ExCPT Exam (Exam for the Certification of Pharmacy Technicians) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which route of administration is used for tuberculin skin tests (TST)?

Intramuscular
Subcutaneous
Intravenous
Intradermal (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Intradermal

Tuberculin skin tests are given intradermally (into the dermis layer of skin) to create a wheal that is read 48-72 hours later for immune response.

Question 2: A prescription reads: 'Take ii tabs tid × 10 days.' How many tablets should be dispensed?

30 tablets
40 tablets
60 tablets (Correct answer)
20 tablets

Correct answer: 60 tablets

2 tablets × 3 times/day × 10 days = 60 tablets.

Question 3: What is the best action for a technician who notices a discrepancy between the filled prescription and the original order?

Ask another patient what they would prefer
Ignore it if the medication looks familiar.
Correct it silently without telling anyone.
Notify the pharmacist and resolve the discrepancy. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Notify the pharmacist and resolve the discrepancy.

Any discrepancy between a filled prescription and the original order is a potential medication error that could harm the patient. A technician's responsibility is to immediately stop the process, notify the pharmacist, and work together to investigate and resolve the issue. This ensures the correct medication is dispensed and maintains patient safety as a top priority.

Question 4: What is the primary purpose of using a filter needle when withdrawing medication from a glass ampule?

To measure the volume of the liquid more accurately
To vent the ampule and prevent pressure buildup
To prevent glass particles from being introduced into the final preparation (Correct answer)
To sterilize the medication

Correct answer: To prevent glass particles from being introduced into the final preparation

When a glass ampule is broken, microscopic glass shards can fall into the solution. A filter needle is specifically designed to trap these particles as the medication is withdrawn, ensuring the final sterile product is free from glass contamination.

Question 5: Which medication is classified as a loop diuretic commonly used for edema and heart failure?

Spironolactone
Furosemide (Correct answer)
Hydrochlorothiazide
Atenolol

Correct answer: Furosemide

Furosemide is a potent loop diuretic, meaning it acts on the loop of Henle in the kidneys to increase urine output. It is widely used to treat edema (fluid retention) associated with conditions like heart failure, liver disease, and kidney disease. Its strong diuretic effect helps to remove excess fluid from the body.

Question 6: Which of the following best describes a black box warning on a medication label?

A strong FDA warning about serious risks. (Correct answer)
An advertisement for brand-name drugs.
A suggestion for over-the-counter dosing.
A minor side effect with low risk.

Correct answer: A strong FDA warning about serious risks.

A black box warning is the strongest warning the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) requires for prescription drugs. It highlights serious or life-threatening risks, such as severe adverse effects or potential drug interactions, that are associated with the medication. This warning is crucial for prescribers and patients to understand the significant dangers and ensure safe medication use.

Question 7: What is the standard controlled room temperature range for storing most medications according to USP guidelines?

2–8°C (36–46°F)
-20–0°C (-4–32°F)
8–15°C (46–59°F)
15–30°C (59–86°F) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 15–30°C (59–86°F)

USP defines controlled room temperature as 15–30°C (59–86°F).

Question 8: A compounding technician is preparing an IV admixture. Which of the following actions is considered a critical step in maintaining aseptic technique?

Wiping the vial stopper with a 70% isopropyl alcohol swab before needle entry (Correct answer)
Wearing a surgical mask only, without gloves
Using tap water to rinse equipment before compounding
Compounding near an open window for ventilation

Correct answer: Wiping the vial stopper with a 70% isopropyl alcohol swab before needle entry

Swabbing the vial stopper with 70% isopropyl alcohol before needle entry disinfects the surface and prevents introducing contaminants into the sterile preparation.

Question 9: Why is it important to use a second patient identifier in addition to the patient’s name?

To prevent confusion between patients with similar names. (Correct answer)
To upsell nonprescription products.
To speed up prescription pick-up time.
To allow substitution without authorization.

Correct answer: To prevent confusion between patients with similar names.

Using a second patient identifier, such as date of birth or address, is a crucial safety measure to confirm the correct patient. This practice helps prevent medication errors that could arise from confusing patients with identical or similar names. It ensures the right medication is dispensed to the right person, which is a fundamental principle of patient safety.

Question 10: Which FDA program is used by healthcare professionals to voluntarily report medication errors and adverse events?

VAERS
FAERS
Drug Abuse Warning Network
MedWatch (Correct answer)

Correct answer: MedWatch

FDA MedWatch is the voluntary reporting program for healthcare professionals to submit reports on medication errors, adverse drug reactions, and product problems.

Question 11: USP Chapter <797> primarily governs which type of compounding?

Hazardous drug handling only
Sterile preparations (injections, ophthalmic, IV admixtures) (Correct answer)
Non-sterile topical preparations
Oral solid dosage form compounding

Correct answer: Sterile preparations (injections, ophthalmic, IV admixtures)

USP <797> establishes standards for compounding sterile preparations (CSPs) to prevent microbial contamination, pyrogens, and other harmful substances in parenteral and other sterile products.

Question 12: Which of the following tasks in the dispensing process must be performed by a licensed pharmacist and cannot be legally completed by a pharmacy technician?

Counting and pouring the medication into a vial.
Conducting the final verification of the prescription before it is given to the patient. (Correct answer)
Affixing the prescription and auxiliary labels to the container.
Entering prescription information into the computer system.

Correct answer: Conducting the final verification of the prescription before it is given to the patient.

The final verification, or final check, of a prescription is a professional responsibility that legally must be performed by a licensed pharmacist. This step ensures the accuracy and appropriateness of the dispensed medication and is a critical control point for patient safety.

Question 13: Which dosage form is specifically designed to release medication slowly over an extended period?

Immediate-release tablet
Enteric-coated tablet
Oral solution
Extended-release tablet or capsule (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Extended-release tablet or capsule

Extended-release (ER) or sustained-release (SR) tablets and capsules are specifically formulated to release medication slowly over an extended period. This design allows for less frequent dosing, maintains more consistent drug levels in the body, and can improve patient adherence. Other dosage forms like immediate-release or enteric-coated tablets have different release profiles.

