Family Practice Exam Women Health 4

Question 1

A 45-year-old woman presents with a painless, irregular breast mass on self-exam. Mammogram shows an irregular spiculated mass. What is the next step?

Accepted Answer

Core needle biopsy

Answer

A spiculated mass on mammogram is BI-RADS 4–5 and requires tissue diagnosis via core needle biopsy.

Question 2

A 16-year-old presents with primary amenorrhea. She has normal breast development but no pubic/axillary hair. Testosterone is in the male range. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome (CAIS)

Answer

CAIS presents with female phenotype, normal breast development, absent pubic/axillary hair, and male-range testosterone (46,XY karyotype).

Question 3

Which contraceptive method provides the most reliable protection against both STIs and pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Male latex condom

Answer

Male latex condoms are the only contraceptive method that provides significant protection against both pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections.

Question 4

A 34-year-old woman with PCOS presents desiring pregnancy. She has anovulatory cycles and a BMI of 32. What is the first-line ovulation induction agent?

Accepted Answer

Letrozole (aromatase inhibitor)

Answer

Letrozole is now preferred over clomiphene for ovulation induction in PCOS as it achieves higher live birth rates with less multiple pregnancy risk.

Question 5

A 60-year-old postmenopausal woman is started on alendronate for osteoporosis. Which instruction is most important to prevent esophageal injury?

Accepted Answer

Remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet

Answer

Bisphosphonates must be taken with a full glass of plain water and the patient must remain upright for ≥30 minutes to prevent esophageal ulceration.

Family Practice Exam Practice Test

Family Practice Exam Practice Test

Family Practice Exam Women Health 4