FREE NAVLE Exam MCQ Question and Answers
Following a bilateral thyroidectomy, a 11-year-old female domestic shorthair cat is released from the hospital. The patient is reevaluated two days later due to panting, agitation, and a recent seizure. Which postoperative complication is most likely to account for these clinical symptoms?
Explanation:
The most serious and potentially deadly side effect of bilateral thyroidectomy is hypoparathyroidism, which results in hypocalcemia. It happens when the parathyroid gland is accidentally removed or damaged during surgery. The majority of animals don't show any clinical symptoms until their serum calcium levels drop below 7.5 mg/dL, which typically happens 2 to 4 days after surgery. Patients will now start to exhibit symptoms like seizures, lack of appetite, ataxia, lethargy, and restlessness.
In llamas, the most typical source of bony facial tumors is
Explanation:
The most typical cause of face edema in llamas is tooth root abscesses. They typically affect the mandibular PM1, M1, and M2 teeth, as well as the canines, incisors, and maxillary teeth less frequently. This condition shows itself as a bulge that is growing and sporadically drained of pus. To confirm where the swelling is coming from, radiographs are required. The affected teeth must be extracted, and the empty socket must be curettage.
Which of the following organisms is most frequently present in feline pyometra?
Explanation:
Pyometra is brought on by frequent progesterone exposure in the uterus and a subsequent vaginal infection by opportunistic microorganisms (E.coli). The uterine endometrial glands swell and secrete a lot of fluids and secretions under the influence of progesterone, which provides the perfect conditions for bacterial growth and subsequent infection.
A dog that has been struck by a car typically has non-weight-bearing foreleg lameness. Physical examination reveals no fractures that can be felt. Without any movement or pain, the limb simply hangs there. It is also discovered that the dog has Horner's syndrome. What medical condition is most likely to account for these exam results?
Explanation:
The brachial plexus is made up of the ventral branches of the C6–8, T1-2, and spinal nerves. The spinal nerve roots get extensively stretched or ripped within the spinal canal when the thoracic limb is substantially abducted from the body, typically as a result of serious trauma. This causes full or partial paralysis of the affected limb. The Horner syndrome is caused by damage to these spinal cord nerve roots because it impairs sympathetic innervation of the eye (on the same side as the injured forelimb) (miotic pupil, enophthalmos, ptosis, and protrusion of the third eyelid).
The 3-day history of moderate to severe episodes of left-sided epistaxis in a male fjord pony, 19, is evaluated. The pony is quiet, attentive, and receptive when presented. The rectal temperature was 101 degrees Fahrenheit, the heart rate is 60, and the respiration rate is 40. The total protein level is 6.5 g/dL, and the hematocrit is 31%. Airflow through each nostril is not especially restricted, and there is no sign of damage or swelling over the head's sinus area. Which of the following diagnostic procedures will give the most accurate results to support an assumed diagnosis?
Explanation:
The ethmoids, guttural pouches, sinuses, and trachea will all benefit from endoscopic evaluation in order to reveal the most pertinent information about this patient's epistaxis. The upper respiratory tract can be examined during an endoscopy to determine the cause of the bleeding and/or the existence of ethmoid hematomas, tumors, inflammatory lesions, and fungal plaques. The further tests stated above may be recommended to further assess the condition that is the source of the epistaxis once the etiology has been established. Radiographs, for instance, can show whether an ethmoid hematoma has spread to the surrounding paranasal sinuses.
After falling from a 25-foot cliff, a 6-year-old corgi develops opisthotonus, thoracic limb hyperextension, and rear limb paraplegia. Which of the following is the lesion's most likely location?
Explanation:
This patient's Schiff-Sherrington syndrome-related posture suggests a serious spinal cord lesion somewhere between T3 and L3. The lumbar spinal cord contains inhibitory neurons known as border cells that are responsible for this process (L1-L7). These neurons' cranial axons reach the cervical intumescence. Border cell axons impede tonic inhibition to the thoracic limbs, causing forelimb hyperextension, if a lesion is present cranial to the border cells and caudal to the cervical intumescence.
A 7-year-old jersey cow is examined for an irregular pelvic gait that began in the right hind leg a month ago but has already spread to the left limb. She mated with a bull last month, the dairy farmer mentions. The cow can move her pelvic limbs forward, but she does it with a dorsally buckled metatarsophalangeal joint and an excessively flexed (dropping) tarsus. On all of the surfaces of the pelvic limbs, pain perception was normal. Anal tone and tail function were both normal. Which of the following nerves' malfunction is the cause of these physical examination results?
Explanation:
When a cow is mounted by a bull, the most frequent injury that results in these clinical indications is a fracture of the sacrum or caudal vertebrae, which is followed by trauma to the tibial nerve. Depending on which vertebrae are affected, the symptoms may simply affect the pelvic limbs or more frequently involve the tail, anus, and urethra and cause incontinence of the urine and/or feces. Only the first 2 sacral nerves in this patient were damaged, which led to tibial nerve dysfunction. The extensor muscles of the pelvic limb are innervated by the tibial nerves. The flexor muscles take over when this nerve is not functioning properly, causing the tarsus to over flex.