Texas Private Security Level II Certification Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A security officer discovers a coworker unconscious and not breathing. After calling 911, what is the correct ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths for adult CPR?

15 compressions to 2 breaths
30 compressions to 2 breaths (Correct answer)
20 compressions to 2 breaths
30 compressions to 1 breath

Correct answer: 30 compressions to 2 breaths

Current American Heart Association guidelines specify 30 chest compressions followed by 2 rescue breaths for adult CPR.

Question 2: During a mass casualty incident at a large event, a security officer must use basic triage principles. Which victim should receive the LOWEST priority for assistance?

A person who shows no signs of life after a quick assessment (Correct answer)
A person with a life-threatening arterial bleed
A person who is unconscious but breathing
A person with a broken arm who is walking and talking

Correct answer: A person who shows no signs of life after a quick assessment

In triage, victims with no signs of life are tagged as 'black' (deceased or expectant) and receive lowest priority so resources focus on survivable injuries.

Question 3: What does 'triage' mean in the context of a mass casualty incident (MCI)?

Treating all patients in the order they are discovered
A communication protocol for coordinating with multiple EMS units
Sorting and prioritizing multiple patients based on severity of injury to direct care to those with the greatest need and best chance of survival (Correct answer)
A legal process for documenting casualties after a major incident

Correct answer: Sorting and prioritizing multiple patients based on severity of injury to direct care to those with the greatest need and best chance of survival

Triage prioritizes limited medical resources by categorizing patients according to injury severity and survivability, directing immediate care to those who need it most.

Question 4: A security officer notices a person clutching their chest, sweating profusely, and complaining of pain radiating to the left arm. What is the most likely emergency?

Seizure
Diabetic emergency
Stroke
Heart attack (myocardial infarction) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Heart attack (myocardial infarction)

Classic signs of a heart attack include chest pain, sweating, and pain radiating to the left arm or jaw, requiring immediate EMS activation.

Question 5: What should a security officer do if they make a factual error in a written incident report?

Draw a single line through the error, write the correction, and initial and date the change (Correct answer)
Leave the error and submit an addendum with the correct information
Erase or white-out the error to keep the report clean
Destroy the report and write a new one

Correct answer: Draw a single line through the error, write the correction, and initial and date the change

The correct method is to draw a single line through the error, write the correction nearby, and initial and date the change. This preserves the integrity of the document.

Question 6: When documenting witness information in a security report, what should the officer include?

Only the witness's first name to protect their privacy
Nothing — witness statements are taken only by law enforcement
A full transcription of the witness's statement verbatim
Full name, contact information, and a summary of what the witness observed (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Full name, contact information, and a summary of what the witness observed

Officers should document witnesses' full names, contact information, and a summary of their observations so investigators can follow up.

Question 7: Why is 'target identification' critically important for an armed security officer before using a firearm?

To identify the target for documentation in an incident report
To comply with the employer's post orders on weapon use
To ensure the firearm is loaded before engagement
To ensure the threat is real and that innocent bystanders are not in the line of fire before discharging the weapon (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To ensure the threat is real and that innocent bystanders are not in the line of fire before discharging the weapon

Target identification prevents shooting innocent persons and requires awareness of what is behind the target since bullets can penetrate and travel beyond the intended target.

Question 8: A security officer observes an individual acting suspiciously near a restricted area during patrol. What should the officer do FIRST?

Call law enforcement before doing anything else
Ignore the behavior unless property is damaged
Physically restrain the individual immediately
Observe and assess the situation before taking action (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Observe and assess the situation before taking action

The first step is to observe and assess — gathering more information helps the officer determine the appropriate response and avoid unnecessary confrontation.

Question 9: A security officer at a Texas facility receives a call about a suspicious package left unattended near the entrance. What should the officer NOT do?

Establish a security perimeter at a safe distance
Notify law enforcement and management immediately
Prevent others from approaching the package
Open or move the package to inspect its contents (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Open or move the package to inspect its contents

Security officers must never touch, open, or move a suspicious package as it could be an explosive device; the area should be secured and bomb disposal notified.

