Examination for Professional Practice in Psychology (EPPP) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: What is one primary goal of health psychology research?

To understand the genetic basis of diseases
To study the brain's structure
To improve healthcare systems and policies (Correct answer)
To develop new medications

Correct answer: To improve healthcare systems and policies

One primary goal of health psychology research is to apply psychological knowledge to improve healthcare systems and policies. This involves developing evidence-based interventions to enhance patient adherence, designing effective public health campaigns, and advocating for policies that promote health and well-being across populations. The research aims to translate findings into practical applications that benefit public health initiatives.

Question 2: The fundamental attribution error refers to the tendency to:

Overestimate situational factors and underestimate dispositional factors when explaining others' behavior
Underestimate situational factors and overestimate dispositional factors when explaining others' behavior (Correct answer)
Assume others share our attitudes
Attribute one's own failures to external causes

Correct answer: Underestimate situational factors and overestimate dispositional factors when explaining others' behavior

The fundamental attribution error is the bias of overweighting personal traits and underweighting situational influences when explaining other people's behavior.

Question 3: What is 'learned helplessness' as described by Martin Seligman, and how does it relate to depression?

A cognitive schema developed in early childhood from parental criticism
A coping style characterized by excessive reliance on others
Belief that one's failures are caused by external factors
A state of reduced motivation arising from repeated experiences of uncontrollable negative outcomes (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A state of reduced motivation arising from repeated experiences of uncontrollable negative outcomes

Seligman's learned helplessness model proposes that depression results from believing one cannot control outcomes, stemming from repeated experiences where actions had no effect on results.

Question 4: Marcia's identity statuses are based on two dimensions: exploration and:

Commitment (Correct answer)
Competence
Achievement
Autonomy

Correct answer: Commitment

James Marcia classified adolescent identity into four statuses based on whether individuals have explored identity options and whether they have made a commitment.

Question 5: According to the DSM-5, which criterion is central to defining a psychological disorder?

Symptoms lasting less than 6 months
Distress or functional impairment in the individual (Correct answer)
Behavior that violates social norms
Behavior that is statistically rare

Correct answer: Distress or functional impairment in the individual

The DSM-5 defines mental disorders primarily by clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning.

Question 6: Which leadership theory proposes that the most effective leadership style depends on the readiness and maturity of followers?

Situational leadership theory (Hersey & Blanchard) (Correct answer)
Transformational leadership theory
Leader-member exchange theory
Path-goal theory

Correct answer: Situational leadership theory (Hersey & Blanchard)

Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership theory argues that leaders should adapt their style (directing, coaching, supporting, delegating) based on followers' task competence and commitment.

Question 7: Which of the following is a hallmark feature of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)?

Inability to recall any details of the traumatic event for more than 1 month
Increased approach behavior toward trauma-related stimuli
Persistent elevated mood following a traumatic event
Intrusive re-experiencing of the trauma (e.g., flashbacks, nightmares) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Intrusive re-experiencing of the trauma (e.g., flashbacks, nightmares)

PTSD is characterized by intrusion symptoms (flashbacks, nightmares), avoidance, negative alterations in cognition/mood, and hyperarousal following exposure to trauma.

Question 8: Which measure of central tendency is most affected by extreme outliers?

Mean (Correct answer)
Range
Mode
Median

Correct answer: Mean

The mean uses every data point in its calculation, so extreme outliers can substantially pull it in their direction.

Question 9: What is one main goal of psychopharmacology in clinical psychology?

To analyze economic trends
To prescribe medications for mental disorders (Correct answer)
To conduct animal behavior research
To develop psychological theories

Correct answer: To prescribe medications for mental disorders

Psychopharmacology is the study of how medications affect psychological processes and behavior. In clinical psychology, a main goal related to psychopharmacology is understanding and, in some specialized roles, prescribing medications for mental disorders. While most clinical psychologists do not prescribe, they often collaborate with medical doctors to integrate medication management into comprehensive treatment plans, aiming to alleviate symptoms and improve patient outcomes.

Question 10: What distinguishes Bipolar I Disorder from Bipolar II Disorder?

Bipolar I requires depressive episodes; Bipolar II does not
Bipolar II has more severe symptoms than Bipolar I
Bipolar I is treated with therapy only; Bipolar II requires medication
Bipolar I involves at least one full manic episode; Bipolar II involves hypomania only (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Bipolar I involves at least one full manic episode; Bipolar II involves hypomania only

Bipolar I is defined by at least one manic episode (which may be severe enough to require hospitalization), while Bipolar II involves hypomanic episodes that never reach full mania.

Question 11: In Erikson's framework, the primary developmental challenge of adolescence is:

Identity vs. Role Confusion (Correct answer)
Generativity vs. Stagnation
Intimacy vs. Isolation
Industry vs. Inferiority

Correct answer: Identity vs. Role Confusion

Erikson's fifth stage, Identity vs. Role Confusion, occurs during adolescence, when individuals explore and commit to a coherent sense of self.

Question 12: What is 'social loafing'?

Increased effort when being evaluated by others
Aggression triggered by frustration in social settings
Reduced individual effort when working in a group compared to working alone (Correct answer)
Conforming to group pressure against one's own beliefs

Correct answer: Reduced individual effort when working in a group compared to working alone

Social loafing is the tendency for individuals to exert less effort on collective tasks when their individual contributions cannot be identified.

Question 13: The 'availability heuristic' leads people to judge the likelihood of an event based on:

How easily examples come to mind (Correct answer)
Expert opinions
Statistical base rates
Logical analysis of probabilities

Correct answer: How easily examples come to mind

The availability heuristic (Tversky & Kahneman) is a mental shortcut where probability judgments are based on how readily examples can be recalled.

Question 14: Which anxiety disorder is characterized by recurrent, unexpected panic attacks and persistent concern about future attacks?

Social Anxiety Disorder
Panic Disorder (Correct answer)
Agoraphobia
Specific Phobia

Correct answer: Panic Disorder

Panic Disorder involves recurrent unexpected panic attacks accompanied by at least one month of persistent concern about additional attacks or significant behavioral changes.

Question 15: The 'mere exposure effect' states that:

Social norms are internalized through repeated exposure
Repeated exposure causes habituation and reduced interest
Familiarity with a stimulus increases liking for it (Correct answer)
People prefer novel stimuli over familiar ones

Correct answer: Familiarity with a stimulus increases liking for it

Zajonc's mere exposure effect shows that simply being exposed to a stimulus repeatedly tends to increase positive feelings toward it.

Question 16: Which symptom category of schizophrenia includes hallucinations and delusions?

Cognitive symptoms
Disorganized symptoms
Negative symptoms
Positive symptoms (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Positive symptoms

Positive symptoms of schizophrenia represent excesses or distortions added to normal experience, including hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized speech.

Question 17: Which concept describes the spread of emotional states from one person to others in a social setting?

Affective priming
Empathy transfer
Social facilitation
Emotional contagion (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Emotional contagion

Emotional contagion is the automatic mimicry and synchronization of facial expressions, vocalizations, postures, and movements that leads to convergent emotional states.

Question 18: What is the capacity of short-term (working) memory according to Miller's classic research?

12 ± 2 chunks
7 ± 2 chunks (Correct answer)
3 ± 1 chunks
5 ± 1 chunks

Correct answer: 7 ± 2 chunks

Miller (1956) famously reported that short-term memory holds approximately 7 ± 2 chunks of information at one time.

Question 19: In APA Publication Manual format, how should a statistically non-significant result be reported?

p > .05 with actual p-value, e.g., p = .21 (Correct answer)
The result should be omitted
p = 1.00
NS without further detail

Correct answer: p > .05 with actual p-value, e.g., p = .21

APA recommends reporting the exact p-value regardless of significance (e.g., p = .21) rather than only noting p > .05 or 'NS'.

