S-95 Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which type of notification appliance is specifically required to provide emergency notification for building occupants with hearing impairments?

Horn
Visual strobe (Correct answer)
Bell
Speaker

Correct answer: Visual strobe

Visual notification appliances (strobes) are required by both ADA and NFPA 72 to provide emergency notification for individuals who cannot perceive audible alarms.

Question 2: What type of test verifies that audible notification appliances produce the required sound pressure levels throughout a facility?

Impedance test
Sound level measurement test (Correct answer)
Sensitivity test
Functional test

Correct answer: Sound level measurement test

A sound level measurement test uses a calibrated sound level meter to confirm notification appliances meet minimum dB levels per NFPA 72.

Question 3: Under NFPA 72, a central station monitoring company must maintain records of all alarm signals received for a minimum of:

1 year (Correct answer)
6 months
5 years
3 years

Correct answer: 1 year

NFPA 72 requires central station supervising companies to retain records of all signals received, including alarms, troubles, and supervisory signals, for a minimum of 1 year.

Question 4: A rate-of-rise heat detector is designed to activate when:

The detector senses the specific infrared signature of flames.
The temperature increases by a specified number of degrees per minute. (Correct answer)
Humidity in the protected area drops below a certain percentage.
The ambient temperature reaches a fixed-point, such as 135°F.

Correct answer: The temperature increases by a specified number of degrees per minute.

Rate-of-rise (ROR) heat detectors are triggered by a rapid increase in temperature over a short period, typically around 12-15°F (6.7-8.3°C) per minute. This allows them to signal an alarm before the temperature reaches a high fixed point, providing earlier warning for fast-developing fires.

Question 5: In an addressable fire alarm system, what is the primary function of a monitor module?

To measure and calibrate detector sensitivity during annual testing
To control the power output to notification appliance circuits
To display real-time alarm conditions on the FACP LCD screen
To supervise and report the status of conventional non-addressable devices on the SLC (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To supervise and report the status of conventional non-addressable devices on the SLC

A monitor module connects conventional devices (such as 4-wire smoke detectors or pull stations) to the addressable SLC, giving each zone a unique address on the system.

Question 6: Which of the following best describes the role of the 'Authority Having Jurisdiction' (AHJ) regarding fire alarm systems?

Provides alarm monitoring services
Manufactures and certifies alarm equipment
Sets national standards through NFPA
Interprets and enforces applicable codes locally (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Interprets and enforces applicable codes locally

The AHJ is the organization, office, or individual responsible for interpreting and enforcing applicable codes and regulations at the local level.

Question 7: When a monitoring company receives a supervisory signal from a protected premises, the FIRST action required by NFPA 72 is to:

Attempt to contact a designated representative at the protected premises (Correct answer)
Dispatch the fire department immediately
Log the signal and take no action until the building calls in
Notify the local AHJ and wait for instructions

Correct answer: Attempt to contact a designated representative at the protected premises

NFPA 72 requires monitoring companies receiving supervisory signals to promptly attempt to contact a designated representative at the protected premises to investigate the condition.

Question 8: A fire alarm control panel is operating on its secondary power source (batteries) due to a building-wide power outage. After several hours, a distinct, audible signal begins to sound from the FACP, and the display shows 'Low Battery'. This signal is classified as a:

Supervisory Signal
Alarm Signal
Trouble Signal (Correct answer)
Ground Fault Signal

Correct answer: Trouble Signal

A 'Low Battery' condition indicates a fault with a critical component of the fire alarm system itself—its secondary power supply. According to NFPA 72, faults within the fire alarm system, including its power supplies, wiring, and components, are annunciated as trouble signals. This alerts personnel to a condition that could prevent the system from operating as intended in an emergency.

Question 9: A rate-of-rise heat detector triggers an alarm when the temperature increases by more than how many degrees Fahrenheit per minute?

25°F per minute (Correct answer)
5°F per minute
12°F per minute
15°F per minute

Correct answer: 25°F per minute

Rate-of-rise detectors are designed to alarm when temperature increases at a rate exceeding approximately 12–15°F per minute, indicating a rapidly developing fire condition.

Question 10: On most FACPs, a trouble condition is indicated by which color LED?

Green
Blue
Red
Yellow or amber (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Yellow or amber

Yellow or amber LEDs indicate trouble conditions, distinguishing them from red alarm indicators and green normal-standby indicators.

Question 11: In a dusty industrial environment, such as a woodworking shop, which type of automatic initiating device would be most appropriate to minimize nuisance alarms?

