AMLS Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield AMLS facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. What does a GCS score of 8 or less indicate regarding airway management? → The patient likely cannot protect their airway and may need intubation
2. Which electrolyte abnormality can cause a prolonged QT interval and increase the risk of Torsades de Pointes? → Hypomagnesemia
3. Which medication is most commonly used for sedation during RSI prior to neuromuscular blockade? → Ketamine or etomidate
4. What is the main treatment option for patients with asthma? → Inhaled corticosteroids
5. Which toxidrome is characterized by miosis, bradycardia, excessive secretions, and bronchospasm? → Cholinergic toxidrome (organophosphate poisoning)
6. Which vasopressor is preferred in cardiogenic shock when systolic BP is below 70 mmHg? → Norepinephrine
7. Which Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale finding indicates facial droop? → One side of the face does not move as well as the other side
8. What is the target mean arterial pressure (MAP) in septic shock management per Surviving Sepsis guidelines? → 65 mmHg or greater
9. What is the recommended tidal volume for ventilated patients to prevent ventilator-induced lung injury? → 6–8 mL/kg ideal body weight
10. Which symptom cluster best describes normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH)? → Gait disturbance, urinary incontinence, and dementia
11. What is the treatment for organophosphate poisoning causing SLUDGE symptoms? → Atropine and pralidoxime (2-PAM)
12. Which vasopressor is the recommended first-line agent for septic shock? → Norepinephrine
13. Which finding is most suggestive of obstructive shock due to massive pulmonary embolism? → Right heart strain on ECG with hypoxia and tachycardia
14. What hemodynamic profile characterizes neurogenic shock following spinal cord injury? → Hypotension with bradycardia and warm skin
15. What is the LEMON law mnemonic used for in airway management? → Predicting difficult laryngoscopy and intubation
16. What is the primary goal of early reperfusion therapy in STEMI management? → Restore coronary blood flow to salvage myocardium
17. Which factor increases the risk of developing a pulmonary embolism? → Sedentary lifestyle
18. What is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose? → N-acetylcysteine (NAC)
19. What technique is recommended when performing BVM ventilation to optimize mask seal and airway patency? → Two-person technique with E-C clamp grip and jaw thrust
20. What is the first step in a patient assessment? → Performing a scene size-up
21. What is the significance of a serum lactate greater than 4 mmol/L in a shock patient? → Indicates severe tissue hypoperfusion and high mortality risk
22. Which crystalloid is considered the preferred initial resuscitation fluid in hemorrhagic shock? → Normal saline (0.9% NaCl)
23. Which finding on the AMLS primary survey is most concerning for spinal cord injury at the C3-C5 level? → Diaphragmatic breathing with loss of intercostal muscle function
24. Which rhythm is most commonly the initial rhythm seen in sudden cardiac arrest due to cardiac etiology? → Ventricular fibrillation
25. A conscious diabetic patient is found with a blood glucose of 52 mg/dL and mild confusion. Which is the most appropriate initial treatment? → 15-20 grams of fast-acting oral carbohydrates
26. Which AMLS assessment finding is most consistent with a lesion in the brainstem? → Abnormal respiratory patterns and cranial nerve deficits
27. Which ECG finding is most consistent with an acute ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) in the inferior leads? → ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF
28. A patient with chest pain has a 12-lead ECG showing new left bundle branch block. How should this be managed? → Treat as STEMI equivalent and activate cath lab
29. Decerebrate posturing in a comatose patient indicates injury at which neurological level? → At or below the midbrain (diencephalon to brainstem)
30. A widened QRS complex and sodium channel blockade are hallmarks of toxicity from which drug class? → Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)