Question 14: Which of the following best describes 'garbing' as it applies to sterile compounding?

The process of donning personal protective equipment in the correct order before entering the clean room (Correct answer)
Labeling compounded preparations with BUD and lot number
Sterilizing equipment using an autoclave
Calibrating the laminar airflow workbench filters

Correct answer: The process of donning personal protective equipment in the correct order before entering the clean room

Garbing refers to the sequential process of putting on required PPE — such as shoe covers, hair covers, gown, mask, and sterile gloves — in the correct order to maintain the cleanliness of the sterile compounding environment.

Question 15: Which federal law first required the child-resistant packaging for most OTC and prescription medications?

Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906
Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 (Correct answer)
Drug Listing Act of 1972
Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951

Correct answer: Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970

The Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA) of 1970 required child-resistant packaging for most prescription and OTC drugs to reduce accidental pediatric poisonings.

Question 16: What does the DEA Form 222 allow a pharmacy to do?

Dispose of expired Schedule III-V substances
Transfer Schedule II drugs between pharmacies for patient pickup
Report suspicious prescribing patterns to the DEA
Order Schedule I and II controlled substances from a DEA-registered supplier (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Order Schedule I and II controlled substances from a DEA-registered supplier

DEA Form 222 (or the electronic equivalent CSOS) is the official ordering document used by DEA-registered practitioners and pharmacies to purchase Schedule I and II controlled substances.

Question 17: A pharmacy is notified of a Class I drug recall. What should happen IMMEDIATELY?

Notify the state board of pharmacy within 30 days
Contact patients who received the drug only if requested by FDA
Remove the affected product from shelves and quarantine it (Correct answer)
Continue dispensing until replacement stock arrives

Correct answer: Remove the affected product from shelves and quarantine it

A Class I recall indicates the highest risk — reasonable probability that use will cause serious adverse health consequences or death. Immediate removal and quarantine is required.

Question 18: A pharmacy technician is preparing a non-aqueous topical cream by mixing two commercially available ointments. According to USP Chapter <795>, what is the maximum beyond-use date (BUD) that can be assigned to this compounded preparation when stored at room temperature?

14 days
6 months (Correct answer)
30 days
90 days

Correct answer: 6 months

According to USP Chapter <795> guidelines for non-sterile compounding, the default BUD for non-aqueous formulations (like ointments and creams made from commercial products) is the earliest expiration date of any active pharmaceutical ingredient (API) or 6 months, whichever is earlier.

Question 19: To prevent a medication error involving the wrong drug being dispensed, which of the following is a critical step in the prescription filling process?

Placing a 'high-alert' sticker on every prescription vial.
Checking the wholesale acquisition cost of the medication.
Ensuring the patient's address and phone number are correct.
Verifying the prescription by matching the National Drug Code (NDC) on the stock bottle to the NDC in the pharmacy computer system. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Verifying the prescription by matching the National Drug Code (NDC) on the stock bottle to the NDC in the pharmacy computer system.

Using the National Drug Code (NDC) is a precise method to verify that the medication being dispensed is the exact product (manufacturer, drug, and package size) specified in the prescription order. This is a key safety check to prevent wrong drug errors. While correct patient information is vital, and high-alert stickers are useful for specific drugs, the NDC check is a fundamental verification step for all prescriptions.

Question 20: A patient's daughter calls the pharmacy asking for a list of her mother's current medications. The mother is a long-time patient at the pharmacy. To comply with the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), what is the most appropriate action for the pharmacy technician?

Ask the daughter to verify her mother's date of birth before providing the list.
Provide the list, as she is an immediate family member.
Tell the daughter to have her mother call the pharmacy directly.
Deny the request unless the patient has provided prior written authorization to release information to the daughter. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Deny the request unless the patient has provided prior written authorization to release information to the daughter.

HIPAA's Privacy Rule protects a patient's Protected Health Information (PHI), which includes their medication list. PHI cannot be disclosed to family members without the patient's explicit authorization, typically through a signed consent form on file at the pharmacy. Simply verifying a date of birth is not sufficient, and while having the patient call is an option, the core HIPAA principle is the requirement of documented authorization.

Question 21: An orally disintegrating tablet (ODT) is specifically designed to:

Dissolve slowly over 12 hours in the stomach
Be dissolved in juice before swallowing
Disintegrate rapidly in the mouth without water (Correct answer)
Resist dissolution until reaching the colon

Correct answer: Disintegrate rapidly in the mouth without water

ODTs are formulated to rapidly disintegrate on the tongue within seconds when exposed to saliva, making them ideal for patients with difficulty swallowing.

Question 22: Which dosage form delivers medication systemically through intact skin?

Transdermal patch (Correct answer)
Topical cream
Rectal suppository
Otic solution

Correct answer: Transdermal patch

Transdermal patches are designed to deliver a controlled dose of medication through the skin into the systemic circulation over an extended period.

Question 23: What is a prior authorization (PA) in the context of pharmacy benefits?

A pharmacist's written approval before a technician can fill a controlled substance
A patient's signed consent form acknowledging medication risks
An advance refill approval granted by the pharmacy manager
Approval that a prescriber must obtain from the insurance plan before a medication will be covered (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Approval that a prescriber must obtain from the insurance plan before a medication will be covered

Prior authorization requires the prescriber to submit clinical justification to the insurance company before the plan will cover a specific medication. PAs are commonly required for expensive, non-formulary, or brand-name drugs.

Question 24: What does the term 'days supply' mean in pharmacy dispensing?

The number of days a dispensed quantity will last at the prescribed dosing regimen (Correct answer)
The number of days until expiration
The number of tablets in the bottle
The maximum days allowed by insurance

Correct answer: The number of days a dispensed quantity will last at the prescribed dosing regimen

Days supply is calculated by dividing the total quantity dispensed by the daily quantity used as directed by the prescriber.

Question 25: When a pharmacy technician counsels a patient picking up a new prescription, which verification step MOST directly helps catch a potential dispensing error before the patient leaves?

