRSA. Which agent is most appropriate? → Vancomycin
5. Which pharmacokinetic parameter describes the fraction of an administered dose that reaches systemic circulation unchanged? → Bioavailability (F)
6. Which phase II metabolic reaction involves conjugation with glucuronic acid? → Glucuronidation
7. Which professional attribute is most valued in pharmaceutics within the FPGEE field? → Accountability and commitment to standards
8. The Gram stain distinguishes bacteria primarily based on differences in their: → Cell wall composition
9. Which parameter describes the fraction of a drug excreted unchanged in the urine? → Fraction excreted renally (fe)
10. Which of the following best describes an 'off-label' use of a medication? → Use of a drug for an indication, population, or route not approved in its FDA labeling
11. What is the recommended maximum daily dose of acetaminophen for a healthy adult? → 4,000 mg
12. Which drug class is associated with development of drug-induced lupus erythematosus? → Hydralazine and procainamide
13. A meta-analysis reports an I² statistic of 75%. How should this be interpreted? → 75% of the variance in effect sizes is due to heterogeneity rather than chance
14. A patient develops QT prolongation after starting a new antibiotic. Which agent is MOST likely responsible? → Azithromycin
15. The Mantoux tuberculin skin test (TST) detects prior exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis by measuring which immune response? → Type IV delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH)
16. Which pathophysiological change is responsible for the elevated serum creatinine in pre-renal azotemia? → Decreased renal perfusion reducing GFR without intrinsic tubular damage
17. Under the Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962, drug manufacturers must demonstrate to the FDA that new drugs are: → Safe and effective
18. A patient on warfarin begins taking high-dose vitamin E supplements. What is the expected effect on INR? → Increased INR due to inhibition of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
19. Long chains, or ______________, are how humans store glucose. → Glycogen
20. A patient with a sulfa allergy asks about safety of taking hydrochlorothiazide. What is the pharmacist's BEST response? → Use with caution as cross-reactivity with sulfonamides is possible
21. What is the most important professional competency for FPGEE certification in pharmacy practice? → Deep knowledge combined with practical application skills
22. The Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951 established which important distinction in pharmacy practice? → Distinction between prescription-only (Rx) and over-the-counter (OTC) drugs
23. A patient with Parkinson's disease taking levodopa/carbidopa develops end-of-dose wearing off. Which add-on agent BEST extends levodopa effect? → Entacapone (COMT inhibitor)
24. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is responsible for anaphylaxis? → Type I (IgE-mediated)
25. The FDA MedWatch program is designed to allow healthcare professionals to voluntarily report: → Adverse drug events and product problems for marketed drugs and devices
26. The term 'prodrug' refers to a compound that: → Requires metabolic conversion to exert its effect
27. A drug with a narrow therapeutic index requires careful monitoring. Which of the following is the best example of a narrow therapeutic index drug? → Digoxin
28. Which mechanism underlies the thrombocytopenia in heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)? → IgG antibodies against heparin-PF4 complexes activating platelets and causing consumption
29. The live attenuated varicella (chickenpox) vaccine is a contraindication in pregnancy primarily because: → Live vaccine virus may cross the placenta and infect the fetus
30. Which functional group is responsible for the acidic properties of aspirin? → Carboxylic acid group