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UWorld High-Yield Clinical Vignettes Flashcards

6 cards from real UWorld practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 6 UWorld High-Yield Clinical Vignettes flashcards as text

  1. A 62-year-old woman with a history of atrial fibrillation on warfarin presents with sudden onset left-sided weakness and facial droop lasting 2 hours that fully resolved. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Transient ischemic attack (TIA)

    A TIA presents with focal neurological deficits that resolve completely within 24 hours (typically minutes to hours) without evidence of infarction on imaging.

  2. A 25-year-old male presents with painless testicular swelling. Ultrasound shows a solid intratesticular mass. Tumor markers reveal elevated AFP and beta-hCG. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Non-seminomatous germ cell tumor (mixed)

    Elevated AFP is not produced by pure seminomas, so its presence indicates a non-seminomatous component; elevated beta-hCG can be seen in both but combined elevation suggests mixed NSGCT.

  3. A 3-year-old girl presents with a painless abdominal mass that does not cross the midline. CT shows a large intrarenal mass. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma)

    Wilms tumor is the most common renal malignancy in children, typically presenting as a smooth, unilateral abdominal mass that does not cross the midline.

  4. A 50-year-old woman presents with recurrent calcium oxalate kidney stones. Labs show hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia, and elevated PTH. What is the most likely underlying cause?

    Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

    Primary hyperparathyroidism causes hypercalcemia with inappropriately elevated PTH and low phosphate, and is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in outpatients with calcium nephrolithiasis.

  5. A 40-year-old male with HIV (CD4 count 50 cells/µL) presents with headache, fever, and neck stiffness. CSF India ink stain shows encapsulated yeast. What is the treatment of choice?

    Answer: Amphotericin B plus flucytosine for induction, followed by fluconazole consolidation

    Cryptococcal meningitis in HIV patients is treated with amphotericin B plus flucytosine for induction (2 weeks), followed by fluconazole for consolidation and maintenance.

  6. A 32-year-old woman in her third trimester presents with severe hypertension (180/110), proteinuria (4+ on dipstick), and headache. Labs show elevated LFTs, low platelets, and hemolytic anemia. What is this condition?

    Answer: HELLP syndrome

    HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets) is a severe variant of preeclampsia requiring prompt delivery regardless of gestational age.