Texas Private Security Level II Certification Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A security officer arrives at a scene where a person is bleeding severely from a deep cut on their thigh. After applying direct pressure with a cloth, the bleeding does not stop. What is the next appropriate step?

Elevate the wound and wait for EMS
Remove the cloth and apply a clean one
Apply an ice pack to slow blood flow
Apply a tourniquet above the wound if on a limb (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Apply a tourniquet above the wound if on a limb

If direct pressure fails to control severe limb bleeding, applying a tourniquet 2-3 inches above the wound is the next appropriate hemorrhage control measure.

Question 2: Texas security officers who observe signs of child abuse or neglect while on duty are required to:

Report suspicions to the Texas Department of Family and Protective Services or law enforcement (Correct answer)
Conduct their own investigation before reporting
Wait for their supervisor to make the determination
Keep the information confidential to protect the family's privacy

Correct answer: Report suspicions to the Texas Department of Family and Protective Services or law enforcement

Texas law makes security officers mandated reporters who must report reasonable suspicions of child abuse or neglect to DFPS or law enforcement immediately.

Question 3: Under Chapter 1702, which of the following activities requires a private investigator license rather than a security officer commission?

Conducting covert surveillance to gather evidence for litigation (Correct answer)
Monitoring a camera system at a corporate campus
Patrolling a parking lot in a marked vehicle
Standing guard at a retail store entrance

Correct answer: Conducting covert surveillance to gather evidence for litigation

Covert surveillance conducted to gather evidence for civil or criminal proceedings constitutes private investigation and requires a PI license under Chapter 1702.

Question 4: Which of the following is an example of an opinion that should NOT appear in a security incident report?

'The subject was stumbling and had slurred speech.'
'The officer observed the subject exit the building at 2:15 PM.'
'The officer heard a loud noise from the east corridor at 11:30 PM.'
'The suspect appeared to be intoxicated and was obviously guilty.' (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 'The suspect appeared to be intoxicated and was obviously guilty.'

Writing that the suspect was 'obviously guilty' is an opinion and legal conclusion, not an observable fact. Security reports must document observations, not judgments.

Question 5: What is the primary purpose of a security 'post order'?

To provide specific instructions for how security duties should be performed at a particular assignment (Correct answer)
To fulfill DPS licensing requirements for security companies
To serve as a legal contract between the officer and the client
To document security incidents that occur during a shift

Correct answer: To provide specific instructions for how security duties should be performed at a particular assignment

Post orders are site-specific instructions that tell officers exactly how to perform their duties at a given location — including patrol routes, emergency procedures, access control rules, and reporting requirements.

Question 6: How soon after a service or session should documentation be completed?

At the end of the month
Only when an audit is scheduled
As soon as possible, ideally within 24 hours (Correct answer)
Within one week

Correct answer: As soon as possible, ideally within 24 hours

Prompt documentation, ideally within 24 hours, ensures accuracy of recorded information and meets professional and legal standards.

Question 7: A security officer is monitoring a crowded concert when they observe a person having a seizure. After calling for EMS, what should the officer do?

Immediately begin CPR
Clear the area around the person and protect their head (Correct answer)
Place something hard in the person's mouth to prevent biting
Restrain the person to stop the seizure

Correct answer: Clear the area around the person and protect their head

During a seizure, officers should clear the surrounding area of hazards, protect the person's head, and never restrain them or place objects in their mouth.

Question 8: What is the purpose of a 'guard tour system' used in conjunction with security patrols?

To monitor the performance of security cameras remotely
To verify that security officers are completing their patrol routes by scanning checkpoints at specific times (Correct answer)
To track the location of all visitors on a property
To alert officers of intrusions detected by motion sensors

Correct answer: To verify that security officers are completing their patrol routes by scanning checkpoints at specific times

Guard tour systems use wand readers, NFC tags, or QR codes at patrol checkpoints to verify that officers are physically visiting specific locations on their rounds.

Question 9: Which of the following describes a 'daily activity report' (DAR) or 'post log' completed by a security officer?

