S-95 Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A sprinkler system waterflow switch is classified as what type of initiating device?

Auxiliary initiating device
Alarm initiating device (Correct answer)
Trouble initiating device
Supervisory initiating device

Correct answer: Alarm initiating device

Waterflow switches are alarm initiating devices because water flowing through a sprinkler pipe indicates a fire has activated a sprinkler head, requiring an alarm signal.

Question 2: During a functional test, a strobe light on a notification appliance does not flash. The first diagnostic step should be to:

Check the NAC circuit voltage at the appliance terminals under alarm load (Correct answer)
Replace the strobe unit immediately
Reprogram the FACP output card
Submit a deficiency report without further investigation

Correct answer: Check the NAC circuit voltage at the appliance terminals under alarm load

Verifying circuit voltage under load is the first step because insufficient voltage is the most common cause of strobe failure.

Question 3: A carbon dioxide fire suppression system uses pressure switches to monitor the CO2 cylinder bank. A low-pressure reading from this switch would generate what type of signal?

Supervisory (Correct answer)
Alarm
Advisory
Trouble

Correct answer: Supervisory

Low pressure in a CO2 storage cylinder bank indicates the system may have insufficient agent to suppress a fire and is classified as a supervisory condition requiring investigation.

Question 4: An addressable fire alarm system differs from a conventional system in that it:

Uses wireless radio frequency devices instead of wired circuits
Does not require a central control unit to operate
Is limited to residential and small commercial occupancies
Can identify the specific device in alarm or trouble by its unique address (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Can identify the specific device in alarm or trouble by its unique address

Addressable systems assign each device a unique identifier, allowing the control panel to pinpoint exactly which device is reporting an alarm or fault.

Question 5: What is the legal significance of a UL Listed central station for a building owner?

It may satisfy insurer requirements and provide legal evidence of due diligence (Correct answer)
It exempts the building from local fire codes
It transfers all liability to UL
It eliminates the need for any inspections

Correct answer: It may satisfy insurer requirements and provide legal evidence of due diligence

A UL Listed central station provides evidence of standardized service quality, often satisfying insurer requirements and demonstrating due diligence.

Question 6: In what order of descending priority should signals generally be addressed at an FACP?

Alarm, Supervisory, Trouble (Correct answer)
Supervisory, Trouble, Alarm
Trouble, Supervisory, Alarm
Alarm, Trouble, Supervisory

Correct answer: Alarm, Supervisory, Trouble

The correct priority is Alarm, then Supervisory, then Trouble. An Alarm signal indicates a potential fire and must be addressed first. A Supervisory signal indicates a potential impairment of a fire protection system (like a closed sprinkler valve) and is the next priority. A Trouble signal indicates a fault with the fire alarm system itself and is addressed after any life-threatening or system-impairing conditions are resolved.

Question 7: A tamper switch on a fire suppression system valve is designed to generate a signal when the valve is moved from its normal position by as little as:

One or two turns of the hand wheel (Correct answer)
The valve must be fully closed to generate a signal
5% of its travel
50% of its travel

Correct answer: One or two turns of the hand wheel

Tamper switches are designed to activate after just one or two turns of the handwheel so that even slight valve movement is detected and reported.

Question 8: In fire alarm system terminology, a 'zone' is best defined as:

A single detector or manual pull station connected to the FACP
The power supply circuit feeding the notification appliances
A geographic area or defined function that is annunciated as a single unit at the FACP (Correct answer)
The physical distance between an FACP and its remote annunciator

Correct answer: A geographic area or defined function that is annunciated as a single unit at the FACP

A zone groups initiating devices in a specific area or function so the FACP can identify the general location of an alarm condition.

Question 9: Which of the following signals requires the MOST urgent response from the S-95 holder?

Low-voltage trouble on an auxiliary circuit
Supervisory signal on a sprinkler valve
Alarm signal indicating a smoke detector activation (Correct answer)
Trouble signal on a battery backup

Correct answer: Alarm signal indicating a smoke detector activation

An alarm signal indicating smoke or fire detection requires the most urgent response, including investigation and potential evacuation, as it may indicate a real fire.

Question 10: Under FDNY rules, the S-95 certificate holder must ensure that fire alarm system tests are conducted at minimum:

Quarterly
Monthly
Annually (Correct answer)
Semi-annually

Correct answer: Annually

FDNY requires at least an annual inspection and test of the fire alarm system, conducted by a licensed fire alarm company under S-95 supervision.

Question 11: During post-incident review after a fire alarm activation, which document is MOST useful for reconstructing the sequence of events?