Question 10: How soon after a service or session should documentation be completed?

Only when an audit is scheduled
As soon as possible, ideally within 24 hours (Correct answer)
Within one week
At the end of the month

Correct answer: As soon as possible, ideally within 24 hours

Prompt documentation, ideally within 24 hours, ensures accuracy of recorded information and meets professional and legal standards.

Question 11: A plaintiff may be awarded punitive damages against a security officer or company when the defendant's conduct was:

Covered by a valid liability insurance policy
Malicious or showed reckless disregard for the plaintiff's rights (Correct answer)
Compensable under workers' compensation
Simply negligent in failing to follow procedures

Correct answer: Malicious or showed reckless disregard for the plaintiff's rights

Punitive damages are reserved for defendants who acted with malice, gross negligence, or conscious indifference to the rights of others — they punish and deter rather than compensate.

Question 12: What is the primary concern with using social media monitoring as part of event security intelligence?

Privacy concerns and the accuracy of social media information must be balanced against its intelligence value (Correct answer)
Social media monitoring is prohibited by Texas law for private security
Social media is not useful for event security planning
Only law enforcement may use social media for security intelligence

Correct answer: Privacy concerns and the accuracy of social media information must be balanced against its intelligence value

Social media can provide useful pre-event intelligence, but officers must be aware of privacy limitations, the unreliability of unverified posts, and the boundaries of lawful monitoring.

Question 13: What is the proper way for a security officer to handle a situation where a client's representative asks them to do something that conflicts with their employer's post orders?

Always follow the client's instructions since they are paying for the service
Follow the post orders; conflicts between client instructions and post orders should be escalated to the security supervisor for resolution (Correct answer)
Always follow the post orders without informing the supervisor of the conflict
Refuse to work the assignment until the conflict is resolved by the DPS

Correct answer: Follow the post orders; conflicts between client instructions and post orders should be escalated to the security supervisor for resolution

Post orders govern the officer's conduct at a site. Conflicts between client instructions and post orders must be escalated to the security supervisor — the officer should not unilaterally deviate from their authorized instructions.

Question 14: What does 'chain of custody' mean in the context of security documentation?

The sequence of command when multiple officers respond to an incident
The process of submitting a report to the DPS Private Security Bureau
A chronological record of who has had possession of physical evidence from discovery to court presentation (Correct answer)
The order in which security supervisors review an incident report

Correct answer: A chronological record of who has had possession of physical evidence from discovery to court presentation

Chain of custody documents every person who has handled a piece of physical evidence. This documentation is essential to prove evidence has not been tampered with.

Question 15: A security officer witnesses a vehicle collision in the parking lot with an injured driver. Which action is OUTSIDE the scope of a security officer's emergency role?

Calling 911 immediately
Providing first aid within their training level
Performing surgical procedures on the injured driver (Correct answer)
Keeping bystanders at a safe distance

Correct answer: Performing surgical procedures on the injured driver

Security officers are trained in basic first aid and scene management but must never attempt medical procedures beyond their certified scope of practice.

Question 16: Why is regular security training important for all staff?

Employees are often the weakest link in security and training reduces human error (Correct answer)
It is only needed for IT staff
It replaces the need for technical security controls
It is only required annually for compliance

Correct answer: Employees are often the weakest link in security and training reduces human error

Regular security training reduces human error, the most common cause of security breaches, by keeping all staff aware of current threats and proper procedures.

Question 17: Which piece of equipment is essential for basic emergency preparedness?

Flashlight (Correct answer)
Fire extinguisher manual
Clipboard
Company brochure

Correct answer: Flashlight

A flashlight is an essential piece of equipment for basic emergency preparedness for a security officer. In situations like power outages, fires, or other emergencies, visibility can be severely compromised. A reliable flashlight allows officers to navigate, search for individuals, and assess situations safely and effectively, ensuring they can perform their duties even in darkness.

