AANP Infectious Disease 5

Question 1

Per IDSA/SHEA guidelines, which agent is no longer recommended as first-line therapy for an initial episode of Clostridioides difficile infection in adults when alternatives are available?

Accepted Answer

Oral metronidazole

Answer

Metronidazole is now reserved for nonsevere cases only when fidaxomicin and oral vancomycin are unavailable.

Question 2

A healthy adult has nonpurulent cellulitis of the lower leg without systemic signs. What is the most appropriate oral antibiotic?

Accepted Answer

Cephalexin

Answer

Nonpurulent cellulitis is usually streptococcal, so a beta-lactam such as cephalexin is first-line.

Question 3

A patient has a 3-cm fluctuant abscess with surrounding erythema in a community with high MRSA prevalence. What is the best management?

Accepted Answer

Incision and drainage plus trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

Answer

Purulent skin infections require incision and drainage, with MRSA-active antibiotics such as TMP-SMX or doxycycline when indicated.

Question 4

A 40-year-old presents 6 hours after a cat bite to the hand. Which antibiotic is preferred for prophylaxis?

Accepted Answer

Amoxicillin-clavulanate

Answer

Amoxicillin-clavulanate covers Pasteurella multocida, anaerobes, and staphylococci common in cat bite wounds.

Question 5

An adult who completed a primary tetanus series has a deep puncture wound contaminated with soil; his last tetanus booster was 6 years ago. What is indicated?

Accepted Answer

Td or Tdap booster

Answer

For dirty wounds, a booster is indicated if more than 5 years have passed since the last dose in a fully immunized patient.

AANP - American Association of Nurse Practitioners Practice Test

AANP - American Association of Nurse Practitioners Practice Test

AANP Infectious Disease 5