← All COMSAE Flashcard Decks

Dermatology and Integumentary System Flashcards

21 cards from real COMSAE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 20 Dermatology and Integumentary System flashcards as text
  1. A 16-year-old presents with open and closed comedones, papules, and pustules on the face. Which mechanism is most responsible for the pathogenesis of acne vulgaris?

    Answer: Follicular plugging with keratin and sebum combined with Cutibacterium acnes proliferation

    Acne vulgaris results from follicular hyperkeratinization causing plugging, excess sebum production, C. acnes overgrowth, and resultant inflammation.

  2. A 45-year-old presents with well-demarcated, erythematous plaques with silvery-white scales on the elbows and scalp. Auspitz sign is positive. Which finding on histopathology is most characteristic of this condition?

    Answer: Parakeratosis with neutrophils in the stratum corneum (Munro microabscesses)

    Psoriasis classically shows parakeratosis, acanthosis, elongated rete ridges, and Munro microabscesses (neutrophils in the stratum corneum).

  3. Which of the following ABCDE features of a pigmented skin lesion is MOST associated with early melanoma detection?

    Answer: Asymmetry — one half does not match the other

    Asymmetry is a hallmark of melanoma; benign nevi are typically symmetric, whereas melanoma grows irregularly in different directions.

  4. A 32-year-old factory worker develops pruritic vesicles and erythema on both hands after starting a new job using epoxy resins. Patch testing shows a reaction to epoxy resin. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is this?

    Answer: Type IV (delayed-type/cell-mediated)

    Allergic contact dermatitis is a classic Type IV (delayed-type) hypersensitivity reaction mediated by sensitized T lymphocytes, peaking 48–72 hours after exposure.

  5. A 22-year-old athlete presents with scaling, itching, and erythema between the toes with maceration. KOH preparation shows branching hyphae. Which organism is most likely responsible?

    Answer: Trichophyton rubrum

    Tinea pedis (athlete's foot) is most commonly caused by Trichophyton rubrum, a dermatophyte that infects keratinized tissue.

  6. A 6-year-old with a family history of asthma and allergic rhinitis presents with intensely pruritic, erythematous, lichenified patches in the antecubital and popliteal fossae. Which immunological finding is most commonly elevated in this condition?

    Answer: IgE

    Atopic dermatitis is associated with elevated serum IgE levels and Th2-predominant immune responses, often part of the atopic triad.

  7. A 65-year-old with a history of heavy sun exposure presents with a pearly, translucent nodule with rolled borders and telangiectasias on the nose. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Basal cell carcinoma

    Basal cell carcinoma classically presents as a pearly papule or nodule with rolled borders and telangiectasias on sun-exposed areas, especially the nose.

  8. A 40-year-old woman presents with facial flushing, erythema across the nose and cheeks, telangiectasias, and papulopustules. She reports flares with sun exposure, hot beverages, and alcohol. Which diagnosis is most likely?

    Answer: Rosacea

    Rosacea is characterized by central facial erythema, flushing, telangiectasias, and papulopustules triggered by heat, alcohol, spicy food, and UV exposure.

  9. A 50-year-old presents with greasy, yellowish scales on the scalp, nasolabial folds, and eyebrows. Which organism is implicated in the pathogenesis of seborrheic dermatitis?

    Answer: Malassezia furfur

    Malassezia furfur (a lipophilic yeast) colonizes sebaceous areas and triggers an inflammatory response causing seborrheic dermatitis.

  10. A 70-year-old farmer presents with an indurated, erythematous nodule on the lower lip that ulcerates and does not heal. Biopsy shows malignant squamous cells with keratin pearls. Which risk factor is most strongly associated with this diagnosis?

    Answer: Chronic UV radiation exposure

    Squamous cell carcinoma of the lip and skin is most strongly associated with chronic UV radiation exposure, particularly in fair-skinned, outdoor workers.