Asking the patient to confirm their date of birth again at pickup
Having the patient open the bag and describe what condition the medication is for (Correct answer)
Reminding the patient to store the medication at room temperature
Confirming the patient's insurance information is current

Correct answer: Having the patient open the bag and describe what condition the medication is for

Asking the patient to describe the condition being treated creates a 'closed-loop' verification — if the drug dispensed doesn't match the patient's stated condition, a dispensing error is caught before harm occurs. This technique is an important final safety check.

Question 26: A prescription is brought in for 'Synthroid 50 mcg.' The pharmacy only has levothyroxine 50 mcg in stock. What is the BEST action?

Dispense levothyroxine 50 mcg with pharmacist approval for therapeutic substitution (Correct answer)
Contact the prescriber to change the prescription to a different drug
Dispense Synthroid from another location
Tell the patient the prescription cannot be filled

Correct answer: Dispense levothyroxine 50 mcg with pharmacist approval for therapeutic substitution

Levothyroxine (generic) and Synthroid (brand) contain the same active ingredient. With pharmacist approval and appropriate DAW code, the generic can be substituted unless the prescriber wrote DAW 1.

Question 27: The abbreviation 'SL' on a prescription indicates the medication should be given:

By inhalation
Sublingually (Correct answer)
Slowly by IV infusion
Subcutaneously

Correct answer: Sublingually

SL stands for sublingual, meaning the medication is placed under the tongue for rapid absorption through the oral mucosa.

Question 28: What information is typically required to process a third-party insurance claim for a prescription?

Patient's medical diagnosis and hospital ID
Patient's Social Security number and employment status
Prescriber's state license number and NPI only
BIN number, PCN, group ID, and member ID from the insurance card (Correct answer)

Correct answer: BIN number, PCN, group ID, and member ID from the insurance card

The BIN (Bank Identification Number), PCN (Processor Control Number), group ID, and member ID from the patient's pharmacy insurance card are required to route and process a pharmacy claim electronically.

Question 29: A non-sterile compounded cream contains a base of petrolatum and an active drug. Which type of record is the compounding pharmacy required to maintain for this preparation?

An FDA pre-market approval application
A compounding record (batch record) for each preparation made (Correct answer)
A DEA Form 222 for each batch
A stability certificate from an independent laboratory for each batch

Correct answer: A compounding record (batch record) for each preparation made

USP <795> and state regulations require pharmacies to maintain a compounding record (master formulation record + compounding record) for each non-sterile preparation, documenting ingredients, quantities, equipment, BUD, and compounder identity.

Question 30: Why is it important to maintain accurate perpetual inventory for controlled substances?

To avoid ordering medications from wholesalers
To reduce the need for pharmacist oversight
To ensure accurate records and detect diversion. (Correct answer)
To set higher cash prices for medications

Correct answer: To ensure accurate records and detect diversion.

Controlled substances are highly regulated due to their potential for abuse and diversion, making accurate record-keeping essential. Maintaining a perpetual inventory, which involves continuously tracking every dose received and dispensed, is legally required and crucial for accountability. This meticulous record-keeping helps pharmacies detect any discrepancies, identify potential theft or diversion, and comply with DEA regulations.

Question 31: A scored tablet is one that has:

A special polymer coating for extended release
An enteric coating to protect it from stomach acid
A soft gel outer shell for easier swallowing
A line indented across it to allow accurate splitting (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A line indented across it to allow accurate splitting

A scored tablet has a groove or line across it that allows it to be split into equal halves or quarters for dose flexibility without loss of accuracy.

Question 32: Which government agency is primarily responsible for licensing pharmacists, registering pharmacy technicians, and disciplining licensees for misconduct within a specific state?

The Joint Commission
Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
State Board of Pharmacy (Correct answer)

Correct answer: State Board of Pharmacy

The State Board of Pharmacy is the regulatory body responsible for establishing and enforcing pharmacy laws and regulations at the state level. This includes licensing pharmacists and pharmacies, registering technicians, and taking disciplinary action against those who violate the state's Pharmacy Practice Act. The FDA regulates drug manufacturing and approval, while the DEA enforces controlled substance laws.

Question 33: The Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA) requires child-resistant containers for most dispensed medications. Which product is specifically EXEMPT from this requirement by federal regulation?

Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets (Correct answer)
Liquid antibiotics dispensed for pediatric patients
Schedule II opioid medications
Medications dispensed in amber vials with screw-top caps

Correct answer: Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets

Sublingual nitroglycerin is specifically exempt from PPPA child-resistant packaging because instant access is critical during a cardiac emergency. Other exemptions include oral contraceptives in mnemonic packaging and unit-dose hospital medications.

Question 34: Under federal law, how long must a pharmacy retain records for Schedule II controlled substances?

2 years (Correct answer)
5 years
3 years
1 year

Correct answer: 2 years

Federal DEA regulations require pharmacies to maintain Schedule II records for a minimum of 2 years; however, many states require longer retention periods.

Question 35: Benzodiazepines exert their anxiolytic effects by acting on which receptor?

NMDA glutamate receptor
Serotonin 5-HT1A receptor
GABA-A receptor (Correct answer)
Dopamine D2 receptor

Correct answer: GABA-A receptor

Benzodiazepines bind to GABA-A receptors at the benzodiazepine binding site, enhancing the effect of GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) and increasing chloride ion influx.

Question 36: Which law established the framework for the FDA's authority over prescription vs. over-the-counter drug classification?

Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938
Harrison Narcotic Tax Act of 1914
Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951 (Correct answer)
Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962

Correct answer: Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951

The Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951 defined which medications require a prescription (legend drugs) vs. those that can be sold OTC, and established the legal framework for pharmacist dispensing.

Question 37: What does the prescription sig code 'QID' instruct?

Four times daily (Correct answer)
At bedtime only
Every other day
Every four hours around the clock

Correct answer: Four times daily

QID derives from the Latin 'quater in die,' meaning four times daily. Pharmacy technicians must accurately interpret sig codes — confusing QID (four times daily) with Q4H (every four hours) could result in a dangerous dosing error.

Question 38: A pharmacy technician notices that a prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance is written on plain paper rather than an official tamper-resistant prescription pad. What is the correct action?

