CBM Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CBM facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which burn survivor population has been found to have the highest rates of pre-injury psychiatric comorbidity? → Patients with self-inflicted burns
2. Which organism is most commonly responsible for invasive burn wound infections in the early post-burn period? → Staphylococcus aureus
3. Chronic opioid dependence in burn survivors is best managed by: → Structured tapering with adjunctive pain management and behavioral support
4. Which PPE is essential when managing a chemical burn emergency? → Full PPE including goggles and gloves.
5. Which standard of practice is MOST important for ensuring quality in Nutritional Support for Burns? → Following evidence-based protocols while adapting to specific circumstances
6. A partial-thickness burn on the dorsum of the hand is best managed with which dressing goal? → Moist wound environment to promote epithelialization
7. Methadone's role in chronic burn pain management is primarily related to its: → NMDA receptor antagonism in addition to opioid agonism
8. Which fuel moisture category has the SLOWEST response time to changes in atmospheric humidity? → 1000-hour timelag fuels
9. What does 'relative humidity recovery' indicate for prescribed burn safety planning? → The increase in RH after sunset that reduces fire danger for the next day
10. What is the recommended personal protective equipment (PPE) for personnel working near active flame on a prescribed burn? → Nomex fire-resistant clothing, hard hat, gloves, and leather boots
11. Which burn characteristic places a patient in the 'major burn' category per ABA severity classification? → Partial-thickness burns exceeding 25% TBSA in adults under 40
12. A child presents with burn injuries that are inconsistent with the caregiver's explanation. The burn care team's first priority is to: → Report suspected non-accidental trauma to child protective services
13. Which psychological technique has the strongest evidence for reducing procedural pain in burn patients? → Virtual reality distraction therapy
14. Delirium in burn ICU patients is associated with which long-term outcome that highlights the need for early prevention? → Increased incidence of PTSD, cognitive impairment, and longer hospital stay
15. A burn manager observes that smoke is lying flat and drifting slowly along the ground after ignition. This condition most likely indicates: → The atmosphere is in a stable state with poor vertical mixing
16. Eschar biopsy shows hyphae invading viable tissue below the burn wound. The most likely causative organism is: → Rhizopus or Mucor species
17. Glutamine supplementation in burn patients is thought to provide benefit primarily through which mechanism? → Serving as a preferred fuel for enterocytes and immune cells
18. The primary advantage of using a multimodal analgesia approach in burn patients is to: → Reduce total opioid consumption while achieving better pain control
19. When a smoke management plan requires a minimum transport wind speed of 8 mph, the primary reason is to: → Ensure adequate horizontal movement of smoke away from receptors
20. Inhalation injury is known to increase resuscitation fluid requirements by approximately: → 50–60%
21. Which action is MOST important when a prescribed burn threatens an unplanned structure? → Immediately suppress the fire near the structure and notify emergency services
22. What is the role of fuel moisture in fire behavior? → It reduces fire intensity
23. What is the most critical initial assessment in a patient exposed to smoke inhalation? → Assess airway patency
24. Which of the following fuel types typically requires the LOWEST relative humidity to carry fire effectively during a prescribed burn? → Fine herbaceous fuels (grasses) that cure rapidly
25. The Emission Factor (EF) used in smoke emission calculations represents: → The mass of a specific pollutant emitted per unit mass of fuel consumed
26. How does slope affect fire spread? → It increases fire spread uphill
27. For a burn patient requiring long-term pain management after discharge, the MOST appropriate first-line agent for neuropathic pain is: → Gabapentin or pregabalin
28. Which ICS position on a prescribed burn is specifically responsible for monitoring crew and public safety throughout burn operations? → Safety Officer (SOF)
29. Which finding best indicates that a burn patient's nutritional support is achieving adequate wound healing support at the cellular level? → Positive nitrogen balance and improving wound granulation tissue
30. A prescribed burn is running under a red flag warning. What is the most appropriate action? → Hold ignition unless conditions are specifically within the approved prescription