DCJS Virginia Law Enforcement Certification Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Under Virginia law, the offense of 'stalking' generally requires:

Physical contact between the stalker and victim
The victim to have a prior relationship with the stalker
Conduct directed at a person that would cause a reasonable person to fear death, sexual assault, or bodily injury (Correct answer)
Only one incident of following another person

Correct answer: Conduct directed at a person that would cause a reasonable person to fear death, sexual assault, or bodily injury

Virginia's stalking statute (§ 18.2-60.3) requires a course of conduct causing reasonable fear of death, sexual assault, or bodily injury.

Question 2: How can community policing improve public safety?

By establishing a partnership that encourages community cooperation and proactive problem solving. (Correct answer)
By focusing solely on response time and arrests.
By reducing community involvement in policing.
By relying on stricter law enforcement practices.

Correct answer: By establishing a partnership that encourages community cooperation and proactive problem solving.

Community policing enhances public safety by shifting from a reactive, incident-driven approach to a proactive, problem-solving partnership. By fostering cooperation and trust, police and community members can work together to identify root causes of crime and develop tailored solutions. This collaborative effort leads to more effective crime prevention, improved quality of life, and a safer environment for everyone.

Question 3: An officer is part of an investigation into a high-profile local crime. During a social gathering, a friend asks the officer for details about the case that have not been made public. What is the officer's primary ethical responsibility?

Share some minor, non-critical details to satisfy the friend's curiosity.
Fabricate a story about the case to mislead the friend and protect the investigation.
Direct the friend to the agency's Public Information Officer for any official statements.
Politely state that information regarding an ongoing investigation is confidential and cannot be discussed. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Politely state that information regarding an ongoing investigation is confidential and cannot be discussed.

Law enforcement officers are bound by confidentiality. Information obtained during an investigation is privileged and must be protected to ensure the integrity of the case, the privacy of those involved, and the safety of witnesses. The Law Enforcement Code of Ethics explicitly states that whatever an officer sees or hears of a confidential nature will be kept secret unless revelation is necessary in the performance of duty. Sharing details, even with friends, is a serious breach of this trust.

Question 4: An officer is attempting to arrest a suspect who is actively resisting by pulling their arms away and refusing to be handcuffed. The use of an intermediate weapon, such as Oleoresin Capsicum (OC) spray, would be most justified in response to what level of resistance?

Active resistance (Correct answer)
The mere presence of the suspect
Passive resistance
Verbal non-compliance only

Correct answer: Active resistance

Intermediate weapons like OC spray are designed to control subjects who are actively resisting arrest or posing a threat. The suspect's actions go beyond simple non-compliance (passive resistance) and constitute active resistance, making the use of OC spray a potentially reasonable force option to gain control and effect the arrest.

Question 5: The legal standard for judging a law enforcement officer's use of force, as established by the U.S. Supreme Court in Graham v. Connor, is known as:

Objective Reasonableness (Correct answer)
Subjective Suspicion
Malicious Intent
Probable Cause

Correct answer: Objective Reasonableness

The landmark case Graham v. Connor established that all claims of excessive force by law enforcement must be analyzed under the 'objective reasonableness' standard of the Fourth Amendment. This means the force used is judged based on what a reasonable officer would have done on the scene, considering the totality of the circumstances, without regard to the officer's underlying intent or motivation.

Question 6: When conducting a felony traffic stop, where should the officer's patrol vehicle be positioned relative to the suspect vehicle?

Parallel to the suspect vehicle on the passenger side
In front of the suspect vehicle to block forward escape
At an angle offset to the left, approximately one car length behind, using the engine block as cover (Correct answer)
Directly behind the suspect vehicle, bumper to bumper

Correct answer: At an angle offset to the left, approximately one car length behind, using the engine block as cover

An angled position one car length behind uses the engine block for ballistic cover while allowing the officer to observe and communicate with the suspect.

Question 7: What is the 'exclusionary rule' in criminal law?

It limits the use of witness testimony.
It excludes unlawfully obtained evidence from court. (Correct answer)
It allows evidence obtained unlawfully to be used if it is relevant.
It allows all evidence to be used in court.

Correct answer: It excludes unlawfully obtained evidence from court.

The exclusionary rule is a legal principle that prohibits the use of evidence obtained by law enforcement in violation of a defendant's constitutional rights, particularly those under the Fourth Amendment. Its purpose is to deter police misconduct by removing the incentive to conduct illegal searches or seizures, thereby upholding constitutional protections.

Question 8: An officer is pursuing a fleeing vehicle at high speed through a residential area. The DCJS-recommended primary factor for deciding to terminate pursuit is:

Whether the risk to the public outweighs the need to apprehend (Correct answer)
The suspect's driving behavior alone
The seriousness of the original offense only
The supervisor's direct order to continue

Correct answer: Whether the risk to the public outweighs the need to apprehend

DCJS and Virginia model pursuit policies require officers to continuously balance the need to apprehend against the risk posed to officers, the public, and third parties.

Question 9: What does 'due regard' mean in emergency vehicle operations?

Notifying dispatch before every maneuver
Operating with reasonable caution to protect all persons on the road (Correct answer)
Following traffic signals but ignoring speed limits
Driving as fast as necessary to reach the scene

Correct answer: Operating with reasonable caution to protect all persons on the road

'Due regard' means the officer must operate with reasonable caution so as not to endanger persons or property.

Question 10: What does 'use of force' mean in law enforcement?

Using force to punish individuals.
Using force at any time regardless of the situation.
Using force only when absolutely necessary to protect or subdue.
Using force as a last resort in appropriate situations. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Using force as a last resort in appropriate situations.

'Use of force' in law enforcement refers to the application of physical coercion by an officer to achieve a lawful objective, such as making an arrest or preventing escape. It is governed by strict policies and the 'use of force continuum,' which mandates that force should only be used when necessary, as a last resort, and be proportional to the threat or resistance encountered. The primary goal is to gain control while minimizing injury.

Question 11: An investigator is conducting surveillance. At what point does surveillance become constitutionally significant?

Only if the subject is aware they are being watched
After 24 continuous hours of observation
Immediately upon beginning observation
When it reveals information the subject had a reasonable expectation of privacy in (Correct answer)

Correct answer: When it reveals information the subject had a reasonable expectation of privacy in

Surveillance implicates the Fourth Amendment when it intrudes on areas or information where a person has a reasonable expectation of privacy.

Question 12: An officer discovers a body and suspects homicide. What should be the first investigative priority?