Bring the prescription to the pharmacist immediately without filling it (Correct answer)
Fill the prescription if the quantity is small
Fill it and add a note to the patient's profile
Call the patient to verify the prescription details

Correct answer: Bring the prescription to the pharmacist immediately without filling it

Schedule II controlled substances require a valid, tamper-resistant prescription in most states. A prescription that does not meet legal requirements must be escalated to the supervising pharmacist — technicians should never independently decide to fill or reject a suspicious controlled substance prescription.

Question 39: Pseudoephedrine sulfate, 120 mg, is an ingredient in each Claritin D 12 hour pill. The maximum quantity of pseudoephedrine per transfusion is 3.6 g.

30 (Correct answer)
24
48
4

Correct answer: 30

First, convert the maximum quantity from grams to milligrams: 3.6 g = 3600 mg (since 1 g = 1000 mg). Each Claritin D 12 hour pill contains 120 mg of pseudoephedrine. To find the maximum number of pills allowed, divide the total allowed milligrams by the milligrams per pill: 3600 mg / 120 mg/pill = 30 pills.

Question 40: Which of the following is the correct way to dispose of non-controlled, non-hazardous expired medications in a retail pharmacy?

Throw them in the regular trash
Return them to the distributor without documentation
Flush them down the sink
Place them in an authorized pharmaceutical take-back program or mail-back envelope (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Place them in an authorized pharmaceutical take-back program or mail-back envelope

Authorized pharmaceutical take-back programs or DEA-approved mail-back envelopes are the recommended method for safe disposal of non-controlled medications.

Question 41: USP <800> standards apply primarily to which category of compounded preparations?

Hazardous drugs, including many chemotherapy agents (Correct answer)
Veterinary compounded medications only
Nutritional supplements and vitamins
OTC topical creams and ointments

Correct answer: Hazardous drugs, including many chemotherapy agents

USP <800> establishes safety standards for handling hazardous drugs — including many antineoplastic (chemotherapy) agents — to protect healthcare workers, patients, and the environment from exposure.

Question 42: A prescription for a new patient arrives with no date of birth listed. Why is obtaining this information essential before dispensing?

It is required only for controlled substances, not routine prescriptions
It is optional if the patient verbally confirms the medication name
It allows the pharmacist to verify the correct drug formulation and dose for the patient's age (Correct answer)
It is needed solely for insurance billing purposes

Correct answer: It allows the pharmacist to verify the correct drug formulation and dose for the patient's age

Date of birth is used to verify patient identity, confirm age-appropriate dosing (e.g., pediatric vs. adult formulations), and ensure the prescription belongs to the correct individual — all critical safety steps before dispensing.

Question 43: If a cream is labeled 2.5% w/w, how many mg of active ingredient are in a 30 g tube?

25 mg
75 mg
750 mg (Correct answer)
250 mg

Correct answer: 750 mg

2.5% of 30 g = 0.75 g = 750 mg.

Question 44: What is the function of the National Drug Code (NDC) number on a drug package?

To indicate which insurance plans cover the medication
To show the drug's patent expiration date
To indicate the drug's DEA schedule
To uniquely identify the labeler, product, and package size of a drug (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To uniquely identify the labeler, product, and package size of a drug

The NDC is a unique 10- or 11-digit identifier with three segments: labeler code (manufacturer/distributor), product code (specific formulation), and package code (package size/type).

Question 45: Which of the following is a strategy recommended by the Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) to reduce errors between look-alike drug names like hydrALAZINE and hydrOXYzine?

Storing the medications in different refrigerators.
Using a black marker to cross out the brand name.
Implementing the use of 'Tall Man' lettering. (Correct answer)
Only allowing the pharmacist to dispense these medications.

Correct answer: Implementing the use of 'Tall Man' lettering.

The use of 'Tall Man' lettering (e.g., hydrOXYzine vs. hydrALAZINE) is a specific strategy endorsed by the ISMP and FDA to help distinguish between look-alike drug names. By capitalizing dissimilar parts of the names, it draws attention to the differences and helps reduce the risk of selecting the wrong medication.

Question 46: The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990 (OBRA '90) requires pharmacists to do which of the following for Medicaid patients?

Offer counseling to patients (Correct answer)
Require physician authorization for refills
Offer generic substitution
Maintain a paper filing system

Correct answer: Offer counseling to patients

OBRA '90 mandated that pharmacists offer counseling to Medicaid patients about their medications to improve therapeutic outcomes.

Question 47: The Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951 primarily established which of the following in U.S. pharmacy law?

Mandatory proof of drug efficacy before FDA approval
The legal distinction between prescription-only and over-the-counter drugs (Correct answer)
Pharmacist counseling requirements for all new prescriptions
Child-resistant packaging requirements for dispensed medications

Correct answer: The legal distinction between prescription-only and over-the-counter drugs

The Durham-Humphrey Amendment defined which drugs require a practitioner's prescription (bearing the Rx legend) versus those that can be sold OTC, creating the legal framework still used today.

Question 48: A prescription for an oral medication is presented for a 3-year-old child. According to the Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA) of 1970, how must this prescription be dispensed?

In any container the parent requests.
In a standard vial with an easy-open cap.
In a container with child-resistant packaging. (Correct answer)
In the original manufacturer's stock bottle.

Correct answer: In a container with child-resistant packaging.

The Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA) mandates that most oral prescription drugs be dispensed in child-resistant packaging to protect children under five from accidental poisoning. A patient or prescriber can request non-child-resistant packaging, but it is not the default for pediatric patients.

Question 49: Which of the following is the most common type of medication error reported in pharmacy settings?

Wrong dose dispensed (Correct answer)
Wrong patient
Wrong route
Wrong drug dispensed

Correct answer: Wrong dose dispensed

Wrong dose errors are the most frequently reported category of medication errors in pharmacy dispensing.

Question 50: Which storage condition is described as 'protect from light'?

Refrigerate at 2–8°C in a dark area
Keep at room temperature in a cabinet
Store in a white or opaque container away from UV radiation (Correct answer)
Store below -20°C in lightproof bags

Correct answer: Store in a white or opaque container away from UV radiation

Light-sensitive medications should be stored in amber or opaque containers that block ultraviolet light.

