Respiratory Emergencies and Mechanical Ventilation Flashcards

What is the primary risk of administering 100% FiO2 for extended periods during flight transport?

Answer: Absorption atelectasis and oxygen toxicity

Prolonged 100% FiO2 causes nitrogen washout, absorption atelectasis, and oxygen-induced lung injury (oxygen toxicity) over time.

A patient on CPAP via facemask vomits during transport. What is the immediate priority?

Answer: Remove the mask, suction the airway, and prepare for intubation if needed

Vomiting with a tight-fitting CPAP mask creates aspiration risk; remove the mask immediately, clear the airway by suctioning, and reassess the need for definitive airway.

Which breath sound finding is associated with pulmonary edema during auscultation in-flight?

Answer: Bilateral basilar crackles (rales)

Pulmonary edema causes fluid accumulation in the alveoli, producing bilateral fine crackles (rales) heard predominantly at the lung bases.

Auto-PEEP (intrinsic PEEP) is most likely to develop in which type of transport patient?

Answer: Mechanically ventilated COPD or asthma patient with air trapping

Patients with obstructive lung disease (COPD, asthma) develop auto-PEEP due to incomplete exhalation, causing progressive air trapping and hemodynamic compromise.

What is the recommended initial SpO2 target for adult non-COPD patients during air medical transport?

Answer: 94–98%

For most adult patients, SpO2 of 94–98% is the recommended target to ensure adequate oxygenation without unnecessary hyperoxia.

During RSI in a patient with a suspected difficult airway, which backup airway device should be immediately available if intubation fails?

Answer: Supraglottic airway device (e.g., LMA or King LT)

A supraglottic airway device (LMA, King LT) is the primary rescue airway in a failed intubation, providing oxygenation until a definitive airway can be secured.