Secure and protect the scene before any evidence is touched (Correct answer)
Identify the victim immediately by searching their pockets
Notify the media to assist with identification
Begin canvassing the neighborhood for witnesses

Correct answer: Secure and protect the scene before any evidence is touched

Scene security is always the first priority in a homicide investigation to prevent evidence loss or contamination.

Question 13: A K-9 officer deploys a police dog to apprehend a fleeing felony suspect. Under use of force principles, this deployment must be:

Reserved only for misdemeanor suspects to limit injury
Objectively reasonable, proportionate to the threat, and consistent with agency policy and training (Correct answer)
Approved by a court before every deployment
Used only after the officer has personally chased the suspect on foot

Correct answer: Objectively reasonable, proportionate to the threat, and consistent with agency policy and training

K-9 deployments are subject to the same objective reasonableness standard as other force options and must be proportionate and policy-compliant.

Question 14: Which of the following BEST describes the 'broken windows' theory as it applies to community policing?

Officers should prioritize violent felony arrests exclusively
Broken windows in patrol vehicles reduce officer morale
Physical property damage is the primary cause of community violence
Visible signs of disorder, if unaddressed, encourage further crime (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Visible signs of disorder, if unaddressed, encourage further crime

The broken windows theory holds that unaddressed minor disorder signals neglect and invites more serious criminal activity.

Question 15: An Emergency Custody Order (ECO) in Virginia may be issued by which of the following?

A law enforcement officer only
Only a circuit court judge
A magistrate, special justice, or a treating physician in certain circumstances (Correct answer)
A magistrate or special justice only

Correct answer: A magistrate, special justice, or a treating physician in certain circumstances

Virginia Code §37.2-808 allows an ECO to be issued by a magistrate, special justice, or in certain circumstances by a treating physician.

Question 16: An officer is directing traffic at a busy intersection where the traffic light is malfunctioning. According to the Code of Virginia § 46.2-1309, what is the proper hand signal to stop moving traffic?

Extend an arm towards the traffic with the palm facing up and make a beckoning motion.
Face the traffic to be stopped and hold one hand up with the palm facing out.
Stand with shoulders parallel to the moving traffic and raise arms forty-five degrees above the shoulder with palms towards the traffic. (Correct answer)
Stand with shoulders perpendicular to the traffic and point at the lead vehicle.

Correct answer: Stand with shoulders parallel to the moving traffic and raise arms forty-five degrees above the shoulder with palms towards the traffic.

The Code of Virginia § 46.2-1309 specifically outlines the hand signals for directing traffic. To stop traffic, an officer should stand with their shoulders parallel to the moving traffic and raise their arms to a 45-degree angle above the shoulder, with their palms extended towards the traffic they intend to stop.

Question 17: Under Virginia law, 'extortion' (blackmail) typically involves:

Using a computer to access another's financial accounts
Breaking into a building to steal property
Obtaining property or money by threatening to expose information or cause harm (Correct answer)
Forging a check or financial instrument

Correct answer: Obtaining property or money by threatening to expose information or cause harm

Extortion involves compelling a person to surrender money or property through threats of harm, exposure, or accusation.

Question 18: What is 'chain of custody' in the context of criminal investigation?

The hierarchy of command at a crime scene
The sequence of arrest procedures
A chronological documentation of evidence handling from collection to court (Correct answer)
The order in which suspects are questioned

Correct answer: A chronological documentation of evidence handling from collection to court

Chain of custody is the documented record of every person who handled evidence and every location it was stored, ensuring admissibility.

Question 19: Which factor is NOT one of the Graham v. Connor factors used to assess use of force reasonableness?

Whether the suspect is actively resisting or evading arrest
Severity of the crime at issue
Whether the suspect poses an immediate threat to safety
The race or ethnicity of the suspect (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The race or ethnicity of the suspect

Graham v. Connor established three factors: crime severity, immediate threat to safety, and active resistance or evasion — race is never a legitimate factor.

Question 20: A motorist is involved in a minor crash on a Virginia highway with no injuries. Under Virginia Code § 46.2-894, what are they required to do?

Only required to exchange information if the other driver requests it
Move the vehicle out of the travel lane if it can be safely operated and is blocking traffic (Correct answer)
Remain at the scene and immediately call 911 for all crashes
Leave the vehicle in place until a law enforcement officer arrives

Correct answer: Move the vehicle out of the travel lane if it can be safely operated and is blocking traffic

Virginia's 'move it or lose it' law requires drivers to move operable vehicles involved in minor crashes out of the travel lane to improve safety and traffic flow.

Question 21: In Virginia, a consent search requires that consent be:

Witnessed by two officers
Given in writing and notarized
Approved by a magistrate beforehand
Voluntary and not the product of coercion or duress (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Voluntary and not the product of coercion or duress

Valid consent must be freely and voluntarily given; consent obtained through threats, coercion, or deception is constitutionally invalid.

Question 22: A law enforcement officer in Virginia initiates a vehicle pursuit. According to DCJS model policies and common Virginia agency standards, which of the following is a primary consideration for continuing or terminating the pursuit?

The need to apprehend the suspect at all costs to prevent any escape.
The time of day and the shift supervisor's preference.
The officer's belief that they can successfully stop the vehicle within five minutes.
Whether the risk to the public and officers outweighs the need for immediate apprehension. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Whether the risk to the public and officers outweighs the need for immediate apprehension.

The guiding principle in all vehicle pursuits is the safety of the public, the officers, and the suspect. DCJS model policies and standard law enforcement practices in Virginia emphasize that a pursuit must be terminated whenever the risks created by the pursuit become greater than the danger to the community if the suspect is not immediately apprehended.

Question 23: A 'bench warrant' is issued by a judge when a defendant:

Requests a continuance in their case
Fails to appear in court as required (Correct answer)
Is arrested without a warrant
Waives their right to a preliminary hearing

Correct answer: Fails to appear in court as required

A bench warrant is issued directly by the court (from the bench) when a defendant fails to appear for a scheduled court date.

Question 24: What should officers consider before using any form of force?

The length of time the officer has been on duty.
The officer’s emotional state.
The officer’s assessment of the situation, including the threat level and alternatives. (Correct answer)
The officer’s personal beliefs.

Correct answer: The officer’s assessment of the situation, including the threat level and alternatives.

