ABA Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield ABA facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. What is the primary reason double-gloves are recommended during high-risk surgical procedures? → They reduce outer glove perforation-related blood exposure by approximately 87%
2. Which measure is MOST effective in reducing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) risk in the ICU? → Head-of-bed elevation to 30-45 degrees
3. Propofol's antiemetic properties are thought to be due to: → Inhibition of dopamine release in the chemoreceptor trigger zone
4. A patient with active pulmonary tuberculosis requires emergency surgery. Which respiratory precaution is MOST appropriate for the OR team? → N95 respirators with fit-testing for all personnel
5. Which antiseptic is PREFERRED for central venous catheter insertion site preparation due to its superior residual activity? → Chlorhexidine gluconate 2% with 70% isopropyl alcohol
6. A patient receiving neuraxial anesthesia develops a total spinal block. Which hemodynamic change is most immediately life-threatening? → Severe hypotension with bradycardia
7. Which scenario represents a boundary violation in the anesthesiologist-patient relationship? → Initiating a romantic relationship with a former patient shortly after discharge
8. Which airway management device provides the best protection against pulmonary aspiration of gastric contents? → Cuffed endotracheal tube (ETT)
9. Which ultrasound safety technique is MOST effective at reducing the risk of intravascular injection during nerve blocks? → All of the above combined
10. Epinephrine is added to local anesthetic solutions primarily to: → Cause vasoconstriction, reducing systemic absorption and prolonging block duration
11. What is the purpose of crisis management training in anesthesiology? → Enhances emergency response and patient safety
12. What is a requirement for MOCA participation? → Periodic assessments and patient safety activities
13. What is the maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine for peripheral nerve block in a 70 kg adult? → 4.5 mg/kg (315 mg)
14. The treatment for local anesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) with cardiac arrest includes which unique pharmacologic agent? → 20% Intralipid 1.5 mL/kg IV bolus
15. Which assessment is commonly used for credential maintenance? → MOCA (Maintenance of Certification in Anesthesiology)
16. According to standard fire safety protocols in the OR, which triad of conditions creates a surgical fire? → Fuel, oxidizer, and ignition source
17. Which parameter is MOST useful for assessing depth of neuromuscular blockade during a cisatracurium infusion? → Post-tetanic count
18. Which category of CME is specifically required within the 100-credit MOCA 2.0 CME requirement? → No specific sub-category is mandated
19. What is the fee structure implication if an ABA diplomate allows their certificate to lapse before re-engaging with MOCA 2.0? → A reinstatement fee is charged in addition to standard MOCA fees
20. Which organization jointly administers the ABA APPLIED Exam logistics? → National Board of Medical Examiners (NBME)
21. A patient develops a tension pneumothorax during positive-pressure ventilation. Where is the correct needle decompression site? → Second intercostal space, midclavicular line
22. Which of the following is the MOST important factor in preventing perioperative peripheral nerve injuries (PNIs) related to patient positioning? → Ensuring that joints are not placed at the extreme of their normal range of motion
23. A celiac plexus block for pancreatic cancer pain interrupts pain signals traveling through which structure? → Splanchnic nerves via the celiac ganglion
24. The MAC of a volatile anesthetic is defined as the alveolar concentration at which: → 50% of patients do not move in response to a surgical incision
25. What does the acronym AED stand for? → Automated External Defibrillator
26. Which feature of the preoperative history is most predictive of a difficult laryngoscopy independent of Mallampati score? → History of prior difficult intubation
27. During a 'time-out' procedure prior to surgery, which of the following is a core component according to The Joint Commission? → Confirmation of correct patient, site, and procedure
28. A patient with a latex allergy is scheduled for surgery. Which precaution is MOST important in the anesthesia setup? → Ensure a latex-free environment including all equipment and gloves
29. Which pharmacokinetic parameter best predicts the duration of action of a single bolus dose of a highly lipophilic drug like thiopental? → Volume of distribution
30. Which of the following best describes the significance of a STOP-BANG score of 5 or greater in a preoperative patient? → High risk for obstructive sleep apnea requiring perioperative precautions