Air-aspirating smoke detector
Ionization smoke detector
Heat detector (Correct answer)
Photoelectric beam detector

Correct answer: Heat detector

Heat detectors are the most suitable choice for dusty environments where smoke detectors are prone to false alarms caused by airborne particles. Heat detectors respond to the thermal energy of a fire and are unaffected by dust, making them more reliable in such locations.

Question 12: A fixed-temperature heat detector activates when the ambient temperature at the device reaches a predetermined level. What is the most common fixed-temperature rating for standard applications?

135°F (57°C) (Correct answer)
165°F (74°C)
100°F (38°C)
212°F (100°C)

Correct answer: 135°F (57°C)

The most common fixed-temperature rating for standard environments is 135°F (57°C), which is low enough to detect abnormal heat while remaining above typical ambient temperatures.

Question 13: A photoelectric smoke detector operates on which principle?

Interruption or scattering of a light beam by smoke particles (Correct answer)
Measurement of heat energy released per unit area of the sensing chamber
Detection of infrared radiation emitted by combustion gases
Ionization of air molecules between two electrically charged plates

Correct answer: Interruption or scattering of a light beam by smoke particles

Photoelectric detectors use a light source and sensor; smoke particles scatter light onto the sensor, triggering an alarm.

Question 14: A projected beam smoke detector consists of which two primary components?

Ionization chamber and sampling tube
Transmitter and receiver (Correct answer)
Sensor and relay module
Aspirator and filter assembly

Correct answer: Transmitter and receiver

A projected beam detector uses a transmitter that emits an infrared or laser beam and a receiver that measures beam obscuration caused by smoke.

Question 15: In a fire involving electrical equipment, which component of the fire triangle is targeted by a CO2 fire extinguisher?

Fuel
Water
Heat
Oxygen (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Oxygen

A CO2 fire extinguisher targets the oxygen component of the fire triangle (fuel, heat, oxygen). It works by releasing a blanket of carbon dioxide gas, which is heavier than air, to displace the oxygen surrounding the fire. By reducing the oxygen concentration below the level needed for combustion, the fire is effectively suffocated and extinguished.

Question 16: A required fire alarm system becomes impaired and cannot be restored. According to the NYC Fire Code, at what point must a fire watch typically be instituted?

Immediately upon discovery of the impairment.
If the system will be out of service for more than 4 hours.
If the system will be out of service for more than 8 hours in a 24-hour period. (Correct answer)
Only when directed to do so by the building's insurance carrier.

Correct answer: If the system will be out of service for more than 8 hours in a 24-hour period.

The NYC Fire Code requires that if a required fire alarm system is out of service for more than 8 hours in any 24-hour period, the impairment coordinator must take action, which typically includes instituting a fire watch. A fire watch consists of trained personnel patrolling the area to detect fires and notify the FDNY.

Question 17: What is the fundamental purpose of a supervisory signal within a fire alarm system?

To initiate occupant evacuation and notify the fire department of an active fire.
To monitor the status of other fire protection systems and indicate when they are in an abnormal state. (Correct answer)
To indicate a fault, such as a broken wire or component failure, within the fire alarm system.
To provide an early warning that a smoke detector is accumulating dust and may cause a false alarm.

Correct answer: To monitor the status of other fire protection systems and indicate when they are in an abnormal state.

The core function of a supervisory signal is to indicate that a separate but related fire protection system being monitored by the FACP is in an off-normal or compromised state. Examples include a closed sprinkler valve, fire pump power loss, or low pressure in a dry pipe system. This is distinct from a trouble signal, which points to a fault within the fire alarm system itself.

Question 18: An S-95 Certificate of Fitness holder is supervising a fire alarm system when a single smoke detector is replaced. Which of the following best describes the reacceptance testing required by NFPA 72 for this modification?

No testing is required until the next scheduled annual inspection.
Only the newly replaced smoke detector needs to be functionally tested.
The entire system must undergo a full acceptance test as if it were a new installation.
The new detector, all functions affected by the change, and 10% of unaffected initiating devices (up to 50) must be tested. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The new detector, all functions affected by the change, and 10% of unaffected initiating devices (up to 50) must be tested.

When a change is made to site-specific software, such as adding or replacing an addressable device, NFPA 72 requires more than just testing the new device. It mandates testing all functions known to be affected by the change, plus a functional test of an additional 10 percent of initiating devices not affected by the change, up to a maximum of 50 devices, to verify system stability.

Question 19: According to NFPA 72, how often must supervisory signals be tested in a system with central station monitoring?

Quarterly
Semiannually
Monthly
Annually (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Annually

NFPA 72 requires supervisory signal devices to be tested annually unless the authority having jurisdiction specifies a different frequency.