Before using any form of force, officers are trained to conduct a rapid and thorough assessment of the situation. This includes evaluating the immediate threat posed by the individual, considering the severity of the crime, and identifying all available alternatives to force, such as verbal de-escalation. This critical assessment ensures that any force used is necessary, reasonable, and proportional to the circumstances.

Question 25: Under Virginia Code § 19.2-386.1, when may officers seize property under civil asset forfeiture without a criminal conviction?

Only for property valued over $10,000
Only after a criminal conviction
When a judge issues a civil forfeiture order based on clear evidence (Correct answer)
Whenever probable cause exists that property is connected to drug trafficking

Correct answer: When a judge issues a civil forfeiture order based on clear evidence

Virginia reformed its forfeiture law in 2021, generally requiring either a criminal conviction or a court order based on clear and convincing evidence before forfeiture.

Question 26: Which of the following is a function of the Fourth Amendment?

Protects against cruel and unusual punishment.
Guarantees the right to a public trial.
Protects against unreasonable searches and seizures. (Correct answer)
Guarantees the right to a lawyer.

Correct answer: Protects against unreasonable searches and seizures.

The Fourth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution is a cornerstone of individual liberty, specifically safeguarding citizens from arbitrary government intrusion. It requires law enforcement to obtain a warrant based on probable cause before conducting searches or seizures, ensuring that such actions are reasonable and justified, thereby protecting privacy and security.

Question 27: According to the U.S. Supreme Court case Graham v. Connor, the standard for analyzing excessive force claims is 'objective reasonableness'. From which perspective must the reasonableness of a particular use of force be judged?

Based on the suspect's perception of the threat.
From the perspective of the court with the benefit of 20/20 hindsight.
Based on the officer's subjective intent and motivations.
From the perspective of a reasonable officer on the scene at the time of the incident. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: From the perspective of a reasonable officer on the scene at the time of the incident.

The Supreme Court in *Graham v. Connor* established that the reasonableness of a use of force must be judged from the perspective of a reasonable officer on the scene, rather than with the 20/20 vision of hindsight. The officer's underlying intent or motivation is not the primary factor; the key is whether the actions were 'objectively reasonable' in light of the facts and circumstances confronting them. [4, 5, 6]

Question 28: Under Virginia law, what threshold distinguishes grand larceny from petit larceny when property is not taken directly from the person?

$200 or more
$500 or more
$2,500 or more
$1,000 or more (Correct answer)

Correct answer: $1,000 or more

As of 2020, Virginia Code § 18.2-95 sets the grand larceny threshold at $1,000 or more when property is not taken from the person.

Question 29: Before collecting a fingerprint from a surface, an officer should FIRST:

Handle the surface with bare hands to test for latent prints
Photograph the fingerprint in its original undisturbed position (Correct answer)
Apply fingerprint powder without any prior documentation
Wipe the surface to remove smudges and clarify the print

Correct answer: Photograph the fingerprint in its original undisturbed position

Photographing the print in place documents its location and condition before any development or collection technique is applied.

Question 30: Virginia's 'stop and identify' statute requires a person to identify themselves to a law enforcement officer when:

A vehicle has been stopped for any reason
The person is lawfully detained based on reasonable suspicion (Correct answer)
The person is in a public place
An officer asks during any encounter

Correct answer: The person is lawfully detained based on reasonable suspicion

Virginia Code § 19.2-82.1 requires a person to identify themselves only when lawfully detained, not during a voluntary encounter.

Question 31: How should each individual piece of evidence be packaged?

Separately, with case number, date, time, collection location, and the collector's name (Correct answer)
Labeled with only the case number and nothing else
Together with related items in one bag to save processing time
Submitted without labeling to preserve evidentiary neutrality

Correct answer: Separately, with case number, date, time, collection location, and the collector's name

Separate packaging with complete identifying information prevents cross-contamination and supports chain of custody documentation.

Question 32: Under Virginia law, which of the following is classified as a Class 3 felony?

Malicious wounding (Correct answer)
Grand larceny of property valued at $1,000 or more
Robbery
Carjacking

Correct answer: Malicious wounding

Malicious wounding under Virginia Code § 18.2-51 is a Class 3 felony punishable by 5–20 years imprisonment.

Question 33: An officer's decision to use a particular level of force must be based on the 'totality of the circumstances.' Which of the following factors would NOT be considered part of the circumstances known to the officer at the moment force is used?

The subject's prior criminal history, which the officer learns about after the arrest. (Correct answer)
The subject's threatening statements and body language.
The fact that the encounter is taking place in a dark, isolated location.
The nature of the 911 call the officer was dispatched to.

Correct answer: The subject's prior criminal history, which the officer learns about after the arrest.

The 'objective reasonableness' standard is based on the facts and circumstances known to the officer at the moment the force is used, not with 20/20 hindsight. Information not known to the officer at the time, such as a subject's criminal record discovered later, cannot be used to justify the use of force.

Question 34: A driver stopped for a traffic infraction refuses to provide their driver's license. Under Virginia Code § 46.2-104, the officer may:

Release the driver after obtaining a verbal name
Only issue a written warning since no crime was committed
Search the vehicle to find the license
Arrest the driver for failing to present their license on demand (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Arrest the driver for failing to present their license on demand

Virginia Code § 46.2-104 requires drivers to present their license on demand to an officer, and refusal is a misdemeanor supporting a custodial arrest.

Question 35: Which rule governs when physical evidence obtained in violation of the Fourth Amendment may be excluded from trial?

The Fruit of the Poisonous Tree Doctrine only
The Exclusionary Rule (Correct answer)
The Harmless Error Rule
The Best Evidence Rule

Correct answer: The Exclusionary Rule

The Exclusionary Rule bars the use of evidence obtained through unconstitutional searches and seizures, with the Fruit of the Poisonous Tree doctrine extending this to derivative evidence.

Question 36: An on-duty Virginia law enforcement officer, in uniform, is offered a free coffee and pastry by a local bakery owner who says, "This is for all you do for our community." According to DCJS standards of professionalism, what is the most appropriate response?

Report the owner to a supervisor for attempting to bribe a public official.
Accept the items to build positive community relations and thank the owner.
Accept the items but leave a tip that is larger than the value of the coffee and pastry.
Politely decline and pay for the items, explaining that agency policy prohibits accepting gratuities to avoid any appearance of impropriety. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Politely decline and pay for the items, explaining that agency policy prohibits accepting gratuities to avoid any appearance of impropriety.