Question 51: Which of the following best describes a transdermal drug delivery system's primary advantage?

It provides immediate peak drug levels within minutes
It avoids first-pass metabolism and provides steady drug levels (Correct answer)
It delivers medication only to local tissue at the application site
It is the cheapest dosage form to manufacture

Correct answer: It avoids first-pass metabolism and provides steady drug levels

Transdermal patches bypass the gastrointestinal tract and liver, avoiding first-pass metabolism, while providing consistent, sustained drug levels over hours or days.

Question 52: After filling a prescription for an antibiotic suspension, the pharmacy technician should affix which auxiliary label to alert the patient about storage?

'Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight'
'Refrigerate — Do not freeze' (Correct answer)
'Take with food or milk'
'May cause drowsiness — Use caution when driving'

Correct answer: 'Refrigerate — Do not freeze'

Most reconstituted antibiotic suspensions (e.g., amoxicillin, azithromycin) require refrigeration after mixing to maintain potency. The correct auxiliary label reminds patients of this requirement.

Question 53: Which of the following is the FIRST step in the standard pharmacy dispensing workflow?

Conduct the final pharmacist verification
Receive and review the prescription for completeness and validity (Correct answer)
Prepare the medication label
Count and pour the medication

Correct answer: Receive and review the prescription for completeness and validity

The first step is to receive the prescription and review it for all required elements, potential forgery, patient allergies, and any obvious clinical concerns before entering data.

Question 54: A physician orders heparin 1,000 units/hr via IV infusion. The available bag contains 25,000 units in 250 mL. What is the infusion rate in mL/hr?

10 mL/hr (Correct answer)
20 mL/hr
15 mL/hr
5 mL/hr

Correct answer: 10 mL/hr

Concentration = 25,000 units ÷ 250 mL = 100 units/mL; 1,000 units ÷ 100 units/mL = 10 mL/hr.

Question 55: Which of the following opioid analgesics has the HIGHEST risk of causing QT prolongation?

Morphine
Methadone (Correct answer)
Hydrocodone
Oxycodone

Correct answer: Methadone

Methadone has a unique pharmacological profile that includes potassium channel blockade, leading to QT interval prolongation and risk of torsades de pointes arrhythmia.

Question 56: Which DEA form is required when a pharmacy orders Schedule II controlled substances from a DEA-registered distributor?

DEA Form 222 (Correct answer)
DEA Form 363
DEA Form 106
DEA Form 41

Correct answer: DEA Form 222

DEA Form 222 (or its electronic equivalent, CSOS) is the official order form mandated by the DEA for purchasing or transferring Schedule II controlled substances. It must be kept on file for at least 2 years.

Question 57: A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for metformin 500 mg but the label printed says metformin 1000 mg. What is the BEST action?

Change the label manually to 500 mg
Call the patient to confirm their dose
Alert the pharmacist immediately before dispensing (Correct answer)
Dispense the 1000 mg because it's a common dose

Correct answer: Alert the pharmacist immediately before dispensing

Any discrepancy between the prescription and the label must be flagged to the pharmacist before dispensing.

Question 58: What does the term 'clean room' refer to in a sterile compounding pharmacy?

Any pharmacy area that has been mopped and sanitized daily
A room with controlled temperature used for refrigerated products
An environmentally controlled space with defined ISO air quality classifications for sterile preparation (Correct answer)
A designated storage area for compounded preparations

Correct answer: An environmentally controlled space with defined ISO air quality classifications for sterile preparation

A clean room is an ISO-classified, environmentally controlled space designed to minimize airborne particulates and microbial contamination during sterile compounding.

Question 59: What does the abbreviation 'NCC MERP' stand for in the context of medication safety?

National Coordinating Council for Medication Error Reporting and Prevention (Correct answer)
National Center for Controlled Medication Error Reporting Practices
Nationwide Compliance Council for Medication Error Reduction Programs
National Clinical Committee for Medical Error Research and Policy

Correct answer: National Coordinating Council for Medication Error Reporting and Prevention

NCC MERP (National Coordinating Council for Medication Error Reporting and Prevention) is the organization that developed the widely used index for categorizing medication errors by severity, from Category A (no error) through Category I (patient death).

Question 60: During the dispensing process, the pharmacy system generates a Drug Utilization Review (DUR) alert for a potential drug-drug interaction. What is the technician's MOST appropriate response?

Override the alert and continue filling since the prescriber ordered it
Cancel the prescription and send it back to the patient
Bring the alert to the pharmacist's attention before dispensing (Correct answer)
Call the prescriber directly to discuss the interaction

Correct answer: Bring the alert to the pharmacist's attention before dispensing

DUR alerts must be reviewed by the pharmacist, who has the clinical authority to evaluate the interaction and decide whether to proceed, contact the prescriber, or counsel the patient. Technicians do not make that clinical judgment.

Question 61: Under the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act (CMEA), what is the maximum amount of pseudoephedrine-containing products a customer may purchase per day?

7.5 grams
1.8 grams
3.6 grams (Correct answer)
9 grams

Correct answer: 3.6 grams

CMEA limits pseudoephedrine sales to 3.6 grams per day and 9 grams per 30-day period per customer. Sales must be logged and purchasers must show valid photo ID.

Question 62: A compounded preparation contains a controlled substance. Which additional regulatory requirement applies?

The preparation can only be compounded in a 503B outsourcing facility
DEA regulations for controlled substance handling, storage, and record-keeping apply (Correct answer)
USP <797> sterility testing is waived
The BUD is automatically extended to 180 days

Correct answer: DEA regulations for controlled substance handling, storage, and record-keeping apply

When compounding involves controlled substances, DEA regulations overlay all other compounding requirements — including proper DEA registration, storage in appropriate vaults/safes, and mandatory record-keeping.

Question 63: A technician is compounding a hazardous drug (HD) intravenously. Which type of Primary Engineering Control (PEC) is required to ensure both product sterility and personnel safety?