Question 20: Erikson's stage of 'Trust vs. Mistrust' occurs during which period?

Middle adulthood
Infancy (birth–18 months) (Correct answer)
Early childhood (2–4 years)
Adolescence

Correct answer: Infancy (birth–18 months)

Trust vs. Mistrust is Erikson's first psychosocial stage, occurring in infancy, where consistent caregiving fosters basic trust.

Question 21: Spreading activation in semantic memory models explains why reading 'nurse' makes it easier to subsequently recognize:

Words beginning with the same letter
Random unrelated words
Emotionally charged words
Related concepts like 'doctor' or 'hospital' (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Related concepts like 'doctor' or 'hospital'

Spreading activation models propose that activating a concept (e.g., 'nurse') automatically spreads activation to semantically related nodes, making them more accessible.

Question 22: Which type of degree is typically required to become a licensed clinical psychologist in the United States?

Bachelor’s degree
Doctoral degree (Correct answer)
Master’s degree
Associate’s degree

Correct answer: Doctoral degree

To become a licensed clinical psychologist in the United States, a doctoral degree is generally the minimum educational requirement. This typically involves completing either a Ph.D. (Doctor of Philosophy) or a Psy.D. (Doctor of Psychology) program. These rigorous programs include extensive academic coursework, research, supervised clinical training, and an internship, preparing individuals for independent practice and licensure.

Question 23: According to Kohlberg, at the conventional level of moral reasoning, decisions are guided by:

Personal gain only
Avoiding punishment
Social rules and others' approval (Correct answer)
Abstract principles of justice

Correct answer: Social rules and others' approval

At Kohlberg's conventional level, moral reasoning centers on maintaining social order, following rules, and seeking approval from others.

Question 24: What is 'informed consent' as required by APA ethical standards?

Parental permission for adult participants
Written approval from an IRB
Consent obtained after debriefing
Voluntary agreement to participate after being told about the study's nature and risks (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Voluntary agreement to participate after being told about the study's nature and risks

Informed consent requires that participants voluntarily agree to participate after being provided adequate information about the study's purpose, procedures, and risks.

Question 25: Which neurotransmitter is primarily associated with the regulation of mood, sleep, and appetite?

Serotonin (Correct answer)
GABA
Acetylcholine
Dopamine

Correct answer: Serotonin

Serotonin (5-HT) plays a major role in regulating mood, sleep, and appetite, and its dysregulation is linked to depression and anxiety disorders.

Question 26: What is 'organizational citizenship behavior' (OCB)?

Counterproductive work behaviors committed by dissatisfied employees
Voluntary behaviors that go beyond formal job requirements and support organizational effectiveness (Correct answer)
Performance evaluations conducted by peers
Formally required job duties that are part of the employment contract

Correct answer: Voluntary behaviors that go beyond formal job requirements and support organizational effectiveness

OCBs are discretionary, extra-role behaviors (e.g., helping colleagues, civic virtue) that are not formally rewarded but contribute to organizational functioning.

Question 27: Which brain structure is most critically involved in the formation of new explicit (declarative) memories?

Thalamus
Hippocampus (Correct answer)
Amygdala
Cerebellum

Correct answer: Hippocampus

The hippocampus is essential for consolidating new explicit memories, as demonstrated by patient H.M., who lost the ability to form new declarative memories after bilateral hippocampal removal.

Question 28: Asch's conformity experiments demonstrated that participants would give obviously wrong answers under social pressure approximately what percentage of the time?

75%
5%
37% (Correct answer)
20%

Correct answer: 37%

Across Asch's trials, participants gave incorrect answers about 37% of the time when confederates unanimously gave wrong answers, demonstrating strong normative influence.

Question 29: The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is primarily responsible for:

Rest-and-digest functions that conserve energy (Correct answer)
Initiating fight-or-flight responses
Voluntary skeletal muscle control
Processing incoming sensory information

Correct answer: Rest-and-digest functions that conserve energy

The parasympathetic division promotes rest-and-digest functions, slowing heart rate, stimulating digestion, and conserving energy when the body is not under threat.

Question 30: Dopamine pathways in the brain are most strongly implicated in:

Reward processing and motivation (Correct answer)
Explicit memory consolidation
Anxiety regulation and fear extinction
Pain suppression and analgesia

Correct answer: Reward processing and motivation

The mesolimbic and mesocortical dopamine pathways are central to reward, motivation, and reinforcement learning, and their dysregulation is implicated in addiction and schizophrenia.

Question 31: Endogenous opioid neuropeptides (endorphins) are released primarily in response to:

Stress and pain (Correct answer)
Social rejection and exclusion
Hunger and low blood glucose
Memory encoding and consolidation

Correct answer: Stress and pain

Endorphins are released in response to pain and physical stress, producing analgesia and feelings of euphoria by binding to opioid receptors—the same receptors targeted by morphine and heroin.

Question 32: What does 'emerging adulthood' as defined by Jeffrey Arnett refer to?

A distinct developmental period from roughly ages 18–29 marked by identity exploration (Correct answer)
Early childhood independence from caregivers
Late adolescence from ages 10–15
The transition into middle adulthood after age 40

Correct answer: A distinct developmental period from roughly ages 18–29 marked by identity exploration

Arnett's emerging adulthood (ages ~18–29) is characterized by identity exploration in love and work, instability, self-focus, feeling in-between, and a sense of possibility.

Question 33: What does the APA Ethical Principles state about psychologists' responsibility in organizational settings when there is a conflict between client and organization?

Always follow organizational instructions
Withdraw from the engagement immediately
Prioritize the client's interests above all else
Clarify roles, identify the client, and be transparent about potential conflicts (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Clarify roles, identify the client, and be transparent about potential conflicts

APA ethics require I-O psychologists to clarify at the outset who their client is, their role, and how to manage potential conflicts between individual and organizational interests.

Question 34: Goal-setting theory (Locke & Latham) predicts that the most motivating goals are those that are:

Easy and attainable to build confidence
Vague and inspirational to allow flexibility
Set entirely by managers without employee input
Specific and challenging (but achievable) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Specific and challenging (but achievable)

Locke and Latham's goal-setting theory demonstrates that specific, challenging goals consistently produce higher performance than vague or easy goals, provided the goals are accepted and feedback is available.

Question 35: What is 'flat affect' as seen in some patients with schizophrenia?

Inappropriate emotional responses to stimuli
Rapid mood shifts between euphoria and sadness
Significantly diminished emotional expression in face, voice, and body (Correct answer)
Feelings of unreality about oneself or the environment

Correct answer: Significantly diminished emotional expression in face, voice, and body

Flat affect is a negative symptom of schizophrenia characterized by reduced or absent outward expression of emotion through facial expressions, voice, and gestures.

Question 36: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is most effective for treating which type of disorder?

Anxiety disorders (Correct answer)
Cardiovascular diseases
Genetic disorders
Infectious diseases

Correct answer: Anxiety disorders

Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is widely recognized as one of the most effective and evidence-based treatments for anxiety disorders. CBT helps individuals identify and challenge maladaptive thought patterns and behaviors that contribute to their anxiety symptoms. By learning new coping skills and modifying unhelpful responses, clients can significantly reduce their anxiety and improve their daily functioning.

Question 37: Which term describes the inability to form new long-term memories after brain damage?

Retrograde amnesia
Anterograde amnesia (Correct answer)
Source amnesia
Proactive interference

Correct answer: Anterograde amnesia

Anterograde amnesia is the inability to encode and store new memories following the onset of amnesia, as famously illustrated by patient H.M.

Question 38: Which type of long-term memory involves skills and habits that are expressed through performance rather than conscious recall?

Semantic memory
Procedural (implicit) memory (Correct answer)
Episodic memory
Explicit memory

Correct answer: Procedural (implicit) memory

Procedural memory stores skills and conditioned responses (like riding a bike) that are performed automatically without requiring conscious recollection.