A summary of incidents only, submitted weekly
A list of unauthorized persons who attempted to enter a facility
A chronological record of activities, observations, and events during a shift (Correct answer)
A performance evaluation of the security officer by their supervisor

Correct answer: A chronological record of activities, observations, and events during a shift

A daily activity report or post log is a real-time record of all activities and observations during a shift, not limited to incidents.

Question 10: Under Texas law, what must a security officer do after making a citizen's arrest?

Immediately deliver the arrested person to a peace officer or magistrate (Correct answer)
Hold the person until a supervisor arrives
Issue a written citation and release the person
Conduct a full search and complete a report before releasing to police

Correct answer: Immediately deliver the arrested person to a peace officer or magistrate

Texas Code of Criminal Procedure Article 14.01 requires that a person who makes a citizen's arrest must take the arrested person before a magistrate or deliver them to a peace officer without unnecessary delay.

Question 11: An intoxicated individual at your post becomes combative. Before using any physical force, Texas-licensed security officers must first:

Warn the individual only once verbally, then use maximum force
Immediately call for backup without saying anything to the subject
Physically subdue the individual to prevent any potential harm
Attempt verbal de-escalation while maintaining a safe distance (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Attempt verbal de-escalation while maintaining a safe distance

Verbal de-escalation is always the preferred first step; force is only justified when de-escalation fails and safety is threatened.

Question 12: What is the purpose of a 'panic button' or 'duress alarm' system in a security context?

To notify the DPS when an officer uses force
To sound an audible alarm whenever a security officer is on patrol
To allow officers or employees under threat to silently alert security or emergency services without alerting the threat (Correct answer)
To automatically lock all doors and windows in a facility

Correct answer: To allow officers or employees under threat to silently alert security or emergency services without alerting the threat

Panic buttons enable silent distress signals that alert security or emergency services when an officer or employee is in danger and cannot vocalize for help.

Question 13: What is the significance of the Texas DPS Code of Conduct for security officers?

It is a voluntary ethical pledge that has no formal enforcement mechanism
It applies only to security company owners and managers, not individual officers
It establishes the ethical and professional standards that commissioned security officers are expected to uphold, with violations subject to commission action (Correct answer)
It is a federal standard unrelated to Texas state licensing

Correct answer: It establishes the ethical and professional standards that commissioned security officers are expected to uphold, with violations subject to commission action

The DPS Code of Conduct establishes binding ethical standards for licensed security officers. Violations can result in administrative action including suspension or revocation of the commission.

Question 14: When a security officer discovers an unconscious person on their patrol route, what is the FIRST action they should take?

Call for emergency medical services
Begin CPR immediately
Attempt to revive the person by shaking them
Check for scene safety before approaching (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Check for scene safety before approaching

Scene safety must always be assessed first to ensure the officer does not become a second victim.

Question 15: What is an 'accidental discharge' and what are the typical consequences for a security officer?

Firing a warning shot to deter a threat
A malfunction that is entirely the weapon manufacturer's fault
A planned test fire to ensure the weapon is functioning
An unintentional firing of a weapon due to failure to follow safety rules — may result in injury, criminal charges, and loss of commission (Correct answer)

Correct answer: An unintentional firing of a weapon due to failure to follow safety rules — may result in injury, criminal charges, and loss of commission

Accidental discharges result from safety rule failures and can cause injury or death. Officers involved in accidental discharges face potential criminal charges, civil liability, and DPS commission review.

Question 16: What is required for a commissioned security officer to be authorized to carry a concealed handgun while on duty?

Completion of DPS-approved firearms training, a current firearm endorsement on their commission, and employer authorization (Correct answer)
A federal firearms permit
Only a Texas License to Carry (LTC)
Only employer written authorization

Correct answer: Completion of DPS-approved firearms training, a current firearm endorsement on their commission, and employer authorization

On-duty carry as a commissioned officer requires the DPS firearm endorsement from completion of the required Level III armed security training, plus employer authorization.

Question 17: What does 'chain of custody' mean in the context of security documentation?

