FPGEE Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield FPGEE facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

200 questions
270 min time limit
75% to pass
  1. What is the correct needle gauge to use when administering a subcutaneous (SQ) injection to an average-weight adult? → 25–27 gauge
  2. A drug information response recommends a lower dose for a patient with renal impairment. Which primary resource BEST supports this recommendation? → Lexicomp Renal Disease Dosing or the FDA package insert renal dosing section
  3. A 65-year-old patient requires a loading dose of digoxin. Which factor most significantly affects the volume of distribution (Vd) of digoxin? → Lean body weight and tissue binding
  4. A patient taking phenytoin for seizures is started on valproic acid. What is the expected net effect on phenytoin? → Decreased total phenytoin with possible increased free phenytoin levels
  5. A patient with a penicillin allergy (anaphylaxis) requires antibiotic therapy for MRSA. Which agent is most appropriate? → Vancomycin
  6. Which pharmacokinetic parameter describes the fraction of an administered dose that reaches systemic circulation unchanged? → Bioavailability (F)
  7. Which phase II metabolic reaction involves conjugation with glucuronic acid? → Glucuronidation
  8. Which professional attribute is most valued in pharmaceutics within the FPGEE field? → Accountability and commitment to standards
  9. The Gram stain distinguishes bacteria primarily based on differences in their: → Cell wall composition
  10. Which antifungal mechanism involves binding to ergosterol and forming pores in the fungal cell membrane? → Polyenes (amphotericin B)
  11. Which parameter describes the fraction of a drug excreted unchanged in the urine? → Fraction excreted renally (fe)
  12. Which of the following best describes an 'off-label' use of a medication? → Use of a drug for an indication, population, or route not approved in its FDA labeling
  13. What is the recommended maximum daily dose of acetaminophen for a healthy adult? → 4,000 mg
  14. Which of the following is the correct definition of therapeutic equivalence? → Two drug products that produce the same clinical effect and safety profile
  15. Which property of a drug substance is MOST critical for absorption via passive transcellular diffusion across biological membranes? → Lipophilicity
  16. When counseling a patient on sublingual nitroglycerin for angina, what is the maximum number of doses to take before calling emergency services? → 3 doses
  17. Which drug class is associated with development of drug-induced lupus erythematosus? → Hydralazine and procainamide
  18. A meta-analysis reports an I² statistic of 75%. How should this be interpreted? → 75% of the variance in effect sizes is due to heterogeneity rather than chance
  19. A patient develops QT prolongation after starting a new antibiotic. Which agent is MOST likely responsible? → Azithromycin
  20. The Mantoux tuberculin skin test (TST) detects prior exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis by measuring which immune response? → Type IV delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH)
  21. Which pathophysiological change is responsible for the elevated serum creatinine in pre-renal azotemia? → Decreased renal perfusion reducing GFR without intrinsic tubular damage
  22. Under the Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962, drug manufacturers must demonstrate to the FDA that new drugs are: → Safe and effective
  23. A patient on warfarin begins taking high-dose vitamin E supplements. What is the expected effect on INR? → Increased INR due to inhibition of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
  24. Long chains, or ______________, are how humans store glucose. → Glycogen
  25. A patient with a sulfa allergy asks about safety of taking hydrochlorothiazide. What is the pharmacist's BEST response? → Use with caution as cross-reactivity with sulfonamides is possible
  26. What is the most important professional competency for FPGEE certification in pharmacy practice? → Deep knowledge combined with practical application skills
  27. The Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951 established which important distinction in pharmacy practice? → Distinction between prescription-only (Rx) and over-the-counter (OTC) drugs
  28. A patient with Parkinson's disease taking levodopa/carbidopa develops end-of-dose wearing off. Which add-on agent BEST extends levodopa effect? → Entacapone (COMT inhibitor)
  29. A patient with renal impairment requires dose adjustment. Which pharmacokinetic parameter is most relevant to assess? → Renal clearance
  30. Which electrolyte abnormality is MOST commonly associated with loop diuretic therapy? → Hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia
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