Question 18: When managing a disruptive patron at an event, what approach should a security officer take first?

Ignore the behavior until it escalates further
Threaten the patron with arrest to gain compliance
Immediately physically escort the patron out of the venue
Verbal de-escalation — calmly and respectfully addressing the behavior and requesting compliance before using physical means (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Verbal de-escalation — calmly and respectfully addressing the behavior and requesting compliance before using physical means

De-escalation through calm verbal communication is always the preferred first approach. Physical intervention should be reserved for situations where verbal means fail or the situation requires immediate action.

Question 19: A security officer responding to a reported drowning at a pool should prioritize which action FIRST?

Jump into the water to retrieve the victim
Clear all bystanders from the pool area before any action
Begin CPR on the pool deck without moving the victim
Ensure their own safety and call for emergency services (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ensure their own safety and call for emergency services

Officer safety comes first — calling EMS immediately and using reaching or throwing aids to assist the victim without entering the water unless trained in water rescue.

Question 20: What is 'excessive use of force' in the security context, and why is it both an ethical and legal problem?

Force used without supervisor approval
Force used by an officer against another security officer
Force beyond what is immediately necessary — it violates the officer's ethical duty to treat persons with dignity and may constitute criminal assault (Correct answer)
Any force used without a written incident report

Correct answer: Force beyond what is immediately necessary — it violates the officer's ethical duty to treat persons with dignity and may constitute criminal assault

Excessive force violates both ethical standards and Texas law. Officers have a duty to use only the minimum force necessary, and excess force exposes them to assault charges and civil liability.

Question 21: Why should a security officer avoid making promises to victims or witnesses at an incident scene?

Because victims and witnesses should only communicate with law enforcement
Because all communication must be in writing according to DPS regulations
Because Texas law prohibits security officers from speaking with victims
Because outcomes are uncertain and making promises the officer cannot keep damages trust and credibility (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Because outcomes are uncertain and making promises the officer cannot keep damages trust and credibility

Officers have limited control over investigation outcomes, prosecutorial decisions, and legal proceedings. Promising results they cannot guarantee undermines their credibility and the victim's trust.

Question 22: Which authentication method provides the strongest security?

Single sign-on without additional factors
Multi-factor authentication combining different verification types (Correct answer)
Security questions based on personal information
Complex passwords alone

Correct answer: Multi-factor authentication combining different verification types

Multi-factor authentication combining different verification types (something you know, have, and are) provides the strongest protection against unauthorized access.

Question 23: What is the 'duty of care' that security officers owe to the public?

An obligation to provide the highest possible level of security regardless of cost
A duty to arrest anyone who may commit a crime in the future
A duty to report all observed criminal activity to the DPS daily
A legal and ethical obligation to act reasonably to prevent foreseeable harm to persons in the area they are assigned to protect (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A legal and ethical obligation to act reasonably to prevent foreseeable harm to persons in the area they are assigned to protect

Duty of care means acting with reasonable care to prevent foreseeable harm. Security officers who fail in this duty can be held liable for negligence.

Question 24: When transitioning between treatment phases, what is essential?

Let the patient decide all treatment parameters
Continue the same approach indefinitely
Document the rationale for change and update goals accordingly (Correct answer)
Make changes without updating records

Correct answer: Document the rationale for change and update goals accordingly

Documenting the rationale for treatment phase changes and updating goals ensures continuity of care, clear communication, and appropriate progress tracking.

Question 25: What should be done if an error is discovered in existing records?

Remove the page and rewrite it
Ignore the error if it seems minor
Use correction fluid to cover the error
Draw a single line through the error, note the correction, date, and initial (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Draw a single line through the error, note the correction, date, and initial

The correct method is a single line through the error with a dated and initialed correction, preserving the original entry for legal and audit purposes.

Question 26: What is required for a commissioned security officer to be authorized to carry a concealed handgun while on duty?