Accepting gratuities, even with good intentions, can create a public perception of favoritism or obligation, which undermines public trust. The most professional course of action is to politely refuse the gift and adhere to agency policy, which typically prohibits accepting gratuities to maintain impartiality. This avoids both actual and perceived conflicts of interest.

Question 37: When transporting a mentally ill subject under a TDO, where should Virginia law enforcement transport the individual?

The appropriate community services board or designated facility for evaluation (Correct answer)
The subject's home after contacting family
The nearest jail for psychiatric screening
Any hospital emergency room

Correct answer: The appropriate community services board or designated facility for evaluation

Virginia law requires that individuals under a TDO be transported to a designated facility or community services board location for emergency psychiatric evaluation.

Question 38: In Virginia, the crime of 'computer fraud' under § 18.2-152.3 requires the offender to:

Access only government computer systems
Be employed by the targeted organization
Use a computer or network without authorization to commit fraud, obtain property, or interrupt services (Correct answer)
Physically steal a computer device

Correct answer: Use a computer or network without authorization to commit fraud, obtain property, or interrupt services

Virginia's computer fraud statute targets unauthorized computer access used to defraud, obtain money or property, or disrupt services.

Question 39: Which action by a first responder CONTAMINATES a crime scene?

Wearing latex gloves throughout the response
Photographing evidence before touching it
Walking through the scene without gloves or protective footwear (Correct answer)
Documenting the exact time of arrival

Correct answer: Walking through the scene without gloves or protective footwear

Walking through a scene without protective equipment can transfer trace evidence and compromise the scene's integrity.

Question 40: The ultimate purpose of maintaining a strict chain of custody is to:

Limit evidence access to supervisory personnel only
Reduce the number of officers involved in an investigation
Ensure the integrity and court admissibility of evidence (Correct answer)
Speed up overall case processing time

Correct answer: Ensure the integrity and court admissibility of evidence

Strict chain of custody procedures exist to verify that evidence is authentic, unaltered, and legally admissible at trial.

Question 41: An officer responds to a burglary in progress. The suspect flees on foot and the officer gives chase. The suspect, who appears unarmed, trips and falls. The officer catches up while the suspect is still on the ground and not making any threatening movements. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the officer to take next?

Use only the amount of force necessary to discontinue resistance and effect the arrest, which may be verbal commands and handcuffing. (Correct answer)
Use a taser to ensure compliance before approaching.
Immediately apply a vascular neck restraint to prevent further escape.
Apply a pain compliance technique to punish the suspect for fleeing.

Correct answer: Use only the amount of force necessary to discontinue resistance and effect the arrest, which may be verbal commands and handcuffing.

Virginia DCJS principles emphasize that force should be discontinued when resistance ceases or the incident is under control. [11] Since the suspect is on the ground and no longer resisting or posing an immediate threat, the officer should de-escalate and use the minimum force necessary to safely take the suspect into custody, likely starting with verbal commands and control techniques for handcuffing. [2]

Question 42: A Virginia officer conducting a 'knock and talk' at a residence must stop and leave if:

The officer lacks probable cause to suspect a crime
No one answers after two knocks
No warrant is produced within 10 minutes
The occupant refuses entry or asks them to leave (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The occupant refuses entry or asks them to leave

A knock and talk is a consensual encounter; the officer must terminate it if the occupant clearly withdraws consent or asks them to leave.

Question 43: During a traffic stop, an officer smells marijuana emanating from the vehicle. Under current Virginia law, how does this affect the search?

The officer can only search the glove compartment
Odor alone may not be sufficient probable cause given marijuana's legal status in Virginia (Correct answer)
It automatically provides probable cause to search the entire vehicle
The officer must release the driver immediately

Correct answer: Odor alone may not be sufficient probable cause given marijuana's legal status in Virginia

Since Virginia legalized marijuana possession for adults, courts have held that odor alone may no longer establish probable cause to search a vehicle.

Question 44: When is it appropriate for an investigator to use a ruse or deception during a suspect interview?

Only in federal investigations
Only with written authorization from the Commonwealth's Attorney
Never; any deception automatically voids the interview
Before Miranda warnings are given, within legal limits (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Before Miranda warnings are given, within legal limits

Courts have allowed certain deceptive interview tactics before Miranda warnings, but deception cannot be used to overbear the suspect's will.

Question 45: A positional asphyxia risk is MOST associated with which restraint situation?

Applying a wrist restraint to the front of the body
Using wrist locks to escort a compliant subject
Handcuffing behind the back while subject stands
Placing a restrained subject face-down with weight applied to the back (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Placing a restrained subject face-down with weight applied to the back

Positional asphyxia is a risk when a restrained subject is left face-down (prone) with pressure on the back, restricting the ability to breathe.

Question 46: Under Virginia law, what is the mens rea required for first-degree murder?

Deliberate, premeditated, and willful intent to kill (Correct answer)
Negligence
General intent to cause serious harm
Recklessness

Correct answer: Deliberate, premeditated, and willful intent to kill

First-degree murder in Virginia requires a willful, deliberate, and premeditated killing, meaning the defendant formed the intent to kill and reflected upon that intent before acting.

Question 47: Under Virginia's felony murder rule, a defendant is guilty of first-degree murder if a death occurs during which of the following crimes?

Trespass or disorderly conduct
Petit larceny or shoplifting
Assault and battery or malicious mischief
Arson, rape, robbery, or burglary (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Arson, rape, robbery, or burglary

Virginia's felony murder rule elevates a killing to first-degree murder when it occurs during the commission of arson, rape, robbery, burglary, or certain other enumerated felonies.

Question 48: Before authorizing a PIT maneuver, a supervisor should primarily consider:

Only the current speed of the pursuit
Whether the pursuing officer has completed EVOC training
Speed, traffic conditions, and risk to bystanders (Correct answer)
Whether the suspect has been positively identified by name

Correct answer: Speed, traffic conditions, and risk to bystanders

Authorization of a PIT maneuver requires weighing speed, road and traffic conditions, and potential harm to uninvolved persons.

Question 49: An officer responds to a burglary that just occurred. A witness provides a description of the suspect who fled on foot. A short distance away, another officer detains a person matching the description. To confirm the identity, the investigating officer considers a 'show-up' identification. Under Virginia DCJS guidelines, a physical show-up should only be used under what condition?

Only after a photographic array has first been attempted and failed.
When the witness is uninjured and can be transported to the police station.
When it can be conducted more than six hours after the crime to allow the suspect to calm down.
Immediately after the crime has occurred, typically within three hours. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Immediately after the crime has occurred, typically within three hours.