Question 39: What is one common assessment tool used by clinical psychologists to diagnose mental disorders?

MRI scan
Rorschach Inkblot Test (Correct answer)
Genetic screening
Blood test

Correct answer: Rorschach Inkblot Test

The Rorschach Inkblot Test is a well-known projective assessment tool utilized by clinical psychologists to gain insight into a client's personality, emotional functioning, and thought processes. During the test, individuals describe what they perceive in a series of ambiguous inkblots. The interpretation of these responses helps psychologists understand underlying psychological dynamics and aids in diagnosing mental disorders.

Question 40: What is 'chunking' in the context of working memory?

Suppressing unwanted memories through active effort
Grouping individual items into meaningful units to increase effective memory capacity (Correct answer)
Breaking information into smaller units for easier processing
Distributing practice over time to improve retention

Correct answer: Grouping individual items into meaningful units to increase effective memory capacity

Chunking involves organizing items into familiar, meaningful groupings, which increases the amount of information that can be held in working memory.

Question 41: Herzberg's two-factor theory distinguishes between 'hygiene factors' and 'motivators.' Which of the following is a motivator?

Company policy
Working conditions
Achievement and recognition (Correct answer)
Salary

Correct answer: Achievement and recognition

Herzberg classified achievement, recognition, advancement, and the work itself as motivators that produce job satisfaction and increased performance.

Question 42: Split-brain research by Sperry and Gazzaniga demonstrated that severing the corpus callosum results in:

Permanent loss of language abilities in both hemispheres
Severe impairment of voluntary motor coordination
Independent functioning of the two cerebral hemispheres (Correct answer)
Permanent disruption of conscious awareness

Correct answer: Independent functioning of the two cerebral hemispheres

Split-brain studies showed that with the corpus callosum severed, each hemisphere independently perceives and responds to information, revealing distinct specializations of the left and right hemispheres.

Question 43: The 'self-serving bias' is the tendency to:

Conform to group pressure to maintain self-esteem
Underestimate one's own abilities
Attribute successes to internal factors and failures to external factors (Correct answer)
Always blame others for negative outcomes

Correct answer: Attribute successes to internal factors and failures to external factors

The self-serving bias leads people to take personal credit for successes (internal attribution) while blaming circumstances or others for failures (external attribution).

Question 44: Which concept describes the degree to which a job provides workers with direct and clear information about their performance?

Task identity
Feedback from the job (Correct answer)
Skill variety
Autonomy

Correct answer: Feedback from the job

In Hackman and Oldham's Job Characteristics Model, feedback from the job refers to the degree to which carrying out work activities provides the employee with direct information about their effectiveness.

Question 45: Which term describes the gradual replacement of external scaffolding with internal cognitive processes?

Equilibration
Internalization (Correct answer)
Accommodation
Habituation

Correct answer: Internalization

Internalization (Vygotsky) is the process by which socially-guided actions and thinking become part of the individual's own internal cognitive toolkit.

Question 46: In APA's CONSORT-style reporting, what information must accompany a reported effect size?

Sample demographics
Confidence interval (Correct answer)
Raw data table
Post-hoc test results

Correct answer: Confidence interval

APA recommends reporting effect sizes alongside confidence intervals to convey both the magnitude and precision of the estimate.

Question 47: What is 'debriefing' as described in APA ethical guidelines?

Providing participants with compensation after the study
Obtaining consent before the study begins
Reviewing data for accuracy after collection
Explaining the study's true purpose and correcting misconceptions after participation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Explaining the study's true purpose and correcting misconceptions after participation

Debriefing is a post-study procedure where researchers explain the study's actual purpose, correct any deception used, and address participant concerns.

Question 48: What does 'comorbidity' mean in the context of psychopathology?

The likelihood of relapse after treatment
A shared biological cause for different disorders
The simultaneous presence of two or more diagnosable disorders in the same individual (Correct answer)
A fatal outcome of a psychological disorder

Correct answer: The simultaneous presence of two or more diagnosable disorders in the same individual

Comorbidity refers to the co-occurrence of two or more distinct psychological (or physical) disorders in the same person, which is the rule rather than the exception in clinical populations.

Question 49: The case of Phineas Gage, in which an iron rod destroyed much of his prefrontal cortex, provided early evidence that the prefrontal cortex is critical for:

Personality, decision-making, and impulse control (Correct answer)
Procedural motor learning and habit formation
Visual perception and spatial processing
Language comprehension and production

Correct answer: Personality, decision-making, and impulse control

After his injury, Gage showed profound personality changes—becoming impulsive, irreverent, and unable to plan—demonstrating the prefrontal cortex's role in executive function and social behavior.

Question 50: Which parenting style, identified by Baumrind, is associated with the best developmental outcomes in U.S. children?

Permissive
Authoritative (Correct answer)
Authoritarian
Uninvolved

Correct answer: Authoritative

Authoritative parenting — warm yet firm, with clear expectations and explanations — is associated with higher self-esteem, academic success, and social competence.

Question 51: What does the 'levels of processing' model (Craik & Lockhart) propose about memory?

Working memory capacity determines long-term memory success
Memory has three distinct structural stores
Deeper, more meaningful processing at encoding leads to better retention (Correct answer)
All memories decay at the same rate regardless of encoding

Correct answer: Deeper, more meaningful processing at encoding leads to better retention

Craik and Lockhart proposed that retention depends on depth of processing, with semantic (meaningful) encoding producing far better memory than shallow structural or phonological processing.

Question 52: Which sampling method gives every member of the population an equal chance of being selected?

Quota sampling
Purposive sampling
Simple random sampling (Correct answer)
Convenience sampling

Correct answer: Simple random sampling

Simple random sampling uses a process (e.g., lottery or random number generator) that gives each population member an equal probability of selection.

Question 53: What does 'criterion validity' mean in the context of I-O psychology selection tools?

The test measures the same content as the job duties
Scores on a predictor correlate with scores on a measure of job performance (Correct answer)
The test is consistent across administrations
The test has a logical relationship to the job domain

Correct answer: Scores on a predictor correlate with scores on a measure of job performance

Criterion validity (predictive or concurrent) is demonstrated when predictor scores (e.g., a test) significantly correlate with a criterion of job performance or success.

Question 54: What does Vygotsky's Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) describe?

Skills a child can master independently
The maximum cognitive ability possible at a given age
The range between what a child can do alone and with guidance (Correct answer)
Biological readiness for formal schooling

Correct answer: The range between what a child can do alone and with guidance

The ZPD is the gap between a learner's current independent capability and what they can achieve with scaffolding from a more knowledgeable other.

Question 55: What is the purpose of a double-blind procedure in experimental research?

To ensure anonymity of data
To reduce demand characteristics and experimenter bias (Correct answer)
To prevent participants from withdrawing
To match participants on key variables

Correct answer: To reduce demand characteristics and experimenter bias

In a double-blind study, neither participants nor researchers who interact with them know group assignments, reducing bias from both sides.

Question 56: What is 'confirmation bias' in cognitive psychology?

The tendency to search for and interpret information in ways that confirm existing beliefs (Correct answer)
Assuming that others share one's own beliefs
Overconfidence in one's own knowledge
Preferring familiar options over novel ones

Correct answer: The tendency to search for and interpret information in ways that confirm existing beliefs

Confirmation bias is the tendency to favor information that confirms pre-existing beliefs and to discount or ignore disconfirming evidence.

Question 57: The blood-brain barrier primarily functions to:

Protect the brain from harmful substances in the bloodstream (Correct answer)
Control neurotransmitter reuptake
Regulate blood pressure in the brain
Facilitate oxygen delivery to neurons

Correct answer: Protect the brain from harmful substances in the bloodstream

The blood-brain barrier selectively restricts the passage of substances from the bloodstream into the brain, protecting neural tissue from toxins and pathogens.