Only a Texas License to Carry (LTC)
Completion of DPS-approved firearms training, a current firearm endorsement on their commission, and employer authorization (Correct answer)
A federal firearms permit
Only employer written authorization

Correct answer: Completion of DPS-approved firearms training, a current firearm endorsement on their commission, and employer authorization

On-duty carry as a commissioned officer requires the DPS firearm endorsement from completion of the required Level III armed security training, plus employer authorization.

Question 27: What is an 'accidental discharge' and what are the typical consequences for a security officer?

A malfunction that is entirely the weapon manufacturer's fault
An unintentional firing of a weapon due to failure to follow safety rules — may result in injury, criminal charges, and loss of commission (Correct answer)
A planned test fire to ensure the weapon is functioning
Firing a warning shot to deter a threat

Correct answer: An unintentional firing of a weapon due to failure to follow safety rules — may result in injury, criminal charges, and loss of commission

Accidental discharges result from safety rule failures and can cause injury or death. Officers involved in accidental discharges face potential criminal charges, civil liability, and DPS commission review.

Question 28: A security officer notices a coworker appearing to be under the influence of alcohol while on duty. What is the ethical and professional obligation?

Help cover for the coworker to avoid affecting their employment
Ask the coworker directly but take no further action if denied
Wait until the shift ends to raise the concern
Report the observation immediately to a supervisor — an impaired officer presents a safety risk to themselves, the public, and the client (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Report the observation immediately to a supervisor — an impaired officer presents a safety risk to themselves, the public, and the client

An impaired officer on duty is a serious safety risk. Reporting to a supervisor is both an ethical obligation and a professional necessity.

Question 29: What does 'conflict of interest' mean for a security officer?

A dispute between two clients about security coverage priority
A legal conflict between Texas law and a client's instructions
A disagreement with a supervisor about post order procedures
A situation where the officer's personal interests conflict with their professional duties — e.g., overlooking a friend's policy violation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A situation where the officer's personal interests conflict with their professional duties — e.g., overlooking a friend's policy violation

A conflict of interest exists when personal relationships or interests compromise an officer's impartial performance of their duties.

Question 30: What is the principle of 'minimal force' and why is it central to ethical security practice?

A standard that applies only to non-commissioned officers
Using the least amount of force necessary to accomplish a legitimate security objective — central to ethics because it minimizes harm to all parties (Correct answer)
Using force only when authorized by law enforcement
Using no physical force under any circumstances

Correct answer: Using the least amount of force necessary to accomplish a legitimate security objective — central to ethics because it minimizes harm to all parties

Minimal force means using only what is necessary and no more. Ethically, it respects human dignity; legally, it is required by the use-of-force justification standards under Texas law.

Question 31: How many hours of Level II security training must a non-commissioned officer complete in Texas?

6 hours (Correct answer)
10 hours
4 hours
8 hours

Correct answer: 6 hours

Texas requires a minimum of 6 hours of Level II (non-commissioned) security officer training before an officer can begin working.

Question 32: What must a security officer carry while on duty in Texas?

A company newsletter
A valid Texas driver's license
A business license
Their DPS-issued pocket card (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Their DPS-issued pocket card

In Texas, a security officer is legally required to carry their DPS-issued pocket card while on duty. This card serves as proof of their valid license or registration with the Texas Department of Public Safety. It demonstrates that they have met the state's requirements to work as a security officer and must be presented upon request by law enforcement or authorized personnel.

Texas Private Security Level II Certification Exam

The Texas Private Security Level II exam certifies individuals as unarmed security officers under the Texas Department of Public Safety (DPS), testing knowledge of state laws, legal authority, use of force, emergency response, ethics, and professional standards.

Questions

45 min

Time Limit

75%

To Pass

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Exam Rules

You can skip questions and return to them later
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No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
Timer auto-submits when time runs out
Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds

These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

Sources & references

Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy

dps.texas.gov — Time limit, eligibility, renewal, score validity, test delivery, exam format, passing score, retake fee, retake policy, score release · verified Nov 2026