Laminar Airflow Workbench (LAFW)
Class II Biological Safety Cabinet (BSC) (Correct answer)
A HEPA filter in the general pharmacy
Compounding Aseptic Isolator (CAI)

Correct answer: Class II Biological Safety Cabinet (BSC)

A Class II Biological Safety Cabinet (BSC) is required for compounding sterile hazardous drugs. It provides a sterile environment for the product while using negative pressure and HEPA-filtered exhaust to protect the compounder and the environment from exposure to the hazardous drug.

Question 64: Which strategy best helps prevent errors with look-alike and sound-alike medications?

Choose the drug with the shortest name first.
Rely only on memory for drug selection.
Use tall-man lettering and separate storage areas. (Correct answer)
Ignore spelling differences if strengths match.

Correct answer: Use tall-man lettering and separate storage areas.

Using tall-man lettering (e.g., hydrOXYzine vs. hydrALAZINE) helps visually differentiate look-alike medications, making them less prone to confusion. Storing LASA drugs in separate, distinct locations further reduces the risk of selecting the wrong medication during the dispensing process. These strategies are recommended by safety organizations to enhance medication safety and prevent errors.

Question 65: Which medication is an example of a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) used for GERD?

Ranitidine
Sucralfate
Aluminum hydroxide
Omeprazole (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Omeprazole

Omeprazole is a classic example of a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) frequently prescribed for conditions like GERD (Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease). PPIs work by irreversibly blocking the proton pumps in the stomach, which are responsible for producing stomach acid, thereby reducing acid secretion. Ranitidine is an H2 blocker, and Sucralfate and Aluminum hydroxide have different mechanisms of action.

Question 66: A patient brings in a new prescription for oxycodone, a Schedule II controlled substance. Which of the following is true regarding the refilling of this prescription according to federal law?

It can be refilled up to 5 times in 6 months.
It requires a new prescription for each fill. (Correct answer)
It can be refilled once within 30 days.
It can be refilled as authorized by the prescriber for up to one year.

Correct answer: It requires a new prescription for each fill.

Federal law strictly prohibits the refilling of Schedule II controlled substance prescriptions. A new, valid prescription is required each time the medication is dispensed. Prescriptions for Schedule III and IV substances may be refilled up to 5 times within 6 months if authorized by the prescriber.

Question 67: How many milliliters are in 2.5 liters?

0.25 mL
25 mL
250 mL
2,500 mL (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 2,500 mL

1 liter = 1,000 mL, so 2.5 liters = 2,500 mL.

Question 68: One prominent instance of a drug-drug interaction is.

Guaifenesin-pscudoephedrine
Misbranded
Hydrocodone-codeine
Warfarin-aspirin (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Warfarin-aspirin

The interaction between Warfarin and Aspirin is a well-known and clinically significant drug-drug interaction. Both medications affect blood clotting, but through different mechanisms. Taking them concurrently significantly increases the risk of bleeding, necessitating careful monitoring and dose adjustments to prevent adverse events.

Question 69: What does it mean when a drug is labeled 'NTE' on a prescription?

No transfer enabled — non-transferable controlled substance
New therapeutic entity — first-in-class drug
Not to exceed — a quantity or dose maximum instruction (Correct answer)
Not therapeutically equivalent — cannot be substituted

Correct answer: Not to exceed — a quantity or dose maximum instruction

NTE stands for 'Not to Exceed' and is used to indicate a maximum quantity or dose — for example, 'NTE 4 tablets per day' or 'NTE QTY 30.'

Question 70: Lisinopril, commonly dispensed by pharmacy technicians, belongs to which drug class?

Beta-adrenergic agonist
Thiazide diuretic
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor (Correct answer)
Calcium channel blocker

Correct answer: Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

Lisinopril is an Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, identifiable by its '-pril' suffix. ACE inhibitors work by blocking the enzyme that converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. This leads to vasodilation and a decrease in blood pressure, making them effective for hypertension and heart failure.

Question 71: Extended-release (ER) tablets should NEVER be crushed or chewed because:

They must be refrigerated to remain effective
They taste bitter and will cause nausea
Crushing makes them harder to swallow
Crushing destroys the release mechanism and can cause dose dumping (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Crushing destroys the release mechanism and can cause dose dumping

Crushing an ER tablet destroys its controlled-release matrix, releasing the entire dose at once (dose dumping), which can cause toxicity or adverse effects.

Question 72: USP Chapter <795> governs which type of pharmaceutical compounding?

Radiopharmaceutical compounding
Veterinary sterile injections only
Sterile preparations for injection
Non-sterile preparations (creams, ointments, oral liquids, capsules) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Non-sterile preparations (creams, ointments, oral liquids, capsules)

USP <795> provides standards for non-sterile compounded preparations including topicals (creams, ointments, gels), oral preparations (solutions, suspensions, capsules), and other non-sterile dosage forms.

Question 73: A patient needs 1.5 g of a medication. The tablets available are 500 mg each. How many tablets are needed?

1.5 tablets
3 tablets (Correct answer)
2 tablets
4 tablets

Correct answer: 3 tablets

1.5 g = 1500 mg; 1500 mg ÷ 500 mg/tablet = 3 tablets.

Question 74: What is the purpose of media-fill testing in sterile compounding?

To test the potency of active pharmaceutical ingredients
To test the pH of compounded IV solutions before dispensing
To verify that a compounder's aseptic technique does not introduce microbial contamination (Correct answer)
To simulate a hazardous drug spill response

Correct answer: To verify that a compounder's aseptic technique does not introduce microbial contamination

Media-fill tests use a sterile microbiological growth medium in place of actual drug solution. If technique is proper, the medium should remain sterile (no growth); turbidity indicates a breach in aseptic technique.

Question 75: Under the Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 (PPPA), which of the following oral prescription medications is generally exempt from child-resistant packaging requirements?

Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets (Correct answer)
Ferrous sulfate tablets
Amoxicillin oral suspension
Ibuprofen 800mg tablets

Correct answer: Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets

The Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA) allows for several exemptions to child-resistant packaging. Sublingual nitroglycerin is exempt because it is used in emergency situations for conditions like angina, where quick access is critical. Most other oral prescription drugs, including common antibiotics, high-strength NSAIDs, and iron supplements, require child-resistant packaging unless the patient or prescriber requests otherwise.