  11. A 28-year-old develops widespread pruritic wheals of various sizes that resolve within 24 hours without leaving bruising or scarring. She denies systemic symptoms. Which mechanism is responsible?

    Answer: IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation releasing histamine

    Urticaria is caused by IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation releasing histamine and other mediators, causing transient wheals that resolve without trace.

  12. A 19-year-old started trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for a urinary tract infection. Three weeks later she develops widespread erythematous targetoid lesions involving mucosal surfaces, with epidermal detachment >30% of the body surface area. Which condition best describes this presentation?

    Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)

    Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) is a severe drug reaction with epidermal detachment >30% BSA and mucosal involvement, most commonly triggered by sulfonamides and anticonvulsants.

  13. A 60-year-old presents with a rough, scaly, erythematous macule on the dorsum of the hand. The lesion is described as a premalignant condition with potential to progress to squamous cell carcinoma. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Actinic keratosis

    Actinic keratosis is a premalignant lesion caused by chronic UV exposure that can progress to squamous cell carcinoma if untreated.

  14. A 35-year-old presents with flaccid bullae that rupture easily, leaving raw erosions. The Nikolsky sign is positive. Direct immunofluorescence shows IgG deposits in a 'fishnet' pattern throughout the epidermis. Which diagnosis is most likely?

    Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris

    Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by IgG autoantibodies against desmoglein 1 and 3, causing suprabasal acantholysis, flaccid bullae, and a positive Nikolsky sign.

  15. A 25-year-old woman notices well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the scalp. Examination reveals smooth scalp skin with 'exclamation point' hairs at the periphery of patches. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Alopecia areata

    Alopecia areata is an autoimmune condition causing well-demarcated patches of non-scarring hair loss with characteristic 'exclamation point' hairs at patch margins.

  16. A 70-year-old presents with tense bullae on the trunk and extremities. The Nikolsky sign is negative. Direct immunofluorescence shows linear IgG and C3 deposits at the dermoepidermal junction. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Bullous pemphigoid

    Bullous pemphigoid features tense subepidermal bullae with linear IgG/C3 at the BMZ, targeting BP180 and BP230 antigens; the Nikolsky sign is negative.

  17. A 30-year-old develops target-shaped lesions (concentric rings) on the palms and soles after a recent herpes simplex virus infection. There is no mucosal involvement. Which condition does this most likely represent?

    Answer: Erythema multiforme minor

    Erythema multiforme minor presents with classic targetoid lesions, typically triggered by HSV or Mycoplasma pneumoniae, without significant mucosal or systemic involvement.

  18. A 45-year-old immigrant presents with intense nocturnal pruritus. Examination reveals burrows in the finger web spaces and erythematous papules on the wrists and genitalia. Which pathogen is responsible?

    Answer: Sarcoptes scabiei

    Scabies is caused by Sarcoptes scabiei mite infestation; characteristic features are intense nocturnal pruritus, burrows in interdigital spaces, and involvement of genitalia.

  19. A 65-year-old presents with a dermatomal distribution of painful vesicles on an erythematous base on the right thorax. She had varicella as a child. Which antiviral should be initiated within 72 hours of onset?

    Answer: Acyclovir

    Herpes zoster (shingles) results from VZV reactivation; antiviral therapy with acyclovir, valacyclovir, or famciclovir within 72 hours reduces duration and risk of postherpetic neuralgia.

  20. A 22-year-old presents with well-defined depigmented macules on the dorsum of hands, around the mouth, and on the genitalia. Wood's lamp examination shows chalk-white fluorescence. The macules are asymptomatic. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Vitiligo

    Vitiligo is an autoimmune condition causing melanocyte destruction, producing well-defined depigmented macules that fluoresce bright white under Wood's lamp.

How this page was made: written with AI tools and published by Nathan Beja, founder of Practice Test Geeks, who is responsible for its content. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

Sources & references

Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy

  1. nbome.org — Fees, retake policy, score validity, score release, test delivery, exam format, time limit, eligibility · verified Oct 2026