The order in which security supervisors review an incident report
The process of submitting a report to the DPS Private Security Bureau
The sequence of command when multiple officers respond to an incident
A chronological record of who has had possession of physical evidence from discovery to court presentation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A chronological record of who has had possession of physical evidence from discovery to court presentation

Chain of custody documents every person who has handled a piece of physical evidence. This documentation is essential to prove evidence has not been tampered with.

Question 18: During an active shooter situation, the Department of Homeland Security recommends civilians follow which three-step protocol in order?

Alert, Evacuate, Shelter
Call, Hide, Fight
Hide, Fight, Flee
Run, Hide, Fight (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Run, Hide, Fight

The DHS 'Run, Hide, Fight' protocol prioritizes evacuation first, sheltering in place second, and physical resistance only as a last resort.

Question 19: What is the principle of 'minimal force' and why is it central to ethical security practice?

Using no physical force under any circumstances
A standard that applies only to non-commissioned officers
Using force only when authorized by law enforcement
Using the least amount of force necessary to accomplish a legitimate security objective — central to ethics because it minimizes harm to all parties (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Using the least amount of force necessary to accomplish a legitimate security objective — central to ethics because it minimizes harm to all parties

Minimal force means using only what is necessary and no more. Ethically, it respects human dignity; legally, it is required by the use-of-force justification standards under Texas law.

Question 20: A security officer notices a coworker appearing to be under the influence of alcohol while on duty. What is the ethical and professional obligation?

Report the observation immediately to a supervisor — an impaired officer presents a safety risk to themselves, the public, and the client (Correct answer)
Ask the coworker directly but take no further action if denied
Wait until the shift ends to raise the concern
Help cover for the coworker to avoid affecting their employment

Correct answer: Report the observation immediately to a supervisor — an impaired officer presents a safety risk to themselves, the public, and the client

An impaired officer on duty is a serious safety risk. Reporting to a supervisor is both an ethical obligation and a professional necessity.

Question 21: A security officer discovers that a colleague is falsifying daily activity reports. What is the ethical obligation of the discovering officer?

Confront the colleague directly and require them to stop without notifying supervisors
Ignore the issue since daily activity reports are not legally significant documents
Cover for the colleague since reporting could harm their employment
Report the falsification to a supervisor or, if necessary, to the DPS — allowing falsification to continue is itself unethical (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Report the falsification to a supervisor or, if necessary, to the DPS — allowing falsification to continue is itself unethical

Falsifying security reports is a serious ethical and legal violation. Officers who discover such conduct have an obligation to report it through proper channels.

Question 22: Which credential type is MOST resistant to duplication or forgery in an electronic access control system?

Photo ID badge
Biometric identifier (fingerprint or retinal scan) (Correct answer)
PIN code
Magnetic stripe card

Correct answer: Biometric identifier (fingerprint or retinal scan)

Biometric identifiers are unique to each individual and cannot be shared, lost, or easily duplicated like cards or PINs.

Question 23: A security officer receives a gift from a vendor seeking to influence which company they recommend to the client. What is the ethical issue?

Gifts from vendors are a normal and accepted professional practice
Accepting gifts that influence professional decisions is a form of bribery and violates the officer's duty of impartial professional service (Correct answer)
Only gifts from clients, not vendors, present an ethical concern
Gifts are acceptable as long as they are under $50 in value

Correct answer: Accepting gifts that influence professional decisions is a form of bribery and violates the officer's duty of impartial professional service

Accepting anything of value in exchange for professional recommendations or influence is bribery. Officers must make decisions based on professional merit, not personal gain.

Question 24: The 'observe and report' role of a security officer means the officer should:

Monitor the area, document observations, and report incidents to appropriate parties without unnecessary physical intervention (Correct answer)
Only contact law enforcement if a crime is in progress and ignore minor violations
Take direct action on all suspected crimes to protect the client's property
Report exclusively to the client and never involve law enforcement

Correct answer: Monitor the area, document observations, and report incidents to appropriate parties without unnecessary physical intervention

The observe and report role emphasizes documentation and notification as the primary function, limiting physical intervention to situations where immediate life safety requires it.

Question 25: What does 'personal accountability' mean in the context of security officer ethics?

