FMCLA Women's Health and Obstetrics 1 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: At what gestational age is a fetus considered viable by US obstetric standards?
- 18 weeks
- 22–24 weeks (Correct answer)
- 28 weeks
- 32 weeks
Correct answer: 22–24 weeks
Fetal viability is generally accepted at 22–24 weeks gestation, though survival rates significantly improve with advancing gestational age.
Question 2: A 26-year-old woman presents with a positive pregnancy test and sharp unilateral pelvic pain with vaginal spotting. Which diagnosis must be ruled out first?
- Threatened miscarriage
- Ectopic pregnancy (Correct answer)
- Ovarian torsion
- Pelvic inflammatory disease
Correct answer: Ectopic pregnancy
Ectopic pregnancy is a life-threatening emergency and must be excluded immediately with transvaginal ultrasound and quantitative hCG.
Question 3: Which screening test is recommended at 24–28 weeks gestation to detect gestational diabetes?
- Hemoglobin A1c
- Fasting blood glucose alone
- 1-hour 50g glucose challenge test (Correct answer)
- Urinalysis for glucose
Correct answer: 1-hour 50g glucose challenge test
The 1-hour 50g glucose challenge test (GCT) is the standard screening tool for gestational diabetes between 24–28 weeks.
Question 4: What is the first-line pharmacologic treatment for moderate-to-severe menopausal vasomotor symptoms in a woman without contraindications?
- SSRIs
- Hormone therapy (estrogen ± progesterone) (Correct answer)
- Gabapentin
- Clonidine
Correct answer: Hormone therapy (estrogen ± progesterone)
Hormone therapy remains the most effective treatment for menopausal vasomotor symptoms in appropriate candidates.
Question 5: Which organism is most commonly responsible for bacterial vaginosis?
- Candida albicans
- Trichomonas vaginalis
- Gardnerella vaginalis (Correct answer)
- Chlamydia trachomatis
Correct answer: Gardnerella vaginalis
Gardnerella vaginalis drives the disruption of normal vaginal flora that characterizes bacterial vaginosis.
Question 6: A woman at 32 weeks gestation presents with sudden painless vaginal bleeding. Which diagnosis is most likely?
- Placental abruption
- Placenta previa (Correct answer)
- Vasa previa
- Bloody show
Correct answer: Placenta previa
Placenta previa classically presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester due to the low-lying placenta.
FMCLA Women's Health and Obstetrics 1
At what gestational age is a fetus considered viable by US obstetric standards?