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Medical Knowledge & Clinical Science Flashcards

7 cards from real ECFMG practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. A 25-year-old woman presents with episodic pallor followed by cyanosis then rubor of her fingers triggered by cold. Which condition is this MOST characteristic of?

    Answer: Raynaud's phenomenon

    Raynaud's phenomenon is characterized by the classic triphasic color change (white→blue→red) in digits triggered by cold or stress.

  2. A 3-year-old boy has recurrent Staphylococcus and Aspergillus infections. Neutrophil oxidative burst is absent on dihydrorhodamine test. What is the defective enzyme?

    Answer: NADPH oxidase

    Chronic granulomatous disease results from NADPH oxidase deficiency, preventing the respiratory burst needed to kill catalase-positive organisms.

  3. A 58-year-old man presents with progressive dysphagia first to solids then to liquids, 15 lb weight loss, and a new hoarse voice. Barium swallow shows a mid-esophageal irregularity. What is the most likely histology?

    Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

    Mid-esophageal carcinoma is most commonly squamous cell carcinoma, associated with tobacco and alcohol use, unlike distal esophageal adenocarcinoma.

  4. A 66-year-old woman has bone pain, serum protein electrophoresis showing an M-spike, and Bence Jones proteins in urine. Skeletal survey reveals lytic lesions. What finding on bone marrow biopsy would confirm the diagnosis?

    Answer: >10% plasma cells

    Multiple myeloma is confirmed by >10% clonal plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy in the appropriate clinical context.

  5. A patient develops sudden-onset severe headache described as 'the worst headache of my life.' CT head is negative. What is the NEXT step?

    Answer: Lumbar puncture for xanthochromia

    A negative CT does not exclude subarachnoid hemorrhage; lumbar puncture for xanthochromia is mandatory when clinical suspicion is high.

  6. A 52-year-old man undergoes emergent surgery and receives 8 units of packed RBCs. He develops oozing from IV sites and his PT, PTT, and fibrinogen are all abnormal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulation

    Massive transfusion with dilution coagulopathy combined with trauma triggers DIC, characterized by consumption of clotting factors and fibrinogen.

  7. A 14-year-old girl has primary amenorrhea. Exam shows breast development but no pubic hair, and a blind vaginal pouch. Karyotype is 46,XY. What is the diagnosis?

    Answer: Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome

    Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome (46,XY) presents with female phenotype, breast development, absent pubic/axillary hair, and a blind vaginal pouch due to androgen receptor defect.