ABFM Assessment and Evaluation 5

Question 1

A 40-year-old asymptomatic woman with no family history undergoes colorectal cancer screening. She prefers a non-invasive test. Which option is a USPSTF-recommended non-invasive screening modality?

Accepted Answer

Both B and C are recommended options

Answer

USPSTF recommends multiple non-invasive options including annual gFOBT, CT colonography every 5 years, and FIT-DNA every 1–3 years for average-risk adults aged 45–75.

Question 2

A researcher reports a relative risk reduction (RRR) of 50% for a new statin therapy. The control group's event rate is 4%. What is the absolute risk reduction (ARR)?

Accepted Answer

2%

Answer

ARR = Control event rate × RRR = 4% × 50% = 2%; understanding ARR avoids overestimating benefit from RRR alone.

Question 3

Which validated tool is recommended for assessing fall risk in community-dwelling older adults during an annual wellness visit?

Accepted Answer

Timed Up and Go (TUG) test

Answer

The TUG test is a simple, validated measure of functional mobility and fall risk, with >12 seconds indicating elevated risk.

Question 4

In a study, the number needed to treat (NNT) for a medication to prevent one myocardial infarction is 50 over 5 years. How should this be communicated to a patient?

Accepted Answer

50 patients must take the drug for 5 years for one to benefit

Answer

NNT means that 50 patients must be treated for 5 years for one additional MI to be prevented compared to no treatment.

Question 5

A 28-year-old woman presents with new-onset headaches. Red flags ('SNOOP' criteria) that warrant urgent neuroimaging include which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Headache that wakes the patient from sleep and is the 'worst of life'

Answer

A thunderclap 'worst-of-life' headache is a red flag suggesting subarachnoid hemorrhage and mandates immediate imaging.

(ABFM) American Board of Family Medicine Practice Test

(ABFM) American Board of Family Medicine Practice Test

ABFM Assessment and Evaluation 5