APEA Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield APEA facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A positive tuberculin skin test and allergic contact dermatitis from nickel are examples of which type of hypersensitivity reaction? → Type IV (delayed, T-cell mediated)
2. Which medication requires monitoring for hyperkalemia when combined with an ACE inhibitor in a heart failure patient? → Spironolactone
3. Which medication is first-line for treatment of bacterial vaginosis in non-pregnant women? → Metronidazole 500 mg orally twice daily for 7 days
4. When building an APEA customizable study plan, which of the following should be established first? → Target exam date and working backward to set weekly milestones
5. A 6-month-old is brought in with a bulging anterior fontanelle, fever, and irritability. The NP's immediate priority is: → Transfer to ED for lumbar puncture and empiric antibiotics
6. For the APEA predictor exam, which vaccine is contraindicated in immunocompromised patients due to its composition? → Live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV)
7. A nurse practitioner prescribes methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis. Which supplement should be co-prescribed to reduce mucosal and hematologic toxicity? → Folic acid
8. An 18-year-old presents with pharyngitis, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. The most likely diagnosis is: → Infectious mononucleosis
9. USPSTF recommends screening for chlamydia and gonorrhea in which adult population? → All sexually active women 24 years and younger and older women at increased risk
10. A patient taking phenelzine eats aged cheese and cured meats and presents with severe occipital headache and a blood pressure of 220/120. What is the mechanism? → Tyramine-induced norepinephrine release with MAO inhibition
11. Which histological type of cervical cancer is most commonly associated with high-risk HPV infection? → Squamous cell carcinoma
12. A concept heavily tested on APEA exams is the Patient-Centered Medical Home (PCMH). Which principle best defines the PCMH model? → Coordinated, accessible, comprehensive care with a personal clinician
13. Which antibiotic class requires counseling about increased risk of tendon rupture, particularly in patients over 60 taking corticosteroids? → Fluoroquinolones
14. A 6-week-old male presents with projectile, non-bilious vomiting after every feeding. What is the most likely diagnosis? → Pyloric stenosis
15. A patient with asthma requires an antihypertensive. Which class is contraindicated due to risk of bronchospasm? → Non-selective beta-blockers
16. Which cranial nerve is assessed when the NP tests the patient's ability to identify familiar odors? → Cranial nerve I
17. A patient with CHF exacerbation presents with orthopnea, 3+ pitting edema, and weight gain of 8 lbs in 5 days. The immediate management priority is: → IV furosemide and close monitoring of urine output
18. APEA board review emphasizes depression screening. Which tool is recommended by USPSTF for depression screening in adults in primary care? → PHQ-9
19. A patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis has a positive Homan sign. Which clinical finding constitutes a positive Homan sign? → Calf pain with passive dorsiflexion of the foot
20. A patient taking amiodarone for atrial fibrillation requires monitoring for which thyroid-related adverse effect? → Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism
21. A patient with community-acquired MRSA skin infection has a fluctuant abscess with surrounding cellulitis. The primary treatment is: → Incision and drainage plus TMP-SMX
22. In older adults, the presence of heart sound S3 suggests: → Heart failure
23. Before prescribing a stimulant for ADHD, which history item matters most to screen for? → Personal or family history of structural heart disease or sudden cardiac death
24. When using an APEA customizable study plan, self-assessment quiz results should be used to: → Identify weak domains and redirect study time accordingly
25. Which medication used for osteoporosis requires the patient to remain upright for 30-60 minutes after administration to prevent esophageal injury? → Alendronate
26. Which equation is preferred for estimating renal function when dosing renally cleared drugs in a frail older adult? → Cockcroft-Gault creatinine clearance
27. APEA test preparation covers cultural competence. Which approach best demonstrates culturally competent care? → Asking patients about cultural beliefs and incorporating them into care planning
28. A patient presents with a 'herald patch' followed by a Christmas tree distribution of oval scaly lesions on the trunk. The diagnosis is: → Pityriasis rosea
29. A patient on warfarin therapy presents with an INR of 4.5. They are asymptomatic and have no signs of bleeding. What is the recommended management? → Reduce the dose
30. Which assessment technique is most reliable for detecting an abdominal aortic aneurysm during physical exam? → Palpation of a pulsatile abdominal mass