Question 20: An S-95 certificate holder is supervising a fire alarm system when a signal activates at the FACP. The building's horns and strobes do NOT activate, but a signal is sent to the central station monitoring company. Which two signal types could this be?

Alarm or Trouble
Pre-Alarm or Security
Supervisory or Trouble (Correct answer)
Alarm or Supervisory

Correct answer: Supervisory or Trouble

Both supervisory and trouble signals typically annunciate at the FACP and notify the central station, but they do not activate the building's general evacuation notification appliances (horns and strobes). An alarm signal would activate the notification appliances.

Question 21: Under NFPA 72, sealed lead-acid (SLA) batteries used in fire alarm systems must be replaced at a maximum interval of:

Every 3 years
Every 10 years
Every 5 years (Correct answer)
Every year

Correct answer: Every 5 years

NFPA 72 requires sealed lead-acid batteries to be replaced at intervals not exceeding 5 years, regardless of their apparent condition.

Question 22: A device that integrates both audible and visual notification functions in a single housing is classified as a:

Multi-signal appliance
Combination notification appliance (Correct answer)
Dual-mode appliance
Integrated notification unit

Correct answer: Combination notification appliance

Devices incorporating both audible (horn) and visual (strobe) notification in one unit are classified by NFPA 72 as combination notification appliances.

Question 23: Under NFPA 72, the secondary power supply (battery backup) for a protected premises fire alarm system must be capable of:

24 hours of standby followed by 5 minutes of full alarm operation (Correct answer)
4 hours of standby followed by 15 minutes of full alarm operation
8 hours of standby followed by 5 minutes of full alarm operation
60 hours of standby followed by 30 minutes of full alarm operation

Correct answer: 24 hours of standby followed by 5 minutes of full alarm operation

NFPA 72 requires the secondary power supply to sustain the system in standby mode for 24 hours and then support a minimum of 5 minutes of full alarm operation.

Question 24: A fire alarm supervisor working in an area with explosive atmospheres (such as a paint spray booth) must ensure that all fire alarm equipment installed there is:

Installed at least 10 feet from all flammable materials
Equipped with double-pole disconnect switches
Painted with heat-resistant paint
Listed for use in hazardous (classified) locations per NEC Article 500 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Listed for use in hazardous (classified) locations per NEC Article 500

In hazardous classified locations, all electrical equipment including fire alarm devices must be listed for the specific class and division of the hazardous atmosphere per NEC Article 500 to prevent ignition.

Question 25: In a commercial building, what is the primary function of a duct smoke detector?

To shut down the HVAC system and prevent the spread of smoke throughout the building. (Correct answer)
To extinguish a fire within the HVAC ductwork using a suppression agent.
To activate the building's sprinkler system in the immediate vicinity of the ductwork.
To measure the airflow velocity within the HVAC system for efficiency.

Correct answer: To shut down the HVAC system and prevent the spread of smoke throughout the building.

Duct smoke detectors are installed in HVAC ductwork to detect the presence of smoke. Their main purpose is to prevent the circulation of smoke from a fire in one area of a building to other areas through the ventilation system. Upon detecting smoke, they send a signal to the fire alarm control panel, which then typically shuts down the HVAC fans and closes dampers.

Question 26: What is 'public mode' notification in a fire alarm system?

Notification sent only to designated security personnel
Notification transmitted directly to the local fire department
Notification broadcast exclusively over a public address system
Notification intended to alert all building occupants to take protective action (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Notification intended to alert all building occupants to take protective action

Public mode notification is designed to alert all building occupants simultaneously so they can take appropriate protective action such as evacuation.

Question 27: An ionization smoke detector is generally more responsive than a photoelectric detector to:

Fast, flaming fires with small, invisible combustion particles. (Correct answer)
Fires that are producing dense, dark smoke.
Fires that are primarily generating heat with minimal smoke.
Slow, smoldering fires with large smoke particles.

Correct answer: Fast, flaming fires with small, invisible combustion particles.

Ionization smoke detectors contain a small amount of radioactive material that ionizes the air between two charged plates, creating a current. When small, invisible particles of combustion from a fast-flaming fire enter the chamber, they disrupt this current, triggering the alarm. They are generally more sensitive to these types of fires than photoelectric detectors.

Question 28: What is the maximum allowable response time from the initial alarm to notification appliance activation for a fire alarm system without voice evacuation?