Question 76: The Drug Supply Chain Security Act (DSCSA) requires pharmacies to track which of the following?

The chain of custody (transaction history) for prescription drug products (Correct answer)
Unit-dose dispensing times for all medications
All OTC drug sales by patient
Patient adherence records for 10 years

Correct answer: The chain of custody (transaction history) for prescription drug products

DSCSA (2013) establishes an electronic, interoperable system to track and trace prescription drugs through the supply chain to prevent counterfeit, stolen, or harmful products.

Question 77: What is a 'par level' in pharmacy inventory management?

The expiration date tracking threshold
The maximum amount of a drug that can be ordered at once
The DEA quota for controlled substances
The minimum stock quantity that triggers a reorder (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The minimum stock quantity that triggers a reorder

A par level is the minimum inventory quantity below which a reorder is placed to prevent stockouts.

Question 78: What is the 'fill date' on a prescription, and why does it matter?

The date the prescriber wrote the Rx — it determines validity period
The date the insurance approved the claim
The date the pharmacy dispensed the medication — used for refill calculations (Correct answer)
The date the patient picked up the medication

Correct answer: The date the pharmacy dispensed the medication — used for refill calculations

The fill date is when the pharmacy dispensed the medication. Insurance plans and DEA regulations use this date to calculate refill eligibility.

Question 79: When compounding hazardous drugs (HDs), which type of primary engineering control is required?

Standard pharmacy compounding hood
Biological safety cabinet (BSC) Class II Type A2 or C-PEC (Correct answer)
Positive pressure cleanroom
Horizontal laminar airflow workbench (LAFW)

Correct answer: Biological safety cabinet (BSC) Class II Type A2 or C-PEC

Hazardous drugs must be compounded in a containment primary engineering control (C-PEC) such as a Class II BSC or Compounding Aseptic Containment Isolator (CACI) to protect personnel from toxic drug exposure.

Question 80: A pharmacy discovers a significant loss of a Schedule II controlled substance. According to federal law, which DEA form must be completed and submitted to report this loss?

DEA Form 106 (Correct answer)
DEA Form 41
DEA Form 224
DEA Form 222

Correct answer: DEA Form 106

DEA Form 106 is the official form required by the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) for registrants to report the theft or significant loss of any controlled substances. DEA Form 222 is for ordering Schedule I and II substances, DEA Form 41 is for the destruction of controlled substances, and DEA Form 224 is the application for new registration.

Question 81: What does the acronym FIFO mean in pharmacy inventory management?

First Item, Final Order
Fill In, Fill Out
Fixed Inventory, Fixed Output
First In, First Out (Correct answer)

Correct answer: First In, First Out

FIFO (First In, First Out) means older stock is dispensed before newer stock to prevent expiration.

Question 82: When compounding a sterile preparation, which of the following actions is performed first in the garbing process before entering the cleanroom's buffer area?

Putting on a hair cover and face mask (Correct answer)
Donning sterile gloves
Washing hands and forearms
Donning a non-shedding gown

Correct answer: Putting on a hair cover and face mask

The correct garbing sequence, from dirtiest to cleanest, requires applying shoe covers, then a hair cover, beard cover (if applicable), and a face mask before proceeding to hand hygiene and donning a gown. This minimizes contamination of cleaner items.

Question 83: What is the primary reason for wearing sterile gloves during aseptic technique in sterile compounding?

To prevent static electricity from damaging the LAFW
To protect the compounder from chemical exposure
To prevent introduction of microorganisms from skin flora into the preparation (Correct answer)
To comply with OSHA temperature regulations

Correct answer: To prevent introduction of microorganisms from skin flora into the preparation

The primary purpose is to protect the sterile preparation from microbial contamination — human skin harbors microorganisms that could contaminate sterile products and cause serious patient harm.

Question 84: When filling a prescription for a 90-day supply of a maintenance medication for a patient on Medicare Part D, which program typically covers this?

Medicare Part B
Medicare Part A
Medicaid only
Medicare Part D (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Medicare Part D

Medicare Part D is the outpatient prescription drug benefit under Medicare, covering most retail and mail-order prescription medications.

Question 85: Which of the following best describes an 'auxiliary label' on a prescription bottle?

The main printed prescription label with patient and drug information
The insurance billing sticker attached to the prescription bag
A label indicating the drug's DEA schedule
A supplemental colored sticker providing additional instructions or warnings (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A supplemental colored sticker providing additional instructions or warnings

Auxiliary labels are supplemental warning or instruction stickers (e.g., 'Take with food,' 'May cause drowsiness,' 'Avoid alcohol') that provide important safety information beyond the main prescription label.

Question 86: A prescription is written for 'Celebrex 200 mg.' The technician dispenses Celexa 200 mg instead. What type of error is this?

Wrong drug error (Correct answer)
Omission error
Route error
Dose error

Correct answer: Wrong drug error

Dispensing Celexa (citalopram, an antidepressant) instead of Celebrex (celecoxib, an NSAID) is a wrong drug error — a classic look-alike/sound-alike (LASA) mix-up.

Question 87: What should a technician do if a patient reports an allergy to a medication on a new prescription?

Tell the patient to monitor for mild symptoms only.
Continue filling the prescription and say nothing.
Record the allergy and alert the pharmacist right away. (Correct answer)
Ignore it if the patient has taken the drug before.

Correct answer: Record the allergy and alert the pharmacist right away.

A reported allergy to a medication on a new prescription is a critical safety alert that requires immediate action. The technician must promptly record this information in the patient's profile and alert the pharmacist. The pharmacist can then assess the allergy, determine if the prescribed medication is contraindicated, and contact the prescriber for an alternative if necessary, preventing a potentially life-threatening reaction.

Question 88: A technician is preparing a compounded IV solution and realizes the beyond-use date (BUD) on a sterile ingredient has passed. What is the MOST appropriate action?

Discard the ingredient and obtain an unexpired one before proceeding (Correct answer)
Complete the preparation and notify the pharmacist after dispensing
Use the ingredient if it appears clear and uncontaminated
Adjust the BUD to match the compounding date

Correct answer: Discard the ingredient and obtain an unexpired one before proceeding

Expired ingredients must never be used in compounding because potency, sterility, and safety can no longer be guaranteed. The correct action is to discard the expired ingredient and use a product within its valid BUD to ensure patient safety.