The annual inspection certificate
The fire alarm control panel's event history log (printout or electronic record) (Correct answer)
The building's original architectural drawings
The manufacturer's installation manual for the smoke detectors

Correct answer: The fire alarm control panel's event history log (printout or electronic record)

The FACU's event history log records time-stamped activations, resets, silences, and trouble conditions, providing a precise chronological record of every system event during an incident.

Question 12: Per NFPA 72, strobe lights must flash at a rate between:

2–4 flashes per second
1–3 flashes per second
0.5–1 flash per second
1–2 flashes per second (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 1–2 flashes per second

NFPA 72 requires strobe lights to operate at a flash rate of 1 to 2 flashes per second (1–2 Hz) for effective visual notification.

Question 13: When testing a mass notification system (MNS) integrated with a fire alarm system, the test must verify that the MNS takes priority over:

Trouble signals only
Secondary power sources
Both alarm and supervisory signals
Fire alarm evacuation signals when activated by an authorized operator (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Fire alarm evacuation signals when activated by an authorized operator

Per NFPA 72, an MNS activated by an authorized operator must be able to override fire alarm evacuation signals when required.

Question 14: An ionization smoke detector is generally more responsive than a photoelectric detector to:

Fires that are primarily generating heat with minimal smoke.
Fast, flaming fires with small, invisible combustion particles. (Correct answer)
Slow, smoldering fires with large smoke particles.
Fires that are producing dense, dark smoke.

Correct answer: Fast, flaming fires with small, invisible combustion particles.

Ionization smoke detectors contain a small amount of radioactive material that ionizes the air between two charged plates, creating a current. When small, invisible particles of combustion from a fast-flaming fire enter the chamber, they disrupt this current, triggering the alarm. They are generally more sensitive to these types of fires than photoelectric detectors.

Question 15: Under NFPA 72, the term 'Authority Having Jurisdiction' (AHJ) refers to:

The building owner
The certified fire alarm technician
The manufacturer of the fire alarm equipment
The organization or individual responsible for enforcing requirements (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The organization or individual responsible for enforcing requirements

The AHJ is the organization, office, or individual responsible for enforcing code requirements and approving materials and installations.

Question 16: When a short-circuit fault occurs on a Class B Notification Appliance Circuit (NAC), which condition is most likely?

Only devices located past the short activate in alarm
The panel automatically reroutes the NAC signal to an alternate circuit
All notification appliances on the circuit are silenced and a trouble signal is generated (Correct answer)
The short self-corrects once the AC power cycles

Correct answer: All notification appliances on the circuit are silenced and a trouble signal is generated

A short on a Class B NAC triggers the panel's overcurrent protection, which disables the circuit, silences all appliances on it, and generates a trouble signal for supervisory personnel.

Question 17: In a dusty industrial environment, such as a woodworking shop, which type of automatic initiating device would be most appropriate to minimize nuisance alarms?

Ionization smoke detector
Heat detector (Correct answer)
Air-aspirating smoke detector
Photoelectric beam detector

Correct answer: Heat detector

Heat detectors are the most suitable choice for dusty environments where smoke detectors are prone to false alarms caused by airborne particles. Heat detectors respond to the thermal energy of a fire and are unaffected by dust, making them more reliable in such locations.

Question 18: After a confirmed false alarm caused by steam from a newly installed kitchen exhaust system, the BEST corrective action for the supervisor to recommend is:

Disable the detector in that area permanently
Replace the smoke detector with a rate-of-rise heat detector or multi-sensor detector better suited to the environment (Correct answer)
Install a manual pull station nearby instead
Move the control panel to a different room

Correct answer: Replace the smoke detector with a rate-of-rise heat detector or multi-sensor detector better suited to the environment

Selecting detection technology appropriate for the environment—such as a heat detector or multi-criteria detector resistant to steam—eliminates nuisance alarms while maintaining proper protection.

Question 19: A rate-of-rise heat detector is designed to activate when:

The temperature increases by a specified number of degrees per minute. (Correct answer)
Humidity in the protected area drops below a certain percentage.
The detector senses the specific infrared signature of flames.
The ambient temperature reaches a fixed-point, such as 135°F.

Correct answer: The temperature increases by a specified number of degrees per minute.

Rate-of-rise (ROR) heat detectors are triggered by a rapid increase in temperature over a short period, typically around 12-15°F (6.7-8.3°C) per minute. This allows them to signal an alarm before the temperature reaches a high fixed point, providing earlier warning for fast-developing fires.