10 seconds
90 seconds
60 seconds
30 seconds (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 30 seconds

NFPA 72 requires notification appliances to activate within 10 seconds of alarm initiation for systems without voice evacuation, but the commonly tested maximum for signal processing is 10 seconds; however, the standard most often referenced for audible output response is 10 seconds from signal to sound.

Question 29: According to NFPA 72, which of the following must be documented on every fire alarm system inspection and test record?

Pass/fail summary and insurance carrier contact information
Only deficiencies and corrective actions taken
Cost of maintenance and technician license number only
Date, name of inspector, and results of all inspections and tests performed (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Date, name of inspector, and results of all inspections and tests performed

NFPA 72 Section 7.8.2 requires inspection records to include the date, the inspector's identity, and the results of all tests performed.

Question 30: Which of the following is a requirement for the installation of manual fire alarm pull stations according to NFPA 72?

The travel distance to the nearest station must not exceed 300 feet.
They must be painted yellow for high visibility in smoky conditions.
They must be located within 5 feet (60 inches) of the entrance to each exit. (Correct answer)
The operable part must be mounted between 54 and 60 inches above the finished floor.

Correct answer: They must be located within 5 feet (60 inches) of the entrance to each exit.

NFPA 72, the National Fire Alarm and Signaling Code, requires that manual fire alarm boxes (pull stations) be located within 5 feet (60 inches) of the entrance to each exit. The operable part should be between 42 and 48 inches from the floor, and they are required to be red in color.

Question 31: A 'pre-signal' fire alarm system is designed to:

Distinguish between smoke and heat detectors during activation
Automatically call the fire department before sounding audible devices
Send a warning signal 60 seconds before activating sprinklers
Alert a supervising station first, allowing trained staff to investigate before a general alarm sounds (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Alert a supervising station first, allowing trained staff to investigate before a general alarm sounds

A pre-signal system delays the general occupant alarm to allow trained staff (such as building security or supervisors) to investigate and confirm the alarm before a full evacuation is initiated.

Question 32: What does a 'trouble' signal on a fire alarm control unit indicate?

A fault in the system wiring, power supply, or component that requires service (Correct answer)
An alarm condition has been detected and suppressed by staff
The panel is conducting its scheduled automatic self-test
A supervisory condition in a sprinkler valve or water flow device

Correct answer: A fault in the system wiring, power supply, or component that requires service

A trouble signal indicates the system has detected an abnormal condition such as a wiring fault, ground fault, or component failure that requires service.

Question 33: A technician conducting a pathway survivability test on a fire alarm circuit disconnects one end of a Class B circuit. What is the expected result?

A trouble indication on the FACP (Correct answer)
An alarm signal on the FACP
No change in system status
The circuit self-heals to an alternate path

Correct answer: A trouble indication on the FACP

Class B circuits do not have redundant return paths; an open fault produces a trouble signal at the FACP.

Question 34: An S-95 holder is supervising a fire alarm system in a commercial building. Which of the following tasks is the S-95 holder explicitly authorized to perform?

Modify the wiring of a fire alarm circuit.
Take the system offline with the central station before a planned test. (Correct answer)
Repair a faulty central station transmitter.
Clean and service internal smoke detector components.

Correct answer: Take the system offline with the central station before a planned test.

The S-95 Certificate of Fitness holder is prohibited from performing repairs or modifications. Their role is supervisory. Notifying the central station to take the system offline for testing is a key responsibility to prevent unnecessary FDNY dispatch.

Question 35: A cross-zoned detection system requires two separate detection zones to activate before sounding a full alarm. If only one zone activates, the FACP would typically display a:

Trouble signal
Supervisory signal
Full building evacuation alarm
Pre-alarm or investigation signal (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Pre-alarm or investigation signal

In a cross-zoned system, single-zone activation typically generates a pre-alarm or investigation condition rather than a full alarm until the second zone confirms.

Question 36: An S-95 holder changes employment and is now responsible for a different building. What must they do?

Notify FDNY of the change in premises and ensure the new building's records are reviewed (Correct answer)
Wait until the current certificate expires before transferring
Apply for a new S-95 certificate specific to the new address
No action required — the S-95 certificate is universally valid for any building

Correct answer: Notify FDNY of the change in premises and ensure the new building's records are reviewed

When an S-95 holder changes the premises they are responsible for, FDNY must be notified and the holder must familiarize themselves with the new building's fire alarm system and records.

S-95 Exam

The FDNY S-95 Certificate of Fitness exam certifies individuals to supervise fire alarm systems and other related systems in New York City. It covers NFPA 72, the NYC Fire Code, Fire Rules (RCNY), and OSHA standards.

Questions

53 min

Time Limit

70%

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