Question 58: During Piaget's preoperational stage, egocentrism is best demonstrated by:

Assuming others see the world from their own perspective (Correct answer)
Failure to pass conservation tasks
Inability to solve hypothetical problems
Lack of object permanence

Correct answer: Assuming others see the world from their own perspective

Preoperational egocentrism is the child's difficulty recognizing that others may have different perspectives, as shown in the classic three-mountain task.

Question 59: What does internal validity refer to in psychological research?

Whether findings generalize to the real world
The degree to which changes in the DV are caused by the IV (Correct answer)
Whether a test measures what it claims to measure
Consistency of results across studies

Correct answer: The degree to which changes in the DV are caused by the IV

Internal validity concerns whether observed changes in the dependent variable are genuinely caused by manipulation of the independent variable, ruling out confounds.

Question 60: What is the term for the therapeutic relationship between a psychologist and a client?

Clinical partnership
Diagnostic collaboration
Behavioral contract
Therapeutic alliance (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Therapeutic alliance

The therapeutic alliance refers to the collaborative and trusting relationship that develops between a psychologist and their client. This partnership is considered a critical factor in the success of therapy, as a strong alliance fosters open communication, mutual respect, and a shared commitment to achieving therapeutic goals. A positive therapeutic alliance empowers clients to engage more fully in the treatment process.

Question 61: What is the main advantage of a within-subjects design over a between-subjects design?

It eliminates order effects
It prevents attrition
It requires fewer participants and reduces error variance (Correct answer)
It allows for larger sample sizes

Correct answer: It requires fewer participants and reduces error variance

Within-subjects designs use each participant as their own control, reducing individual-difference error and requiring fewer total participants.

Question 62: Which of the following is a common intervention used by health psychologists?

Electroconvulsive therapy
Pharmacotherapy
Cognitive-behavioral therapy (Correct answer)
Surgery

Correct answer: Cognitive-behavioral therapy

Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a highly effective and frequently used intervention by health psychologists. CBT helps individuals identify and modify unhelpful thought patterns and behaviors that contribute to various health problems, such as chronic pain, stress, or unhealthy lifestyle choices. By teaching coping strategies and promoting adaptive behaviors, CBT empowers patients to better manage their health and improve their quality of life.

Question 63: What is a 'structured interview' and why does it have higher validity than an unstructured interview?

An interview conducted by a panel of managers without a fixed agenda
An interview that follows an informal conversational format
A computer-administered interview with automated scoring
An interview with standardized, job-relevant questions and a scoring rubric, reducing interviewer bias (Correct answer)

Correct answer: An interview with standardized, job-relevant questions and a scoring rubric, reducing interviewer bias

Structured interviews use predetermined, job-relevant questions and standardized rating scales, which reduce subjectivity and biases, significantly increasing their predictive validity over unstructured formats.

Question 64: What is the primary focus of health psychology?

Understanding cognitive development
Promoting and maintaining health (Correct answer)
Analyzing genetic disorders
Studying animal behavior

Correct answer: Promoting and maintaining health

Health psychology is an interdisciplinary field that applies psychological principles to understand the complex interplay between biological, psychological, and social factors influencing health and illness. Its primary focus is on promoting and maintaining health, preventing and treating illness, and improving healthcare systems. Health psychologists work to enhance well-being by addressing behavioral and psychological aspects of physical health.

Question 65: Which disorder is characterized by persistent, excessive worry about various aspects of life?

Major depressive disorder
Generalized anxiety disorder (Correct answer)
Schizophrenia
Bipolar disorder

Correct answer: Generalized anxiety disorder

Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is characterized by persistent, excessive, and often uncontrollable worry about a variety of everyday events or activities. Individuals with GAD find it difficult to manage their anxiety and may experience physical symptoms such as restlessness, fatigue, and muscle tension. This pervasive and long-lasting worry distinguishes GAD from more specific anxiety disorders.

Question 66: Which of the following best describes a meta-analysis?

An in-depth qualitative review of one study
A study using multiple measurement instruments
A replication of a single experiment
A statistical synthesis of results from multiple independent studies (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A statistical synthesis of results from multiple independent studies

A meta-analysis statistically combines effect sizes from multiple studies on the same topic to estimate an overall effect and examine variability across studies.

Question 67: What is 'adverse impact' in employee selection?

A performance rating bias against older workers
Any test that is negatively correlated with job performance
When a selection procedure selects a substantially lower proportion of a protected group than the majority group (Correct answer)
An illegal interview question that causes distress

Correct answer: When a selection procedure selects a substantially lower proportion of a protected group than the majority group

Adverse impact occurs when a facially neutral selection practice results in disproportionately lower selection rates for a legally protected group, often assessed using the 4/5ths (80%) rule.

Question 68: Which brain structure serves as the primary relay station for sensory information (except olfaction) on its way to the cerebral cortex?

Thalamus (Correct answer)
Cerebellum
Hypothalamus
Basal ganglia

Correct answer: Thalamus

The thalamus routes sensory signals—visual, auditory, somatosensory, and gustatory—to the appropriate cortical areas, earning it the label of the brain's relay station.

Question 69: In APA-style reporting, what does a p-value of .03 indicate?

There is a 3% probability the results occurred by chance if H₀ is true (Correct answer)
The hypothesis was accepted
There is a 3% probability the effect is real
The effect size is small

Correct answer: There is a 3% probability the results occurred by chance if H₀ is true

A p-value of .03 means there is a 3% probability of obtaining results at least as extreme as observed if the null hypothesis were true.

Question 70: Which type of reliability refers to consistency of a measure across different raters?

Inter-rater reliability (Correct answer)
Parallel-forms reliability
Internal consistency
Test-retest reliability

Correct answer: Inter-rater reliability

Inter-rater reliability (also called inter-observer reliability) measures the degree to which different raters agree in their assessments or coding.

Question 71: Which feature distinguishes Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID) from other dissociative disorders?

Presence of two or more distinct personality states with recurrent amnesia between them (Correct answer)
Amnesia for past traumatic events
Persistent inability to recall autobiographical information
Feelings of detachment from one's own body

Correct answer: Presence of two or more distinct personality states with recurrent amnesia between them

DID is uniquely defined by the presence of two or more distinct personality states or 'alters,' accompanied by significant amnesia between states.

Question 72: What is 'workforce diversity training' designed to achieve in organizations?

Evaluate differences in employee performance across demographic groups
Increase the number of applicants for open positions
Reduce implicit biases and improve inclusion for members of underrepresented groups (Correct answer)
Train managers to enforce equal employment law compliance

Correct answer: Reduce implicit biases and improve inclusion for members of underrepresented groups

Diversity training aims to increase awareness of bias, improve cross-cultural competence, and foster inclusive behaviors to improve outcomes for underrepresented group members.

Question 73: Which research method is best suited to studying age-related changes across time by following the same group of participants?

Longitudinal study (Correct answer)
Cross-sequential study
Case study
Cross-sectional study

Correct answer: Longitudinal study

A longitudinal study follows the same cohort over time, allowing researchers to track genuine developmental changes in individuals.

Question 74: In signal detection theory, what is a 'hit'?

Correctly detecting a stimulus that is actually present (Correct answer)
Reporting a stimulus is present when it actually is absent
Failing to detect a present stimulus
Correctly rejecting an absent stimulus

Correct answer: Correctly detecting a stimulus that is actually present

In signal detection theory, a 'hit' occurs when an observer correctly identifies the presence of a signal when the signal is actually present.

Question 75: Which technique is often used in health psychology to help patients manage pain?