Question 20: Per NFPA 72, audible notification appliances must produce a sound level at least how many dB above the average ambient sound level?

10 dB
5 dB
20 dB
15 dB (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 15 dB

NFPA 72 requires audible appliances to produce a minimum of 15 dB above the average ambient sound level to ensure the alarm is clearly audible.

Question 21: A fire pump running signal at the FACP indicates:

The fire pump jockey pump has failed
A wiring fault in the fire pump circuit
The main fire pump is shut down for maintenance
The fire pump has started and may indicate a demand for water (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The fire pump has started and may indicate a demand for water

A fire pump running signal is a supervisory signal indicating the fire pump has started, which may indicate actual firefighting water demand or an automatic test cycle.

Question 22: Under NFPA 72, which signal type has the lowest priority at an FACP when multiple signals are present simultaneously?

All signals share equal priority
Trouble signal (Correct answer)
Alarm signal
Supervisory signal

Correct answer: Trouble signal

Trouble signals have the lowest priority because alarm and supervisory signals represent more immediate threats to life safety and fire protection capability.

Question 23: Which of the following is a requirement for the installation of manual fire alarm pull stations according to NFPA 72?

They must be painted yellow for high visibility in smoky conditions.
The travel distance to the nearest station must not exceed 300 feet.
They must be located within 5 feet (60 inches) of the entrance to each exit. (Correct answer)
The operable part must be mounted between 54 and 60 inches above the finished floor.

Correct answer: They must be located within 5 feet (60 inches) of the entrance to each exit.

NFPA 72, the National Fire Alarm and Signaling Code, requires that manual fire alarm boxes (pull stations) be located within 5 feet (60 inches) of the entrance to each exit. The operable part should be between 42 and 48 inches from the floor, and they are required to be red in color.

Question 24: Which of the following best describes the primary power source for a Fire Alarm Control Panel (FACP)?

A shared circuit with emergency lighting to ensure it is always prioritized.
Any 120V outlet within 6 feet of the panel.
A Ground-Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) protected outlet.
A dedicated branch circuit with a marked and locked circuit breaker. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A dedicated branch circuit with a marked and locked circuit breaker.

To ensure reliability and prevent accidental deactivation, NFPA 72 and the National Electrical Code (NEC) require the FACP to be powered by a dedicated branch circuit. This circuit's breaker must be clearly marked as 'FIRE ALARM' and secured with a lock or other approved means to prevent it from being turned off accidentally.

Question 25: What is the fundamental purpose of a supervisory signal within a fire alarm system?

To provide an early warning that a smoke detector is accumulating dust and may cause a false alarm.
To monitor the status of other fire protection systems and indicate when they are in an abnormal state. (Correct answer)
To indicate a fault, such as a broken wire or component failure, within the fire alarm system.
To initiate occupant evacuation and notify the fire department of an active fire.

Correct answer: To monitor the status of other fire protection systems and indicate when they are in an abnormal state.

The core function of a supervisory signal is to indicate that a separate but related fire protection system being monitored by the FACP is in an off-normal or compromised state. Examples include a closed sprinkler valve, fire pump power loss, or low pressure in a dry pipe system. This is distinct from a trouble signal, which points to a fault within the fire alarm system itself.

Question 26: A Class A wiring style for fire alarm circuits, compared to Class B, provides the advantage of:

Lower installation cost due to fewer wire runs
Continued circuit operation even after a single open or ground fault (Correct answer)
Faster signal transmission speeds to the monitoring center
Compatibility with wireless devices only

Correct answer: Continued circuit operation even after a single open or ground fault

Class A wiring uses a loop configuration with end-of-line supervision, allowing the circuit to remain fully operational after a single open or ground fault by rerouting signals through the return path.

Question 27: How should a technician test a beam-type smoke detector with a fixed threshold?

Reduce the beam signal by the required amount using a calibrated filter or by blocking the beam partially (Correct answer)
Use a magnet to simulate an alarm condition
Apply aerosol smoke directly to the transmitter lens
Replace the transmitter unit with a test transmitter

Correct answer: Reduce the beam signal by the required amount using a calibrated filter or by blocking the beam partially

Beam detectors are tested by introducing a calibrated test filter that reduces beam intensity to the alarm threshold level.

Question 28: An S-95 holder is working when the fire alarm system experiences a total power failure, rendering it out of service. The holder must promptly notify the FDNY. Which of the following pieces of information is most critical to provide to the FDNY dispatcher?

The S-95 holder's Certificate of Fitness number.
The estimated number of occupants in the building.
The building address and the specific nature of the impairment. (Correct answer)
The name of the fire alarm service company.