Virginia DCJS guidelines and established best practices state that a physical show-up is an identification procedure to be used only in exigent circumstances, immediately following a crime. The VCU Police policy, as an example, specifies that a show-up shall not be used more than three hours after a crime has occurred. This immediacy is crucial for its validity and to minimize the suggestiveness inherent in this type of one-on-one identification.

Question 50: During a routine patrol, an officer observes a vehicle disabled in a lane of travel on a busy highway, creating a traffic hazard. According to the Code of Virginia § 46.2-888, what authority does the officer have regarding this vehicle?

The officer may order the removal of the vehicle at the owner's expense. (Correct answer)
The officer must leave the vehicle in place and direct traffic around it indefinitely.
The officer can only move the vehicle if the driver gives explicit consent.
The officer must wait for the owner to arrange for a private tow service.

Correct answer: The officer may order the removal of the vehicle at the owner's expense.

Code of Virginia § 46.2-888 states that if a disabled vehicle creates a traffic hazard and is not promptly removed, a law-enforcement officer may order its removal at the expense of the owner. The primary goal is to clear the roadway and ensure the safe flow of traffic.

Question 51: When communicating with a person who is deaf or hard of hearing, an officer should FIRST:

Defer all interaction to another officer
Speak louder and more slowly
Assume the person can lip-read and proceed normally
Request a qualified interpreter if needed and use written communication (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Request a qualified interpreter if needed and use written communication

Officers should use qualified interpreters or written communication to ensure effective and legally compliant communication with deaf individuals.

Question 52: A driver you have stopped for speeding produces a suspended license. What is the FIRST action you should take?

Contact a supervisor before taking any action
Run a records check to confirm the suspension status before taking enforcement action (Correct answer)
Issue a summons for the traffic violation and allow the driver to continue
Immediately arrest the driver and impound the vehicle

Correct answer: Run a records check to confirm the suspension status before taking enforcement action

Officers must verify suspension status through NCIC/DMV records before taking enforcement action, since database errors can occur.

Question 53: Biological evidence such as blood or saliva should be stored in:

Paper bags or envelopes to allow moisture to escape (Correct answer)
Plastic containers submerged in water to preserve DNA
Airtight sealed plastic bags to prevent spillage
Metal canisters kept at room temperature

Correct answer: Paper bags or envelopes to allow moisture to escape

Moisture trapped in plastic bags causes biological evidence to degrade; paper packaging allows airflow and prevents mold.

Question 54: An officer is asked to present a crime prevention program at a local senior center. Which approach best aligns with community policing principles?

Limit interaction to avoid spreading unverified information
Tailor the presentation to the specific concerns and vulnerabilities of senior residents and invite questions (Correct answer)
Focus only on national crime statistics to illustrate severity
Deliver a standard lecture using law enforcement jargon

Correct answer: Tailor the presentation to the specific concerns and vulnerabilities of senior residents and invite questions

Effective community outreach requires tailoring communication to the specific audience and encouraging dialogue to address their unique concerns.

Question 55: Non-verbal communication during a police encounter is important because it:

Legally replaces the need for verbal warnings
Is not admissible in court proceedings
Only matters when interacting with non-English speakers
Can convey authority, respect, or aggression independent of spoken words (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Can convey authority, respect, or aggression independent of spoken words

Body language, eye contact, and posture send powerful messages that can either escalate or de-escalate a situation regardless of the words used.

Question 56: When is the use of deadly force permitted?

When an officer is angered or frustrated.
When there is imminent danger to life and other means of defense are unavailable. (Correct answer)
When an officer feels threatened.
When an officer needs to subdue a suspect.

Correct answer: When there is imminent danger to life and other means of defense are unavailable.

The use of deadly force by law enforcement is strictly regulated and considered the highest level of force. It is only justified when an officer or another person faces an imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury, and all other less-lethal options have been exhausted or are impractical. This standard ensures that deadly force is a last resort, used only in extreme circumstances to prevent grave harm.

Question 57: When is a law enforcement officer permitted to use deadly force against a fleeing suspect in Virginia?

Only when the suspect poses an imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury to officers or the public (Correct answer)
Only when a supervisor authorizes the use of deadly force
Whenever a suspect flees to avoid arrest for any felony
Any time the officer believes the suspect committed a crime

Correct answer: Only when the suspect poses an imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury to officers or the public

Under Tennessee v. Garner, deadly force against a fleeing suspect is only justified when the suspect poses an imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury.

Question 58: When writing a crash report in Virginia, the term 'contributing circumstance' refers to:

The point of first contact between vehicles
The officer's personal opinion about fault
Only driver actions that caused the crash
A factor related to the road, environment, or vehicle that contributed to the crash (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A factor related to the road, environment, or vehicle that contributed to the crash

Contributing circumstances on Virginia crash reports include road conditions, environmental factors, and vehicle defects separate from driver behavior.

Question 59: Once a crime scene perimeter is established, access should be controlled by:

The officer or personnel specifically designated as scene security (Correct answer)
Any available officer regardless of assignment
The public information officer assigned to the scene
The detective assigned to the case, but only after arrival

Correct answer: The officer or personnel specifically designated as scene security

A designated scene security officer logs every entry and exit to maintain accountability and protect the chain of custody.

Question 60: Which of the following best describes 'constructive possession' as used in Virginia drug cases?

The defendant was near the drugs but unaware of their presence
The defendant had knowledge of the drugs and the ability to exercise control over them, even without physical possession (Correct answer)
The defendant physically held the drugs at the time of arrest
The drugs were found in a location only the defendant could access

Correct answer: The defendant had knowledge of the drugs and the ability to exercise control over them, even without physical possession

Constructive possession requires the Commonwealth to prove the defendant knew of the drugs' presence and had the power and intent to control them.

Question 61: When an officer is uncertain whether an item found at a crime scene is evidence, the officer should:

Leave it undocumented for the detective to assess
Ask the suspect if the item belongs to them
Discard it to avoid cluttering the scene log
Treat it as potential evidence and document it thoroughly (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Treat it as potential evidence and document it thoroughly

When in doubt, officers should err on the side of preservation; it is far easier to exclude an item later than to recover a discarded one.

Question 62: Which of the following is an example of procedural justice in law enforcement interactions?

