Family Practice Exam Women Health 3

Question 1

A 35-year-old woman on combined oral contraceptives presents with sudden severe headache and left-sided weakness. Which OCP-related risk is most concerning?

Accepted Answer

Estrogen-related thromboembolic stroke

Answer

Combined OCPs containing estrogen increase the risk of venous and arterial thromboembolism, including ischemic stroke, particularly in women with migraines with aura.

Question 2

What is the recommended first-line treatment for moderate-to-severe premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD)?

Accepted Answer

SSRIs (continuous or luteal-phase dosing)

Answer

SSRIs are first-line for PMDD and can be used continuously or limited to the luteal phase with equivalent efficacy.

Question 3

A 22-year-old woman presents with thick, white, cottage-cheese-like vaginal discharge with vulvar pruritus and no odor. KOH prep shows pseudohyphae. What is the treatment?

Accepted Answer

Fluconazole 150 mg PO single dose

Answer

Vulvovaginal candidiasis is treated with oral fluconazole 150 mg single dose or topical antifungals; pseudohyphae on KOH confirms Candida.

Question 4

A 52-year-old woman is noted to have a BMI of 34, nulliparity, late menopause at age 55, and type 2 diabetes. Which cancer does this cluster of risk factors most increase?

Accepted Answer

Endometrial cancer

Answer

Obesity, nulliparity, late menopause, and diabetes are classic risk factors for endometrial cancer due to unopposed estrogen exposure.

Question 5

A 38-year-old G3P3 woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding and pelvic pressure. Ultrasound shows a 6 cm intramural fibroid. She desires no future pregnancies. What is the definitive treatment?

Accepted Answer

Hysterectomy

Answer

Hysterectomy is the definitive cure for symptomatic uterine fibroids in a woman who has completed childbearing.

Family Practice Exam Practice Test

Family Practice Exam Practice Test

Family Practice Exam Women Health 3