APA Abnormal Psychology and Psychopathology 1 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: According to the DSM-5, which criterion is central to defining a psychological disorder?
- Behavior that is statistically rare
- Distress or functional impairment in the individual (Correct answer)
- Behavior that violates social norms
- Symptoms lasting less than 6 months
Correct answer: Distress or functional impairment in the individual
The DSM-5 defines mental disorders primarily by clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning.
Question 2: Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) requires the presence of a depressive episode lasting at least:
- 1 week
- 2 weeks (Correct answer)
- 1 month
- 6 months
Correct answer: 2 weeks
DSM-5 requires depressive symptoms to be present most of the day, nearly every day, for at least 2 weeks to diagnose a major depressive episode.
Question 3: Which neurotransmitter is most associated with the monoamine hypothesis of depression?
- Dopamine
- Serotonin (Correct answer)
- GABA
- Acetylcholine
Correct answer: Serotonin
The monoamine hypothesis of depression focuses primarily on serotonin (and norepinephrine) deficiencies, which led to the development of SSRIs as a treatment.
Question 4: In the DSM-5, Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is characterized by excessive anxiety and worry occurring more days than not for at least:
- 1 month
- 3 months
- 6 months (Correct answer)
- 1 year
Correct answer: 6 months
GAD requires persistent, excessive worry about multiple topics for at least 6 months, along with associated physical and cognitive symptoms.
Question 5: What distinguishes Bipolar I Disorder from Bipolar II Disorder?
- Bipolar I requires depressive episodes; Bipolar II does not
- Bipolar I involves at least one full manic episode; Bipolar II involves hypomania only (Correct answer)
- Bipolar II has more severe symptoms than Bipolar I
- Bipolar I is treated with therapy only; Bipolar II requires medication
Correct answer: Bipolar I involves at least one full manic episode; Bipolar II involves hypomania only
Bipolar I is defined by at least one manic episode (which may be severe enough to require hospitalization), while Bipolar II involves hypomanic episodes that never reach full mania.
Question 6: The 'diathesis-stress model' of psychopathology proposes that mental disorders arise from:
- Purely genetic factors
- Environmental stressors alone
- The interaction between a biological or psychological vulnerability and environmental stressors (Correct answer)
- Learned helplessness from early childhood
Correct answer: The interaction between a biological or psychological vulnerability and environmental stressors
The diathesis-stress model posits that disorders result from the combination of a predisposing vulnerability (diathesis) and precipitating stressors in the environment.
APA Abnormal Psychology and Psychopathology 1
According to the DSM-5, which criterion is central to defining a psychological disorder?