Treating individuals with dignity, explaining decisions, and allowing them to be heard (Correct answer)
Prioritizing officer safety over community input at all times
Using discretion to avoid all arrests in minority communities
Ensuring all suspects are charged equally regardless of evidence

Correct answer: Treating individuals with dignity, explaining decisions, and allowing them to be heard

Procedural justice focuses on fair, respectful, and transparent processes that enhance legitimacy even when the outcome may not favor the individual.

Question 63: During a public meeting about crime concerns, a resident becomes verbally hostile toward the officer presenter. The officer should:

Ask the person to leave immediately
Remain calm, acknowledge the concern, and redirect the conversation constructively (Correct answer)
Engage in a direct debate with the resident to defend the department
End the meeting and refer the resident to the department complaint process

Correct answer: Remain calm, acknowledge the concern, and redirect the conversation constructively

Maintaining composure and acknowledging concerns publicly demonstrates professionalism and helps defuse tension in a group setting.

Question 64: Which Virginia Supreme Court or legislative standard requires that officers intervene when they witness another officer using clearly excessive force?

The duty to intervene, codified under Virginia law and DCJS training requirements (Correct answer)
The Good Samaritan Rule
The mutual aid compact
The Blue Wall of Silence doctrine

Correct answer: The duty to intervene, codified under Virginia law and DCJS training requirements

Virginia law and DCJS standards impose a duty on officers to intervene and stop clearly unlawful excessive force by a fellow officer.

Question 65: Under Virginia law, a person commits petit larceny when they steal property valued at:

Less than $1,000 (Correct answer)
Less than $2,500
Less than $200
Less than $500

Correct answer: Less than $1,000

Virginia Code § 18.2-96 defines petit larceny as theft of property valued at less than $1,000, making it a Class 1 misdemeanor.

Question 66: The first responding officer at a crime scene is primarily responsible for:

Conducting detailed forensic analysis of physical evidence
Issuing a press statement to media at the scene
Interviewing all witnesses before detectives arrive
Securing and protecting the scene from contamination (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Securing and protecting the scene from contamination

The first responder's core duty is to secure the scene so evidence integrity is preserved for investigators.

Question 67: What role does social media play in modern community policing for Virginia law enforcement agencies?

Social media posts by departments require approval from the state police before publishing
Social media can be used to share crime prevention tips, request community information, and build public engagement (Correct answer)
Social media should be avoided to prevent public scrutiny of police operations
Officers should only use social media for personal communication

Correct answer: Social media can be used to share crime prevention tips, request community information, and build public engagement

Agencies use social media to communicate directly with the public, share safety information, and foster transparency as part of community engagement.

Question 68: Which condition MOST justifies upgrading from less-lethal to lethal force mid-encounter?

The subject attempts to flee on foot
A crowd is watching and the officer feels embarrassed
The less-lethal option has failed and the subject is now armed and poses an imminent deadly threat (Correct answer)
The subject is verbally abusive but not physically threatening

Correct answer: The less-lethal option has failed and the subject is now armed and poses an imminent deadly threat

Lethal force becomes justified when less-lethal options have failed and the subject now presents an imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury.

Question 69: Which Virginia statute primarily governs the emergency custody and temporary detention of individuals who may be a danger to themselves or others due to mental illness?

Title 32.1 Health Code
Title 19.2 Criminal Procedure
Title 18.2 Criminal Code
Title 37.2 Behavioral Health Code (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Title 37.2 Behavioral Health Code

Title 37.2 of the Virginia Code governs behavioral health, including procedures for Emergency Custody Orders and Temporary Detention Orders.

Question 70: During a vehicle pursuit, which ongoing duty does the pursuing officer have?

Continuously broadcasting location, direction, speed, and suspect description (Correct answer)
Requesting helicopter support on every pursuit
Maintaining bumper-to-bumper contact with the suspect
Attempting to ram the suspect vehicle

Correct answer: Continuously broadcasting location, direction, speed, and suspect description

Officers must provide continuous radio updates so supervisors can monitor conditions and make informed termination decisions.

Question 71: During a traffic stop, the officer smells fresh marijuana coming from a vehicle. Under current Virginia law (post-2021 legalization), this odor alone:

Requires immediate release of the driver since marijuana is now legal
Provides automatic probable cause to search the entire vehicle
May be one factor considered in the totality of circumstances but is not automatic probable cause alone (Correct answer)
Only justifies a search if the driver admits to possession

Correct answer: May be one factor considered in the totality of circumstances but is not automatic probable cause alone

Following Virginia's marijuana legalization, courts have ruled that marijuana odor alone is no longer automatic probable cause and must be considered among other totality-of-circumstances factors.

Question 72: What does the acronym BOLO stand for in law enforcement patrol communications?

Broadcast Officer Location Order
Bulletin Of Law Offenders
Be On Lookout Only
Be On the Lookout (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Be On the Lookout

BOLO — 'Be On the Lookout' — is a broadcast to patrol units describing a suspect, vehicle, or item officers should watch for.

Question 73: An officer notices a group of teenagers gathering nightly at a park but no crimes have been reported. Under community policing principles, the officer should:

Order the teenagers to disperse immediately
Increase patrols without direct interaction
Cite them for loitering without observation
Engage them in conversation to understand their needs and concerns (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Engage them in conversation to understand their needs and concerns

Proactive engagement allows officers to understand the situation and potentially connect youth with resources before problems develop.

Question 74: According to Virginia law and DCJS training standards, which of the following is a primary goal of de-escalation techniques?

Asserting authority and gaining immediate compliance through intimidation.
Proving to bystanders that the officer is in complete control of the situation.
Gaining voluntary compliance and reducing the need to use force. (Correct answer)
Creating a tactical advantage by lulling the subject into a false sense of security.

Correct answer: Gaining voluntary compliance and reducing the need to use force.

Virginia Code § 9.1-102 mandates training in de-escalation techniques. The core purpose of de-escalation is to use communication and other tactics to slow down a situation, build rapport, and persuade a subject to comply voluntarily, thereby decreasing the likelihood that force will be necessary.

Question 75: An officer is repeatedly dispatched to a local park for complaints about teenagers loitering after hours, leaving trash, and making noise. Using the SARA problem-solving model, what is the most appropriate action during the "Analysis" phase?

Holding a community meeting to announce a new zero-tolerance policy for loitering in the park.
Increasing patrols and immediately issuing citations to any teens found in the park after hours.
Documenting the number of arrests made and citations issued to measure the success of the new enforcement efforts.
Identifying the underlying causes by talking to the teens, residents, and park officials to understand why the behavior is occurring. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Identifying the underlying causes by talking to the teens, residents, and park officials to understand why the behavior is occurring.