Correct answer: The building address and the specific nature of the impairment.

When reporting an out-of-service fire alarm system, the FDNY needs to know the exact location (address) and the nature of the problem (e.g., "complete system failure, no power"). This information is vital for their records and for their operational planning should they be dispatched to that address for a reported fire during the impairment.

Question 29: What condition does the 'ground fault' indicator on an FACP signal to technicians?

A depleted battery backup in the FACP power supply
An unwanted electrical connection between a circuit conductor and earth ground (Correct answer)
A suppression system that has reached ready-to-discharge status
A fire alarm originating from a ground-floor zone in the building

Correct answer: An unwanted electrical connection between a circuit conductor and earth ground

A ground fault is an unintended connection between a system circuit wire and earth ground, caused by insulation failure, which can impair proper circuit operation.

Question 30: A single-station smoke alarm installed in a dwelling is considered part of a fire alarm system and must be tested per NFPA 72 when:

It is more than 10 years old
It is interconnected with other detectors and connected to the building's fire alarm system (Correct answer)
It uses a battery-only power supply
It is installed in a sleeping room

Correct answer: It is interconnected with other detectors and connected to the building's fire alarm system

Single-station alarms become part of the fire alarm system when interconnected and tied to the building's FACP, at which point NFPA 72 testing requirements apply.

Question 31: Per NFPA 72, what is the minimum secondary (battery) power requirement for a fire alarm system in most occupancies?

4 hours standby plus 5 minutes of alarm
24 hours standby plus 5 minutes of alarm (Correct answer)
24 hours standby plus 4 hours of alarm
48 hours standby plus 10 minutes of alarm

Correct answer: 24 hours standby plus 5 minutes of alarm

NFPA 72 requires most fire alarm systems to operate on secondary power for 24 hours in standby mode followed by 5 minutes of full alarm operation.

Question 32: A photoelectric smoke detector is most effective at detecting which type of fire?

A fire that causes a rapid increase in temperature with little to no smoke.
A fire in a commercial kitchen with high ambient temperatures.
A fire involving flammable liquids that spreads rapidly.
A slow, smoldering fire that produces a large amount of smoke. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A slow, smoldering fire that produces a large amount of smoke.

Photoelectric smoke detectors operate using a light source and a sensor. When smoke particles enter the chamber, they scatter the light beam, causing it to hit the sensor and trigger the alarm. This technology is particularly effective at detecting the larger smoke particles produced by slow, smoldering fires.

Question 33: Before conducting a fire alarm test, who must typically be notified to prevent an unnecessary emergency response?

The fire department and the central monitoring station (Correct answer)
Only the building superintendent
Only the central monitoring station
Only the fire department dispatch center

Correct answer: The fire department and the central monitoring station

Both the fire department and the central monitoring station must be notified prior to testing so that test signals are not dispatched as real emergencies.

Question 34: What is the maximum spacing between smoke detectors on a smooth, flat ceiling as specified by NFPA 72?

70 feet
50 feet (Correct answer)
20 feet
30 feet

Correct answer: 50 feet

NFPA 72 establishes a default maximum spacing of 30 feet (900 sq ft area) between smoke detectors on smooth, flat ceilings, but allows up to 50 feet in some listing conditions.

Question 35: A dry-pipe valve that has tripped and allowed air to escape from the system would generate what type of signal?

Alarm signal from the associated flow switch (Correct answer)
Supervisory signal
No signal until sprinkler heads open
Trouble signal

Correct answer: Alarm signal from the associated flow switch

When a dry-pipe valve trips, water flows into the system piping and the flow switch activates, generating an alarm signal just like a wet-pipe system.

Question 36: Before a Certificate of Occupancy is issued for a new building, which fire alarm-related document is typically required?

Only the original building permit
A letter of intent from the installing contractor
A signed inspection and test report from qualified personnel (Correct answer)
A manufacturer's warranty only

Correct answer: A signed inspection and test report from qualified personnel

A Certificate of Occupancy requires a signed fire alarm inspection and test report demonstrating the system was accepted per applicable codes.

S-95 Exam

The FDNY S-95 Certificate of Fitness exam certifies individuals to supervise fire alarm systems and other related systems in New York City. It covers NFPA 72, the NYC Fire Code, Fire Rules (RCNY), and OSHA standards.

Questions

53 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

Sources & references

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nyc.gov — Fees, renewal, score validity, eligibility, retake policy, score release, test dates, test delivery, exam format, passing score · verified Oct 2026