AMLS Neurological Emergencies 2

Question 1

A diabetic patient presents with altered mental status, diaphoresis, and tachycardia. Blood glucose is 38 mg/dL. What is the priority treatment?

Accepted Answer

IV dextrose 50% (D50) 25 g

Answer

IV D50 is the fastest and most effective treatment for symptomatic hypoglycemia in a patient with IV access.

Question 2

Which AMLS assessment finding is most consistent with a lesion in the brainstem?

Accepted Answer

Abnormal respiratory patterns and cranial nerve deficits

Answer

Brainstem lesions typically cause abnormal respiratory patterns, cranial nerve deficits, and altered consciousness due to the reticular activating system.

Question 3

What does a GCS score of 8 or less indicate regarding airway management?

Accepted Answer

The patient likely cannot protect their airway and may need intubation

Answer

A GCS of 8 or less is a widely used threshold indicating inability to protect the airway and is an indication for intubation.

Question 4

Which medication is first-line for treatment of benzodiazepine-responsive seizures in the prehospital and emergency setting?

Accepted Answer

Lorazepam IV or midazolam IM

Answer

Benzodiazepines such as lorazepam IV or midazolam IM are first-line agents for acute seizure termination.

Question 5

Wernicke's encephalopathy is classically caused by a deficiency of which vitamin?

Accepted Answer

Thiamine (B1)

Answer

Wernicke's encephalopathy results from thiamine (B1) deficiency, commonly seen in alcoholism, and presents with the classic triad of ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, and confusion.

AMLS - Advanced Medical Life Support Practice Test

AMLS - Advanced Medical Life Support Practice Test

AMLS Neurological Emergencies 2