The "Analysis" phase of the SARA model involves an in-depth exploration to understand the conditions and factors causing the problem. This requires gathering information from various sources to identify the root cause, rather than immediately jumping to a response (like issuing citations) or assessment.

Question 76: For a conviction of extortion under Virginia law, which element must the prosecution prove?

The defendant forged a document to obtain money
The defendant used physical violence to obtain property
The defendant obtained or attempted to obtain property by threatening to accuse someone of a crime or expose them to disgrace (Correct answer)
The defendant secretly converted entrusted funds

Correct answer: The defendant obtained or attempted to obtain property by threatening to accuse someone of a crime or expose them to disgrace

Virginia extortion (blackmail) requires the defendant to have obtained or sought property by threatening to accuse someone of a crime or expose damaging information.

Question 77: When an officer directs traffic manually at an intersection where signals have failed, which hand signal means 'stop' to approaching traffic from the front and rear?

Both arms extended outward to the sides
Arm extended horizontally with palm facing approaching traffic (Correct answer)
Arm pointing downward at a 45-degree angle
Arm raised straight overhead

Correct answer: Arm extended horizontally with palm facing approaching traffic

The standard stop signal is an arm extended horizontally toward the traffic being stopped, with the palm facing that traffic.

Question 78: What is a 'modus operandi' (MO) and why is it important in investigations?

A suspect's characteristic method of committing crimes, useful for linking cases (Correct answer)
A court order authorizing an arrest
A type of search warrant
The official investigation report format

Correct answer: A suspect's characteristic method of committing crimes, useful for linking cases

MO refers to a criminal's signature methods and habits, which investigators use to connect multiple crimes to a single offender.

Question 79: Under Virginia law, which agency is primarily responsible for operating community services boards (CSBs) that provide mental health services?

Virginia Department of Health (VDH)
Virginia Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS) (Correct answer)
Virginia Department of Criminal Justice Services (DCJS)
Virginia State Police

Correct answer: Virginia Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS)

The Virginia Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS) oversees the network of community services boards that provide mental health crisis services.

Question 80: When securing a crime scene, officers must document:

Arrival time, initial observations, and the identity of all persons who entered the scene (Correct answer)
Only the actions and statements of suspects present
Media inquiries received at the outer perimeter
Only items they personally believe are relevant evidence

Correct answer: Arrival time, initial observations, and the identity of all persons who entered the scene

Documenting arrival time, observations, and scene access log creates a foundation for the chain of custody and prosecution.

Question 81: Under Virginia Code, the speed limit in a school zone when children are present is:

20 mph (Correct answer)
35 mph
15 mph
25 mph

Correct answer: 20 mph

Virginia Code § 46.2-873 establishes a 20 mph speed limit in school zones when indicated by posted signs and children are present.

Question 82: When processing a crime scene, what is the primary purpose of establishing a perimeter?

To allow media access for documentation
To give investigators a rest area
To speed up the investigation timeline
To preserve evidence integrity and prevent contamination (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To preserve evidence integrity and prevent contamination

A crime scene perimeter is established to protect evidence from contamination, unauthorized access, and disturbance.

Question 83: An officer is dispatched to a domestic dispute. Upon arrival, the officer develops probable cause to believe one party has committed an assault and battery against a family or household member, although the act did not occur in the officer's presence. What authority does the officer have?

The officer's only option is to separate the parties for a cool-down period.
The officer must obtain an arrest warrant before making an arrest.
The officer can only issue a summons and an emergency protective order.
The officer can make a warrantless arrest based on probable cause. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The officer can make a warrantless arrest based on probable cause.

Virginia law provides specific authority for warrantless arrests in cases of domestic assault. Even if the misdemeanor assault and battery did not occur in the officer's presence, an arrest can be made if the officer has probable cause to believe an assault against a family or household member has occurred.

Question 84: What is an example of police misconduct?

Adhering strictly to the law.
Treating all citizens equally.
Making arrests only when necessary.
Using excessive force without justification. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Using excessive force without justification.

Police misconduct refers to actions by law enforcement officers that violate laws, departmental policies, or ethical standards. Using excessive force, which is force beyond what is objectively reasonable and necessary for a given situation, is a clear example of misconduct. It erodes public trust, violates individual rights, and can lead to severe legal consequences for both the officer and the agency.

Question 85: What is a 'victimology' analysis in a homicide investigation?

A statistical analysis of crime rates
A list of all prior victims in the jurisdiction
A thorough study of the victim's background, lifestyle, and relationships to identify suspects (Correct answer)
Medical examination of the victim's injuries

Correct answer: A thorough study of the victim's background, lifestyle, and relationships to identify suspects

Victimology examines who the victim was, their routines, and relationships to understand why they were targeted and narrow the suspect pool.

Question 86: An officer is documenting the chain of custody for a piece of physical evidence collected at a crime scene. Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of establishing and maintaining a proper chain of custody?

To ensure the evidence is properly stored to prevent degradation.
To create an unbroken record of every person who has handled the evidence. (Correct answer)
To notify the Commonwealth's Attorney that evidence has been collected.
To determine the monetary value of the seized evidence for asset forfeiture.

Correct answer: To create an unbroken record of every person who has handled the evidence.

The primary purpose of the chain of custody is to ensure the integrity of the evidence by creating a continuous, documented record of its possession from the moment of collection to its presentation in court. This demonstrates that the evidence has not been tampered with, altered, or substituted, which is crucial for its admissibility and credibility during legal proceedings.

Question 87: Under Virginia law, which standard must be met before an officer can conduct a Terry stop?

Beyond a reasonable doubt
Probable cause
Preponderance of the evidence
Reasonable articulable suspicion (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Reasonable articulable suspicion

A Terry stop requires reasonable articulable suspicion of criminal activity, a lower standard than probable cause.

Question 88: An officer uses a Taser (CEW) on a subject who is passively resisting by going limp. Under most Virginia agency policies, this use of force is:

Required before attempting hands-on control
Generally not justified because the threat level does not warrant a CEW (Correct answer)
Always appropriate as CEWs are non-lethal
Justified because any resistance permits CEW use

Correct answer: Generally not justified because the threat level does not warrant a CEW

CEW use on a passively resisting subject is generally not justified because passive resistance typically does not rise to the threat level warranting a conducted energy weapon.