Hypnosis (Correct answer)
Genetic engineering
Chemotherapy
Radiotherapy

Correct answer: Hypnosis

Hypnosis is a therapeutic technique often employed by health psychologists to help patients manage pain, anxiety, and other symptoms associated with medical conditions. It involves guiding an individual into a focused, relaxed state where they are more receptive to suggestions for pain reduction, stress management, or coping strategies. Hypnosis can be an effective complementary therapy, particularly for chronic pain management.

Question 76: Which APA ethical principle requires psychologists to be honest and non-deceptive in their work?

Justice
Beneficence
Integrity (Correct answer)
Fidelity

Correct answer: Integrity

APA's ethical principle of Integrity calls for honesty, accuracy, and avoidance of fraud, deception, or misrepresentation in professional work.

Question 77: In Milgram's obedience studies, the majority of participants delivered shocks up to what voltage level?

200 volts
150 volts
450 volts (Correct answer)
300 volts

Correct answer: 450 volts

About 65% of Milgram's participants continued to the maximum 450-volt level when instructed by an authority figure, despite the learner's apparent distress.

Question 78: The cerebellum is primarily responsible for:

Controlling the circadian sleep-wake cycle
Regulating hunger, thirst, and body temperature
Processing emotional memories and fear responses
Coordinating voluntary movement, balance, and fine motor control (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Coordinating voluntary movement, balance, and fine motor control

The cerebellum integrates sensory feedback with motor commands to coordinate smooth, precise voluntary movements and maintain balance.

Question 79: Which term describes the process by which children incorporate new information into existing cognitive schemas?

Assimilation (Correct answer)
Accommodation
Conservation
Equilibration

Correct answer: Assimilation

Assimilation is Piaget's term for fitting new experiences into existing schemas without altering those schemas.

Question 80: Heritability estimates in behavioral genetics are best defined as:

The degree to which genetic factors override environmental influences for a trait
The percentage of a trait directly caused by an individual's genes
The proportion of trait variance in a population attributable to genetic differences (Correct answer)
The probability that a specific gene variant will be transmitted to offspring

Correct answer: The proportion of trait variance in a population attributable to genetic differences

Heritability is a population-level statistic describing what proportion of observed variation in a trait is accounted for by genetic variation; it does not indicate how much of the trait itself is genetic.

Question 81: According to Piaget, during which stage do children first develop object permanence?

Formal operational
Concrete operational
Preoperational
Sensorimotor (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Sensorimotor

Object permanence — the understanding that objects continue to exist when out of sight — develops during the sensorimotor stage (birth–2 years).

Question 82: Group polarization refers to the phenomenon where group discussion tends to:

Produce decisions midway between the most extreme positions
Moderate extreme views toward the average
Strengthen and amplify members' initial leanings (Correct answer)
Lead to groupthink and poor decision-making

Correct answer: Strengthen and amplify members' initial leanings

Group polarization is the finding that deliberating with like-minded others tends to push group members toward more extreme versions of their pre-discussion views.

Question 83: What is 'transfer of training' in the context of organizational learning and development?

Promoting trained employees to higher-level positions
Moving employees between departments to build new skills
Sharing training materials between different organizations
The degree to which skills learned in training are applied on the job (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The degree to which skills learned in training are applied on the job

Transfer of training is the extent to which trainees effectively apply what they learned in training to their actual job tasks and situations.

Question 84: Which brain structure is most critically associated with the consolidation of explicit long-term memories?

Amygdala
Cerebellum
Hippocampus (Correct answer)
Prefrontal cortex

Correct answer: Hippocampus

The hippocampus is essential for consolidating new explicit (declarative) memories; damage to it (as in patient H.M.) causes profound anterograde amnesia.

Question 85: Which therapy focuses on increasing a person's engagement in positively reinforcing activities to improve mood?

Systematic desensitization
Psychoanalysis
Hypnotherapy
Behavioral activation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Behavioral activation

Behavioral activation is a therapeutic technique that focuses on increasing a person's engagement in activities that are pleasurable or provide a sense of accomplishment. It is particularly effective for treating depression, as it helps break the cycle of withdrawal and inactivity that often exacerbates low mood. By encouraging participation in reinforcing activities, individuals can experience improved mood, energy, and overall well-being.

Question 86: Which term describes the tendency for raters to give all employees ratings clustered near the midpoint of a scale?

Recency effect
Leniency bias
Halo error
Central tendency error (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Central tendency error

Central tendency error occurs when raters avoid extreme ratings and assign everyone scores near the middle of the scale, reducing the ability to differentiate performance levels.

Question 87: Which assessment center technique requires candidates to sort and respond to a simulated set of memos, emails, and tasks as if they are on the job?

In-basket exercise (Correct answer)
Role-play simulation
Leaderless group discussion
Structured interview

Correct answer: In-basket exercise

The in-basket exercise simulates a manager's incoming work queue, requiring candidates to prioritize and respond to realistic job-related communications and tasks under time pressure.

Question 88: Action potentials in neurons follow the all-or-none principle, which means:

A neuron fires at full strength once threshold is reached, or not at all (Correct answer)
A neuron fires only when all synaptic inputs are excitatory
All neurons in a pathway fire simultaneously
Neural firing strength is proportional to stimulus intensity

Correct answer: A neuron fires at full strength once threshold is reached, or not at all

The all-or-none principle states that a neuron either fires at full strength when threshold is reached or does not fire; stimulus intensity is coded by firing rate, not action potential magnitude.

Question 89: Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) is primarily characterized by:

Pervasive instability in relationships, self-image, affect, and marked impulsivity (Correct answer)
Social detachment and restricted emotional expression
Persistent grandiosity and lack of empathy
Dramatic emotional expression and attention-seeking behavior

Correct answer: Pervasive instability in relationships, self-image, affect, and marked impulsivity

BPD is defined by intense fear of abandonment, unstable relationships, identity disturbance, impulsivity, and affective instability.

Question 90: Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) requires the presence of a depressive episode lasting at least:

1 month
6 months
2 weeks (Correct answer)
1 week

Correct answer: 2 weeks

DSM-5 requires depressive symptoms to be present most of the day, nearly every day, for at least 2 weeks to diagnose a major depressive episode.

Question 91: During REM (rapid eye movement) sleep, brain activity most closely resembles:

Stage 1 light non-REM sleep
A deeply meditative, resting state
Deep slow-wave sleep (Stage 3)
A waking, alert state (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A waking, alert state

EEG recordings during REM sleep show high-frequency, low-amplitude waves nearly identical to the waking state, which is why REM is often called paradoxical sleep.

Question 92: The 'diathesis-stress model' of psychopathology proposes that mental disorders arise from:

Environmental stressors alone
Learned helplessness from early childhood
Purely genetic factors
The interaction between a biological or psychological vulnerability and environmental stressors (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The interaction between a biological or psychological vulnerability and environmental stressors

The diathesis-stress model posits that disorders result from the combination of a predisposing vulnerability (diathesis) and precipitating stressors in the environment.

Question 93: What is the 'contact hypothesis' as proposed by Gordon Allport?

Under certain conditions, contact between groups reduces prejudice and intergroup conflict (Correct answer)
Contact only reduces bias when groups are completely equal in size
Group contact must be mediated by authority figures to be effective
Physical proximity always increases prejudice

Correct answer: Under certain conditions, contact between groups reduces prejudice and intergroup conflict

Allport's contact hypothesis proposes that prejudice can be reduced through intergroup contact, provided conditions of equal status, common goals, institutional support, and cooperation are met.

Question 94: What type of stress management technique might a health psychologist recommend?

Aerobic exercise (Correct answer)
Excessive screen time
Smoking
Isolation

Correct answer: Aerobic exercise

Aerobic exercise is a highly recommended and evidence-based stress management technique that health psychologists frequently suggest. Physical activity helps reduce stress hormones, improves mood through the release of endorphins, and enhances overall mental and physical well-being. Engaging in regular aerobic exercise is a healthy and effective way to cope with stress, unlike the other listed options which are detrimental to health.