Question 89: When preparing a prescription label, which of the following pieces of information is NOT federally required to be included?

The prescription number.
The patient's date of birth. (Correct answer)
The name and address of the pharmacy.
The patient's name.

Correct answer: The patient's date of birth.

While many pharmacy systems include the patient's date of birth on the label as a second identifier for safety, federal law does not mandate its presence on the prescription label. Essential required elements include the patient's name, pharmacy details, prescription number, date of filling, prescriber's name, and directions for use.

Question 90: Which component of aseptic technique involves maintaining a direct, unobstructed pathway of ISO 5 air from the HEPA filter to the critical site?

Gowning procedure
Hand hygiene protocol
Garbing sequence
Critical site protection / first air principle (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Critical site protection / first air principle

The 'first air principle' means the first air to contact a critical site (needle tip, vial septum, syringe tip) must be uncontaminated ISO 5 air directly from the HEPA filter — no objects should block this airflow.

Question 91: When preparing an IV admixture, what should the technician do BEFORE adding a drug to an IV bag?

Visually inspect the IV bag for particulate matter, leaks, and clarity (Correct answer)
Spike the bag with the primary IV tubing
Shake the IV bag vigorously to mix contents
Warm the IV bag to 37°C in a water bath

Correct answer: Visually inspect the IV bag for particulate matter, leaks, and clarity

Before adding any drug to an IV bag, the bag must be visually inspected for particulate matter, discoloration, cloudiness, leaks, cracks, or any abnormality that would render it unsuitable for use.

Question 92: A patient requests a transfer of a Schedule III controlled substance prescription to a different pharmacy. How many times may a Schedule III–V prescription be transferred?

It cannot be transferred at all
One time only (Correct answer)
Unlimited times until the refills are exhausted
Up to three times within six months

Correct answer: One time only

Federal law allows Schedule III–V prescriptions to be transferred only once between pharmacies. An exception exists for pharmacies sharing a real-time online database, where transfers may equal the number of refills remaining.

Question 93: What is the maximum number of refills allowed for a Schedule III or IV controlled substance?

Unlimited refills within 1 year
No refills permitted
3 refills within 6 months
5 refills within 6 months (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 5 refills within 6 months

Schedule III and IV controlled substances may be refilled up to 5 times within 6 months of the original date of issue.

Question 94: A patient asks why their prescription says 'QTY: 30' but they only received 15 tablets. What is the most likely explanation?

The pharmacist split the prescription as a safety precaution
The drug went off formulary mid-fill
The pharmacy made a dispensing error
The insurance only approved a 15-day supply for the initial fill (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The insurance only approved a 15-day supply for the initial fill

Insurance plans sometimes limit the quantity on a first fill (initial fill quantity limits) for certain medications, particularly controlled substances or new therapies, to 15 days or another partial quantity.

Question 95: What is a 'beyond-use date' (BUD) in compounding?

The manufacturer's expiration date printed on the original drug container
The date after which a compounded preparation should not be used (Correct answer)
The date a bulk drug substance certificate expires
The date by which a compounding order must be submitted

Correct answer: The date after which a compounded preparation should not be used

The BUD is the date/time after which a compounded preparation should not be used, assigned by the pharmacist based on the nature of the preparation, ingredients, and storage conditions per USP standards.

Question 96: In pharmacy, what is a 'formulary'?

A list of all FDA-approved drugs
A list of drugs covered and preferred by a specific insurance plan (Correct answer)
A pharmacy's master inventory list
A reference guide for compounding formulas

Correct answer: A list of drugs covered and preferred by a specific insurance plan

A formulary is a list of prescription drugs covered by a health insurance plan, often tiered by co-pay amount to encourage use of preferred (lower-cost) options.

Question 97: A compounding formula requires 30% of ingredient A and 70% of ingredient B. If making 120 g total, how many grams of ingredient A are needed?

40 g
84 g
30 g
36 g (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 36 g

30% × 120 g = 0.30 × 120 = 36 g of ingredient A.

Question 98: A pharmacy discovers that a quantity of controlled substances is missing and suspects theft. Which DEA form must be submitted to report this event?

DEA Form 41
DEA Form 224
DEA Form 106 (Correct answer)
DEA Form 363

Correct answer: DEA Form 106

DEA Form 106 (Report of Theft or Significant Loss of Controlled Substances) must be filed promptly when a pharmacy discovers theft or significant unexplained loss. DEA Form 41 is used for destruction of controlled substances, and Form 224 is the pharmacy registration application.

Question 99: A pharmacy technician is preparing a magic mouthwash that contains several liquid ingredients. Which piece of equipment is most appropriate for accurately measuring 25 mL of a low-viscosity liquid for this non-sterile compound?

A conical graduate
An oral syringe
A beaker
A graduated cylinder (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A graduated cylinder

For measuring liquids in non-sterile compounding, a graduated cylinder provides greater accuracy than a conical graduate or a beaker. An oral syringe is also accurate but is typically used for smaller volumes or for direct administration. A graduated cylinder is the standard tool for this volume.

Question 100: Which of the following is a key difference between a 503A compounding pharmacy and a 503B outsourcing facility?

503A pharmacies must comply with cGMP regulations
503B outsourcing facilities can compound large batches without patient-specific prescriptions under FDA oversight (Correct answer)
503A pharmacies can compound large batch sizes for office stock without patient-specific prescriptions
503B facilities are not required to register with the FDA

Correct answer: 503B outsourcing facilities can compound large batches without patient-specific prescriptions under FDA oversight

503B outsourcing facilities are FDA-registered entities that can compound large batches for office stock/hospital use without individual patient prescriptions but must comply with cGMP standards and FDA oversight.

ExCPT Exam (Exam for the Certification of Pharmacy Technicians)

The ExCPT exam certifies the knowledge and skills of pharmacy technicians, enabling them to assist pharmacists in various healthcare settings.

100

Questions

120 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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