Taking responsibility for your actions and decisions, including mistakes, rather than blaming others or making excuses (Correct answer)
A specific DPS inspection program for commissioned officers
Keeping detailed personal notes about all activities in a private journal
Requiring supervisors to review all decisions before they are made

Correct answer: Taking responsibility for your actions and decisions, including mistakes, rather than blaming others or making excuses

Personal accountability means owning your decisions and their consequences. Officers who make mistakes and take responsibility earn trust; those who deflect blame undermine it.

Question 26: What should a security officer do if they make a factual error in a written incident report?

Draw a single line through the error, write the correction, and initial and date the change (Correct answer)
Erase or white-out the error to keep the report clean
Leave the error and submit an addendum with the correct information
Destroy the report and write a new one

Correct answer: Draw a single line through the error, write the correction, and initial and date the change

The correct method is to draw a single line through the error, write the correction nearby, and initial and date the change. This preserves the integrity of the document.

Question 27: What legal standard must a security officer meet when using force?

Use force only when ordered by employer
Use force to gain compliance
Use reasonable and necessary force only (Correct answer)
Use any level of force at discretion

Correct answer: Use reasonable and necessary force only

Security officers are legally bound to use only reasonable and necessary force when performing their duties. This means the force applied must be proportionate to the threat or resistance encountered and only used to achieve a lawful objective, such as self-defense or preventing a crime. Excessive or unnecessary force can lead to severe legal consequences, including civil liability and criminal charges.

Question 28: What does 'firearm retention' mean in the context of security officer training?

The policy of keeping a firearm in a secure storage locker
The storage of firearms at the end of each shift
The legal requirement to maintain firearm registration
Techniques to prevent an assailant from taking the officer's firearm during a physical confrontation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Techniques to prevent an assailant from taking the officer's firearm during a physical confrontation

Firearm retention training teaches officers physical techniques to keep their weapon if someone attempts to grab or take it during a struggle.

Question 29: What is 'excessive use of force' in the security context, and why is it both an ethical and legal problem?

Any force used without a written incident report
Force used by an officer against another security officer
Force used without supervisor approval
Force beyond what is immediately necessary — it violates the officer's ethical duty to treat persons with dignity and may constitute criminal assault (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Force beyond what is immediately necessary — it violates the officer's ethical duty to treat persons with dignity and may constitute criminal assault

Excessive force violates both ethical standards and Texas law. Officers have a duty to use only the minimum force necessary, and excess force exposes them to assault charges and civil liability.

Question 30: A security officer conducting a perimeter patrol discovers an unlocked gate that should be secured. What should be done FIRST?

Leave it as-is and report it at the end of the shift
Assume maintenance left it open and ignore it
Secure the gate and immediately document the discovery in the patrol log (Correct answer)
Wait for a supervisor to arrive before touching the gate

Correct answer: Secure the gate and immediately document the discovery in the patrol log

The officer should correct the security breach by securing the gate, then document the time, location, and action taken to maintain an accurate record.

Question 31: How can regular drills benefit emergency preparedness?

They eliminate the need for training
They confuse potential intruders
They serve as performance evaluations
They prepare personnel for real incidents (Correct answer)

Correct answer: They prepare personnel for real incidents

Regular emergency drills are invaluable because they prepare personnel for real-life incidents by familiarizing them with procedures, roles, and evacuation routes. These drills help identify weaknesses in plans, improve coordination among staff and emergency services, and build confidence. This ensures a more effective and organized response when an actual emergency occurs.

Question 32: What is the correct recovery position for an unconscious person who is breathing on their own?

Face down with arms stretched overhead
Lying flat on their back with legs elevated
Seated upright with back support
On their side with the airway open and tilted head (Correct answer)

Correct answer: On their side with the airway open and tilted head

The recovery position places an unconscious breathing person on their side to keep the airway open and prevent choking on vomit or fluids.

Texas Private Security Level II Certification Exam

The Texas Private Security Level II exam certifies individuals as unarmed security officers under the Texas Department of Public Safety (DPS), testing knowledge of state laws, legal authority, use of force, emergency response, ethics, and professional standards.

Questions

45 min

Time Limit

75%

To Pass

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