Question 95: The process by which a neurotransmitter is transported back into the presynaptic neuron after release is called:

Reuptake (Correct answer)
Autoreception
Enzymatic degradation
Diffusion clearance

Correct answer: Reuptake

Reuptake is the primary mechanism by which neurotransmitters are removed from the synapse, with transporter proteins returning them to the presynaptic terminal for recycling.

Question 96: What is the primary focus of clinical psychology?

Promoting physical health
Diagnosing and treating mental disorders (Correct answer)
Studying animal behavior
Analyzing economic trends

Correct answer: Diagnosing and treating mental disorders

Clinical psychology is a specialized field within psychology dedicated to understanding, diagnosing, and treating mental, emotional, and behavioral disorders. Clinical psychologists apply scientific principles to assess psychological distress, formulate diagnoses, and implement evidence-based therapeutic interventions. Their primary work involves direct interaction with individuals experiencing mental health challenges to improve their well-being.

Question 97: The HPA (hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal) axis is primarily activated in response to:

Stress and perceived threats (Correct answer)
Reward and pleasurable experiences
Learning and declarative memory formation
Sleep deprivation alone

Correct answer: Stress and perceived threats

The HPA axis is the central stress response system; stressors trigger the hypothalamus to release CRH, which drives pituitary ACTH release, ultimately causing the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol.

Question 98: Which persuasion route in the Elaboration Likelihood Model involves deep processing of message content?

Central route (Correct answer)
Automatic route
Peripheral route
Heuristic route

Correct answer: Central route

The central route of the ELM involves careful, thoughtful evaluation of message arguments, leading to more enduring attitude change.

Question 99: Health psychologists often work with which of the following conditions?

Infectious diseases
Genetic disorders
All of the above
Chronic illnesses (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Chronic illnesses

Health psychologists frequently work with individuals who are managing chronic illnesses, such as diabetes, heart disease, cancer, and chronic pain. They provide psychological support to help patients cope with the emotional and practical challenges of these conditions, improve adherence to treatment regimens, manage stress, and enhance their overall quality of life. While they may address other conditions, chronic illness management is a core area of focus.

Question 100: Festinger's cognitive dissonance theory predicts that when attitudes and behaviors conflict, people will:

Experience tension and seek to reduce it by aligning attitudes or behaviors (Correct answer)
Seek social approval for their behavior
Ignore the inconsistency
Always change their behavior

Correct answer: Experience tension and seek to reduce it by aligning attitudes or behaviors

Cognitive dissonance creates psychological discomfort when cognitions conflict, motivating people to reduce the inconsistency by changing attitudes, behaviors, or perceptions.

Question 101: What is a Type I error in hypothesis testing?

Underestimating effect size
Using the wrong statistical test
Failing to reject a false null hypothesis
Rejecting a true null hypothesis (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Rejecting a true null hypothesis

A Type I error (false positive) occurs when a researcher rejects a null hypothesis that is actually true, with probability equal to alpha.

Question 102: Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP) is the first-line behavioral treatment for which disorder?

Schizophrenia
Borderline Personality Disorder
Major Depressive Disorder
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

ERP — exposing patients to feared stimuli while preventing compulsive responses — is the gold-standard behavioral treatment for OCD, supported by extensive evidence.

Question 103: Which memory system stores general knowledge and facts about the world, independent of personal experience?

Semantic memory (Correct answer)
Procedural memory
Working memory
Episodic memory

Correct answer: Semantic memory

Semantic memory is the long-term memory system that stores conceptual knowledge, facts, and word meanings that are not tied to specific personal experiences.

Question 104: What is the purpose of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM)?

To diagnose and classify mental disorders (Correct answer)
To provide physical health guidelines
To list medications for mental health
To analyze economic behavior

Correct answer: To diagnose and classify mental disorders

The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) serves as the authoritative guide for diagnosing and classifying mental disorders in the United States. Its primary purpose is to provide a standardized system and common language for mental health professionals. This ensures consistency in diagnosis, facilitates research, and guides appropriate treatment planning for various psychological conditions.

Question 105: What is 'deindividuation' in social psychology?

Formation of a unique individual identity
Conformity to group norms over time
Loss of self-awareness and personal responsibility in groups, often leading to impulsive behavior (Correct answer)
Increased self-awareness in crowds

Correct answer: Loss of self-awareness and personal responsibility in groups, often leading to impulsive behavior

Deindividuation occurs when anonymity and group immersion reduce self-monitoring and personal accountability, increasing the likelihood of norm-violating behavior.

Question 106: What is the primary purpose of a job analysis in I-O psychology?

Evaluating employee performance after hiring
Systematically collecting information about tasks, duties, and competencies required for a job (Correct answer)
Designing compensation and benefits packages
Assessing organizational culture

Correct answer: Systematically collecting information about tasks, duties, and competencies required for a job

Job analysis is the foundation of I-O practice, providing systematic information about job duties, required KSAOs (knowledge, skills, abilities, other characteristics), and working conditions.

Question 107: The 'misinformation effect' demonstrated by Loftus refers to:

Forgetting factual information over time
Inability to encode new memories after stress
Confusing the source of a memory
Post-event information altering one's memory of an original event (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Post-event information altering one's memory of an original event

Loftus showed that exposure to misleading post-event information (e.g., in leading questions) can alter people's memories of the original event.

Question 108: Which of the following is a primary ethical guideline for clinical psychologists?

Prescribing medications without consent
Maximizing profits
Ensuring client confidentiality (Correct answer)
Avoiding all client interactions

Correct answer: Ensuring client confidentiality

Ensuring client confidentiality is a cornerstone of ethical practice for clinical psychologists. This ethical guideline mandates that all information shared by clients during therapy sessions must be kept private and not disclosed to others without explicit consent. Maintaining confidentiality builds trust, fosters a safe therapeutic environment, and is crucial for effective psychological treatment, with limited exceptions for safety concerns.

Question 109: Which attachment style, identified by Ainsworth, is characterized by distress at separation and resistance to comfort upon reunion?

Secure attachment
Anxious-avoidant attachment
Anxious-ambivalent (resistant) attachment (Correct answer)
Disorganized attachment

Correct answer: Anxious-ambivalent (resistant) attachment

Anxious-ambivalent (resistant) infants are highly distressed when separated and then both seek and resist comfort from the caregiver upon reunion.

Question 110: Which cognitive phenomenon explains why people often overestimate how much they knew about an event before it occurred?

The misinformation effect
Hindsight bias (Correct answer)
Reconstructive memory
Source monitoring error

Correct answer: Hindsight bias

Hindsight bias (the 'I knew it all along' phenomenon) is the tendency to perceive past outcomes as having been predictable once those outcomes are known.

Question 111: According to APA guidelines, which correlation coefficient magnitude is typically considered 'large'?

.10
.70 or above (Correct answer)
.50
.30

Correct answer: .70 or above

Cohen's conventions define a large correlation as r ≥ .50, with many researchers treating .70+ as clearly large.

Question 112: Which area of health psychology focuses on helping individuals change unhealthy behaviors?

Behavioral medicine (Correct answer)
Neuropsychology
Clinical health psychology
Community psychology

Correct answer: Behavioral medicine

Behavioral medicine is a specialized area within health psychology that focuses on the integration of behavioral and biomedical sciences to prevent, treat, and rehabilitate illness. This field specifically emphasizes helping individuals change unhealthy behaviors, such as smoking, poor diet, or sedentary lifestyles, to improve health outcomes and prevent disease. It applies behavioral principles to medical conditions.

Question 113: What is 'temperament' in developmental psychology?

The cognitive stage a child has reached
A learned pattern of emotional responses
Biologically-based individual differences in reactivity and self-regulation (Correct answer)
A child's attachment style

Correct answer: Biologically-based individual differences in reactivity and self-regulation

Temperament refers to innate, relatively stable individual differences in emotional reactivity, activity level, and self-regulation that appear early in life.

