CBM Burn Classification & Assessment 2 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Which burn classification describes damage extending through the dermis and into subcutaneous fat but not affecting underlying muscle?
- Superficial partial-thickness
- Deep partial-thickness
- Full-thickness (Correct answer)
- Subdermal
Correct answer: Full-thickness
Full-thickness burns destroy the entire dermis and extend into subcutaneous tissue, presenting as white, waxy, or charred and insensate.
Question 2: When using the Lund and Browder chart, how does it differ from the Rule of Nines in pediatric burn assessment?
- It assigns higher percentages to the head in children (Correct answer)
- It is less accurate for children under age 10
- It only applies to adults over 18
- It uses body weight rather than surface area
Correct answer: It assigns higher percentages to the head in children
The Lund and Browder chart accounts for age-related differences, assigning greater TBSA percentages to the head and smaller percentages to the legs in children.
Question 3: A patient presents with blistering, moist, pink wound bed, and extreme pain. What is the MOST likely burn classification?
- Superficial (first-degree)
- Superficial partial-thickness (second-degree) (Correct answer)
- Full-thickness (third-degree)
- Fourth-degree
Correct answer: Superficial partial-thickness (second-degree)
Superficial partial-thickness burns are characterized by blisters, a moist pink or red wound bed, and significant pain due to exposed nerve endings.
Question 4: Which assessment finding is MOST indicative of a full-thickness burn versus a deep partial-thickness burn?
- Presence of blisters over the wound
- Dark red or cherry-red coloration
- Absence of pain sensation in the wound (Correct answer)
- Slow capillary refill
Correct answer: Absence of pain sensation in the wound
Full-thickness burns destroy nerve endings, rendering the wound insensate; deep partial-thickness burns are painful because viable nerve endings remain.
Question 5: In the context of inhalation injury assessment, which finding on fiberoptic bronchoscopy confirms supraglottic airway involvement?
- Carbon deposits below the carina
- Erythema and edema of the epiglottis and vocal cords (Correct answer)
- Bilateral consolidation on chest X-ray
- Absence of soot in the nasopharynx
Correct answer: Erythema and edema of the epiglottis and vocal cords
Bronchoscopic visualization of erythema, edema, or carbonaceous deposits at or above the glottis confirms supraglottic inhalation injury.
Question 6: Which formula is used to estimate fluid resuscitation requirements in the first 24 hours post-burn for adults?
- Galveston formula
- Parkland formula (Correct answer)
- Modified Brooke formula
- Evans formula
Correct answer: Parkland formula
The Parkland formula (4 mL × kg body weight × % TBSA burned) is the most widely used formula for adult burn resuscitation guidance.
Question 7: A burn that appears pale, leathery, and does not blanch with pressure is BEST classified as:
- Superficial partial-thickness
- Deep partial-thickness
- Full-thickness (Correct answer)
- Chemical burn, first-degree
Correct answer: Full-thickness
Pale, leathery, non-blanching wounds are hallmarks of full-thickness burns where all dermal vascularity has been destroyed.
CBM Burn Classification & Assessment 2
Which burn classification describes damage extending through the dermis and into subcutaneous fat but not affecting underlying muscle?