APEA APEA Patient Management Questions and Answers

Question 1

A patient with newly diagnosed hypertension has a BP of 148/92 on two separate visits with no end-organ damage or comorbidities. The first-line treatment is:

Accepted Answer

Lifestyle modification for 3-6 months plus thiazide diuretic

Answer

Immediate ACE inhibitor therapy

Answer

Beta-blocker initiation

Answer

Immediate referral to cardiology

Question 2

A 65-year-old patient has an HbA1c of 7.9% on metformin alone. The NP adds a second agent. Per ADA guidelines, which comorbidity would favor adding an SGLT-2 inhibitor over a sulfonylurea?

Accepted Answer

Established cardiovascular disease

Answer

Stage 1 CKD

Answer

Obesity alone

Answer

Peripheral neuropathy

Question 3

A patient with community-acquired pneumonia has a CURB-65 score of 2. The appropriate management is:

Accepted Answer

Short-term inpatient admission or close outpatient follow-up

Answer

Outpatient oral antibiotics only

Answer

Immediate ICU admission

Answer

Home IV antibiotics without hospitalization

Question 4

A patient with GERD fails twice-daily PPI therapy after 8 weeks. The next appropriate management step is:

Accepted Answer

Refer for upper endoscopy to rule out complications

Answer

Switch to H2 blocker therapy

Answer

Add antacids to current regimen

Answer

Discontinue PPI and start prokinetic agent

Question 5

A patient with persistent asthma not controlled on low-dose ICS alone should have which medication added per NAEPP guidelines?

Accepted Answer

Long-acting beta-agonist (LABA)

Answer

Short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) scheduled dosing

Answer

Oral corticosteroid

Answer

Cromolyn sodium

Question 6

A patient with type 2 DM has a urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio of 45 mg/g on two separate tests. The most appropriate treatment to slow CKD progression is:

Accepted Answer

Start an ACE inhibitor or ARB

Answer

Increase metformin dose

Answer

Refer immediately to nephrology

Answer

Start a loop diuretic