CDN Certified Dialysis Nursing 3

Question 1

A dialysis patient's pre-treatment potassium is 6.8 mEq/L with peaked T-waves on ECG. Which dialysate potassium concentration should the nurse anticipate using?

Accepted Answer

2.0 mEq/L

Answer

A potassium-free or low-potassium (0–1 mEq/L) bath may be needed for severe hyperkalemia, but 2.0 mEq/L is often used to rapidly reduce dangerously elevated levels while avoiding too-rapid correction.

Question 2

Which sign indicates that a newly placed AV fistula has matured and is ready for use?

Accepted Answer

Fistula diameter ≥6mm, flow ≥600 mL/min, depth <6mm

Answer

The 'Rule of 6s' defines fistula maturity: flow ≥600 mL/min, diameter ≥6mm, and depth ≤6mm from skin surface, typically after 6 weeks.

Question 3

A hemodialysis patient reports headache, nausea, and confusion toward the end of treatment. Which complication should the nurse suspect?

Accepted Answer

Dialysis disequilibrium syndrome

Answer

Dialysis disequilibrium syndrome results from rapid solute removal causing cerebral edema, presenting with neurological symptoms especially at end of treatment.

Question 4

What is the primary purpose of the dialysate bicarbonate concentration in hemodialysis?

Accepted Answer

To correct metabolic acidosis common in ESRD

Answer

ESRD patients accumulate acid from metabolism; dialysate bicarbonate (usually 35–40 mEq/L) diffuses into the blood to correct metabolic acidosis.

Question 5

A chronic dialysis patient has a serum phosphorus of 7.2 mg/dL. In addition to dialysis, what is the MOST important nursing intervention?

Accepted Answer

Administer phosphate binders with meals

Answer

Phosphate binders taken with meals bind dietary phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption and are the primary pharmacological management of hyperphosphatemia.

CDN - Certified Dialysis Nurse Practice Test

CDN - Certified Dialysis Nurse Practice Test

CDN Certified Dialysis Nursing 3