Question 114: Which therapeutic approach emphasizes the role of unconscious processes and childhood experiences in behavior?

Humanistic therapy
Cognitive-behavioral therapy
Behavioral therapy
Psychodynamic therapy (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Psychodynamic therapy

Psychodynamic therapy, stemming from Freudian psychoanalysis, places significant emphasis on the role of unconscious processes and early childhood experiences in shaping an individual's personality and behavior. This therapeutic approach aims to help clients gain insight into these hidden dynamics and unresolved conflicts. By exploring past experiences and their impact, individuals can better understand and address current psychological difficulties.

Question 115: Which concept describes the tendency for people to conform to the behavior of others in ambiguous situations?

Informational social influence (Correct answer)
Group polarization
Social loafing
Normative social influence

Correct answer: Informational social influence

Informational social influence occurs when people look to others for guidance about correct behavior when they are uncertain about what to do.

Question 116: What does 'scaffolding' mean in the context of Vygotsky's theory?

Temporary support provided by a more skilled person to help a learner succeed (Correct answer)
Structuring a classroom environment
Breaking tasks into developmental stages
Testing a child's independent capabilities

Correct answer: Temporary support provided by a more skilled person to help a learner succeed

Scaffolding is the adjustable support given by a teacher or peer that is gradually withdrawn as the learner becomes more competent.

Question 117: Which research design allows researchers to establish cause-and-effect relationships between variables?

True experiment (Correct answer)
Correlational study
Case study
Naturalistic observation

Correct answer: True experiment

True experiments use random assignment and manipulation of an independent variable, which is the only design that allows causal conclusions.

Question 118: Which therapy approach, developed by Marsha Linehan, is specifically designed for Borderline Personality Disorder?

Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT) (Correct answer)
Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT)
Acceptance and Commitment Therapy (ACT)
Schema Therapy

Correct answer: Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT)

DBT combines cognitive-behavioral techniques with mindfulness and acceptance strategies and was specifically developed by Linehan to treat BPD and chronic suicidality.

Question 119: What diagnostic category in the DSM-5 includes anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, and binge-eating disorder?

Feeding and Eating Disorders (Correct answer)
Somatic Symptom Disorders
Impulse-Control Disorders
Mood Disorders

Correct answer: Feeding and Eating Disorders

DSM-5 groups anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, binge-eating disorder, and related conditions under the 'Feeding and Eating Disorders' chapter.

Question 120: What is 'in-group favoritism' in social identity theory?

Helping only family members in emergencies
Bias toward one's own group and its members over out-groups (Correct answer)
Trusting authority figures within one's group
Preference for famous individuals over one's peers

Correct answer: Bias toward one's own group and its members over out-groups

In-group favoritism is the tendency to give preferential treatment and more positive evaluations to members of one's own social group compared to out-group members.

Question 121: Which phenomenon occurs when information learned prior to an event disrupts memory for that event?

Retroactive interference
Encoding failure
Proactive interference (Correct answer)
State-dependent memory

Correct answer: Proactive interference

Proactive interference occurs when older, previously learned information interferes with the retention of newer information.

Question 122: What is 'functional fixedness' in problem solving?

Bias toward solutions that worked in the past
Difficulty switching attention between tasks
A mental set that prevents seeing objects as having uses beyond their typical function (Correct answer)
The inability to solve ill-defined problems

Correct answer: A mental set that prevents seeing objects as having uses beyond their typical function

Functional fixedness is a cognitive bias that limits a person to using objects only in the way they are traditionally used, blocking creative problem-solving.

Question 123: The 'bystander effect' was famously studied after which real-world event?

The Asch conformity experiments
The Milgram obedience study
The murder of Kitty Genovese (Correct answer)
The Stanford Prison Experiment

Correct answer: The murder of Kitty Genovese

Darley and Latané developed the bystander effect concept partly in response to the 1964 Kitty Genovese murder, where multiple witnesses allegedly failed to intervene.

Question 124: Broca's area, located in the left inferior frontal gyrus, is primarily associated with:

Processing auditory frequency information
Understanding spoken language
Production and articulation of speech (Correct answer)
Visual word recognition and reading

Correct answer: Production and articulation of speech

Broca's area is critical for speech production; damage results in Broca's (expressive) aphasia, characterized by halting, effortful speech with relatively preserved comprehension.

Question 125: A researcher measures anxiety before and after a treatment in the same group. Which statistical test is most appropriate?

Chi-square test
Independent-samples t-test
One-way ANOVA
Paired-samples t-test (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Paired-samples t-test

The paired-samples (dependent) t-test compares means from two related measurements taken from the same participants.

Question 126: Which of the following is a key concept in health psychology related to understanding patient behaviors?

Health belief model (Correct answer)
Psychodynamic theory
Operant conditioning
Classical conditioning

Correct answer: Health belief model

The Health Belief Model is a prominent theoretical framework in health psychology used to understand and predict individuals' health-related behaviors. It posits that a person's likelihood of engaging in a health behavior depends on their perceptions of susceptibility to an illness, its severity, the benefits of taking action, and the barriers to action. This model guides the development of interventions aimed at promoting healthy choices and preventing disease.

Question 127: Which developmental milestone typically occurs first in infant motor development?

Walking independently
Sitting without support
Rolling over (Correct answer)
Standing with help

Correct answer: Rolling over

Rolling over (around 3–4 months) precedes sitting without support (~6 months), standing with help (~8 months), and walking (~12 months) in typical motor development.

Question 128: What is the role of a health psychologist in a hospital setting?

Prescribing medications
Providing psychological support to patients and staff (Correct answer)
Performing surgeries
Conducting laboratory research

Correct answer: Providing psychological support to patients and staff

In a hospital setting, health psychologists play a crucial role in providing psychological support to both patients and staff. They help patients cope with the emotional impact of illness, injury, and medical procedures, offering counseling and stress management techniques. Additionally, they support healthcare staff in managing stress and burnout, contributing to a more holistic and supportive care environment.

Question 129: According to the biopsychosocial model, which of the following factors influence health?

Biological
Psychological
Social
All of the above (Correct answer)

Correct answer: All of the above

The biopsychosocial model is a comprehensive framework in health psychology that recognizes that health and illness are influenced by a dynamic interaction of biological, psychological, and social factors. Biological factors include genetics and physiology, psychological factors encompass thoughts, emotions, and behaviors, and social factors involve cultural influences, family, and community. Therefore, all these components collectively contribute to an individual's health status.

Question 130: The hypothalamus plays a critical role in:

Regulating homeostasis and controlling the pituitary gland (Correct answer)
Speech production and language comprehension
Coordinating fine voluntary motor movements
Processing complex abstract reasoning and planning

Correct answer: Regulating homeostasis and controlling the pituitary gland

The hypothalamus regulates homeostatic functions (temperature, hunger, thirst, circadian rhythms) and controls the pituitary gland, making it the key link between the nervous system and endocrine system.

Question 131: What is 'conservation' in Piaget's theory?

Classifying objects into hierarchical categories
The ability to reverse mental operations
Recognizing that quantity stays the same despite changes in appearance (Correct answer)
Understanding that objects persist when hidden

Correct answer: Recognizing that quantity stays the same despite changes in appearance

Conservation is the understanding that properties like volume, number, and mass remain constant even when the physical appearance of an object changes.

Question 132: The Stanford Prison Experiment conducted by Zimbardo was halted early primarily because:

Participants could not remember their assigned roles
Guards exhibited extreme abusive behavior toward prisoners (Correct answer)
The experimental design was flawed
Participants refused to continue

Correct answer: Guards exhibited extreme abusive behavior toward prisoners

The Stanford Prison Experiment was stopped after 6 days (of the planned 14) because guards had become increasingly abusive and prisoners showed signs of severe psychological distress.