Question 89: A vehicle pursuit should generally be TERMINATED when:

The risk to public safety clearly outweighs the benefit of immediate apprehension (Correct answer)
Backup units have not yet arrived on scene
The suspect vehicle runs a red traffic light
The suspect exceeds 80 mph on a highway

Correct answer: The risk to public safety clearly outweighs the benefit of immediate apprehension

Pursuit termination is warranted when the danger created by continuing poses a greater threat than allowing the suspect to temporarily escape.

Question 90: A law enforcement officer who uses unnecessary force against a person in a mental health crisis may be in violation of which Constitutional amendment?

First Amendment
Tenth Amendment
Fourth Amendment (Correct answer)
Fifth Amendment

Correct answer: Fourth Amendment

The Fourth Amendment protects individuals from unreasonable seizures, and excessive force during a mental health encounter may constitute an unreasonable seizure.

Question 91: The FIRST action an officer should take when initiating a vehicle pursuit is:

Contact the nearest backup unit directly
Activate emergency lights and siren
Notify dispatch of the pursuit, location, and reason (Correct answer)
Attempt a PIT maneuver to stop the vehicle quickly

Correct answer: Notify dispatch of the pursuit, location, and reason

Immediate radio notification to dispatch is the first required action so supervisors and backup units can be informed and respond.

Question 92: When completing a field sobriety test (FST), which three tests are recognized as standardized by NHTSA?

Finger-to-nose, standing balance, and eye tracking
Alphabet recitation, finger-to-nose, and Romberg balance test
Counting backward, heel-to-toe walk, and finger count
Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus, Walk and Turn, and One Leg Stand (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus, Walk and Turn, and One Leg Stand

NHTSA validates only the Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus (HGN), Walk and Turn, and One Leg Stand as standardized field sobriety tests with established reliability data.

Question 93: Which principle underlies the concept of 'duty to intervene' in law enforcement ethics?

Officers should always defer to their supervisor's judgment in the field
Officers must intervene in any civilian dispute they witness
Officers have an obligation to stop another officer's use of excessive force (Correct answer)
Senior officers must supervise all use-of-force incidents

Correct answer: Officers have an obligation to stop another officer's use of excessive force

The duty to intervene requires officers to stop colleagues from using unlawful or excessive force to protect citizens and uphold the law.

Question 94: An officer responding to a burglary finds the door ajar and hears movement inside. What doctrine may justify immediate warrantless entry?

Good faith exception
Exigent circumstances (Correct answer)
Inevitable discovery
Plain view doctrine

Correct answer: Exigent circumstances

Exigent circumstances allow warrantless entry when there is an urgent need to prevent imminent danger, destruction of evidence, or escape of a suspect.

Question 95: After executing a search warrant in Virginia and seizing property, what must the officer do with the warrant and the inventory of seized items?

File them with the Commonwealth's Attorney's office immediately.
Keep them in the case file at the police department.
File them in the circuit court clerk's office within three days of the execution. (Correct answer)
Return them to the magistrate who issued the warrant within 10 days.

Correct answer: File them in the circuit court clerk's office within three days of the execution.

Virginia Code § 19.2-57 requires the officer who executed the search warrant to endorse the date of execution on it and file the warrant, along with an inventory of any seized property (or a note that none was seized), with the clerk of the circuit court wherein the search was made. This filing must occur within three days, not including Saturdays, Sundays, or legal holidays.

Question 96: A Virginia officer responding to a domestic assault call must arrest the primary aggressor if:

There is probable cause to believe assault and battery occurred within the past three hours (Correct answer)
The victim requests arrest
Both parties are intoxicated
Visible injuries are present on either party

Correct answer: There is probable cause to believe assault and battery occurred within the past three hours

Virginia Code § 19.2-81.3 requires officers to arrest the primary aggressor when there is probable cause to believe domestic assault occurred within the past three hours.

Question 97: During patrol, an officer observes a vehicle with a broken tail light at 2 a.m. in a high-drug-activity area. This observation alone provides the officer with:

Reasonable suspicion to conduct a traffic stop for a equipment violation (Correct answer)
Probable cause to search the vehicle
Grounds for arrest of the driver
No legal basis to stop the vehicle

Correct answer: Reasonable suspicion to conduct a traffic stop for a equipment violation

A broken tail light is a traffic equipment violation that provides reasonable suspicion (and probable cause for the infraction) to initiate a lawful traffic stop.

Question 98: Chain of custody is best defined as:

The organizational chain of command during a criminal investigation
A log of all officers who responded to the crime scene
The chronological documentation of evidence possession from collection through court presentation (Correct answer)
The process for sequencing witness interviews in order of importance

Correct answer: The chronological documentation of evidence possession from collection through court presentation

Chain of custody tracks every person who possessed evidence, ensuring it can be authenticated and admitted in court.

Question 99: An officer is preparing a photographic array for an eyewitness identification. According to the DCJS model policy, which of the following is a required procedure?

Presenting the photographs to the witness sequentially, one at a time. (Correct answer)
Informing the witness that the suspect is definitely in the array and they must make a choice.
Showing the array to all available witnesses at the same time to ensure consistency.
Including at least ten photographs in the array to ensure a fair selection.

Correct answer: Presenting the photographs to the witness sequentially, one at a time.

The Virginia DCJS model policy on eyewitness identification recommends the blind-sequential array method, where photographs are presented to the witness one at a time. This method is preferred to reduce the risk of misidentification by preventing the witness from making relative judgments between photos. The policy also requires specific instructions be given, such as that the perpetrator may or may not be in the lineup, and it prohibits showing the array to multiple witnesses simultaneously.

Question 100: Under Virginia Code § 19.2-81, a law enforcement officer may arrest without a warrant for a misdemeanor only if:

Two witnesses confirm the offense
The officer witnesses the offense (Correct answer)
A victim identifies the suspect
The offense occurred within 24 hours

Correct answer: The officer witnesses the offense

Generally, warrantless misdemeanor arrests in Virginia require that the officer personally witnessed the offense, with specific statutory exceptions.

DCJS Virginia Law Enforcement Certification Exam

The Virginia DCJS Law Enforcement Certification Exam covers Virginia laws and legal procedures, criminal investigation, patrol and traffic operations, use of force, professionalism and ethics, community policing, crime scene management, and emergency vehicle operations.

100

Questions

120 min

Time Limit

75%

To Pass

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These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

Sources & references

Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy

dcjs.virginia.gov — Retake policy, score validity, exam information · verified Oct 2026
law.lis.virginia.gov — Eligibility, test delivery · verified Oct 2026