Question 133: Which neurotransmitter is most associated with the monoamine hypothesis of depression?

Acetylcholine
Dopamine
GABA
Serotonin (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Serotonin

The monoamine hypothesis of depression focuses primarily on serotonin (and norepinephrine) deficiencies, which led to the development of SSRIs as a treatment.

Question 134: Which motivational theory proposes that employees are motivated by the expectation that effort will lead to performance, which will lead to valued outcomes?

Goal-setting theory
Expectancy theory (Vroom) (Correct answer)
Two-factor theory
Equity theory

Correct answer: Expectancy theory (Vroom)

Vroom's expectancy theory states that motivation is a function of three beliefs: effort leads to performance (expectancy), performance leads to outcomes (instrumentality), and outcomes are valued (valence).

Question 135: In the DSM-5, Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is characterized by excessive anxiety and worry occurring more days than not for at least:

3 months
1 year
1 month
6 months (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 6 months

GAD requires persistent, excessive worry about multiple topics for at least 6 months, along with associated physical and cognitive symptoms.

Question 136: Which selection method has consistently shown the highest validity for predicting job performance across a wide range of jobs?

Personality inventories
General cognitive ability (GCA) tests (Correct answer)
Reference checks
Unstructured interviews

Correct answer: General cognitive ability (GCA) tests

Meta-analytic research (Schmidt & Hunter, 1998) demonstrates that general cognitive ability tests have the highest validity coefficients for predicting job performance across occupations.

Question 137: Which neuroimaging technique measures brain activity by detecting changes in blood oxygenation levels (the BOLD signal)?

PET (positron emission tomography) scan
fMRI (functional magnetic resonance imaging) (Correct answer)
CT (computed tomography) scan
EEG (electroencephalography)

Correct answer: fMRI (functional magnetic resonance imaging)

fMRI measures the Blood Oxygen Level Dependent (BOLD) signal, mapping neural activity by detecting hemodynamic responses to increased oxygen demand in active brain regions.

Question 138: Harlow's studies with rhesus monkeys demonstrated that infant attachment is primarily based on:

Vocalizations from the caregiver
Food provision
Contact comfort (Correct answer)
Visual stimulation

Correct answer: Contact comfort

Harlow's monkeys preferred the cloth 'mother' that provided comfort over the wire 'mother' that provided food, showing contact comfort drives attachment.

Question 139: What is 'elaborative rehearsal' and why is it more effective than maintenance rehearsal?

Visualizing information; effective because of dual coding
Repeating information aloud; effective because of auditory processing
Repetition of information at intervals; effective because of spacing
Connecting new information to existing knowledge; effective because it creates deeper encoding (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Connecting new information to existing knowledge; effective because it creates deeper encoding

Elaborative rehearsal involves linking new material to existing memories and giving it meaning, creating a deeper level of processing that enhances long-term retention.

Question 140: What is the 'representativeness heuristic'?

Choosing the most recent information available
Using an anchor value and adjusting estimates from it
Judging likelihood based on ease of recall
Judging probability by how closely something matches a prototype or stereotype (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Judging probability by how closely something matches a prototype or stereotype

The representativeness heuristic leads people to judge the probability of an event by how similar it is to a typical case, ignoring base rates.

Question 141: Which concept from Bem's self-perception theory suggests people infer their own attitudes by observing their behavior?

Self-attribution (Correct answer)
Cognitive dissonance
Social comparison
Behavioral observation

Correct answer: Self-attribution

Bem's self-perception theory holds that people, especially when internal cues are weak, infer their attitudes and emotions by observing and attributing meaning to their own behavior.

Question 142: Which factor is most strongly associated with interpersonal attraction, according to social psychology research?

Physical proximity (propinquity) (Correct answer)
Extraverted temperament
Opposite personalities
High socioeconomic status

Correct answer: Physical proximity (propinquity)

Propinquity (physical or functional proximity) is one of the strongest predictors of attraction and friendship formation because repeated contact increases familiarity.

Question 143: Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is primarily responsible for processing visual information?

Temporal lobe
Occipital lobe (Correct answer)
Frontal lobe
Parietal lobe

Correct answer: Occipital lobe

The occipital lobe, located at the posterior (back) of the brain, contains the primary visual cortex (V1) and is dedicated to processing visual information.

Question 144: Which neurotransmitter is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system?

Glutamate
Norepinephrine
GABA (Correct answer)
Acetylcholine

Correct answer: GABA

GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) is the principal inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS, reducing neuronal excitability throughout the brain and spinal cord.

Question 145: According to Aaron Beck, depression is maintained by a 'cognitive triad' of negative views about:

Emotions, cognitions, and behaviors
The self, the world, and the future (Correct answer)
Childhood, relationships, and work
The past, present, and body image

Correct answer: The self, the world, and the future

Beck's cognitive triad describes negative automatic thoughts about oneself (worthless), the world (unfair/hostile), and the future (hopeless) as core features of depression.

Question 146: Which model of working memory, developed by Baddeley, includes a central executive, phonological loop, and visuospatial sketchpad?

Baddeley's multicomponent working memory model (Correct answer)
Multi-store model
Parallel distributed processing model
Levels of processing model

Correct answer: Baddeley's multicomponent working memory model

Baddeley's model replaces the concept of a single short-term store with multiple specialized components: a phonological loop, visuospatial sketchpad, episodic buffer, and central executive.

Question 147: Maslow's hierarchy of needs places which need at the apex of the pyramid?

Belongingness needs
Self-actualization (Correct answer)
Esteem needs
Safety needs

Correct answer: Self-actualization

The top of Maslow's hierarchy is self-actualization — the drive to realize one's full potential and pursue intrinsic growth and meaning.

Question 148: Myelin sheaths surrounding axons primarily serve to:

Increase the speed of neural transmission (Correct answer)
Provide direct nutrients to the neuron cell body
Prevent action potentials from occurring at the nodes of Ranvier
Store and release neurotransmitters

Correct answer: Increase the speed of neural transmission

Myelin sheaths insulate axons and enable saltatory conduction—the jumping of action potentials between nodes—dramatically increasing neural transmission speed.

Question 149: Which population might health psychologists target with public health campaigns?

All age groups (Correct answer)
Only children
Only athletes
Only elderly adults

Correct answer: All age groups

Health psychologists design and implement public health campaigns that target all age groups, recognizing that health promotion and disease prevention are relevant across the entire lifespan. These campaigns address various health issues pertinent to different developmental stages, such as promoting healthy eating in children, preventing substance abuse in adolescents, or managing chronic diseases in older adults. Their goal is to improve health outcomes for the entire population.

Question 150: Which concept describes the psychological contract between employees and employers?

A performance improvement plan outlining expectations
A union bargaining agreement regarding pay and conditions
Employees' beliefs about mutual obligations between themselves and the organization (Correct answer)
A formal written employment agreement detailing all job duties

Correct answer: Employees' beliefs about mutual obligations between themselves and the organization

The psychological contract refers to employees' implicit beliefs about reciprocal obligations — what the employee owes the organization and what the organization owes in return.

Question 151: What does 'statistical power' measure in a research study?

The size of the sample collected
The probability of making a Type I error
The probability of detecting a true effect when it exists (Correct answer)
The variance explained by the model

Correct answer: The probability of detecting a true effect when it exists

Statistical power is the probability that a study will correctly reject a false null hypothesis, i.e., detect a real effect when one exists.

Examination for Professional Practice in Psychology (EPPP)

The EPPP is the standardized licensure exam for psychologists in the U.S. and Canada, assessing knowledge across eight core domains required for safe and competent professional practice. It is administered by ASPPB on behalf of 66 jurisdictional licensing boards.

225

Questions

255 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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