Test of Essential Academic Skills (TEAS) — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Read the sentence: 'Her stoic expression betrayed no emotion even as she received the devastating diagnosis.' What does 'stoic' most nearly mean?
- Confused and uncertain about the situation
- Calm and showing no outward emotion (Correct answer)
- Tearful and visibly distressed
- Angry and openly resentful toward others
Correct answer: Calm and showing no outward emotion
The context clue 'betrayed no emotion' directly tells the reader that stoic describes someone who does not express their feelings outwardly, even under hardship.
Question 2: Which sentence uses apostrophes correctly?
- The dogs' tail was wagging.
- The dog wagged it's tail happily.
- Its a beautiful day outside.
- The dog wagged its tail happily. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The dog wagged its tail happily.
"Its" (possessive) has no apostrophe. "It's" is a contraction of "it is." Since the tail belongs to the dog, the possessive "its" is correct here.
Question 3: The volume of a cube is 64 cubic feet. What is the cube's surface area?
- 64 square feet
- 384 square feet
- 128 square feet
- 96 square feet (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 96 square feet
First, find the side length of the cube. The volume of a cube is s³, so if the volume is 64 cubic feet, then s³ = 64. Taking the cube root of 64, we find that the side length (s) is 4 feet. Next, calculate the surface area. A cube has 6 identical square faces, and the area of one face is s². So, the area of one face is 4² = 16 square feet. The total surface area is 6 times the area of one face: 6 × 16 = 96 square feet.
Question 4: What characteristic of an element determines its specific isotope?
- Number of quarks.
- Number of electrons.
- Number of protons.
- Number of neutrons. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Number of neutrons.
The atomic number, which is determined by the number of protons, defines an element's identity. Isotopes of an element have the same number of protons but differ in their number of neutrons. Therefore, the number of neutrons determines the specific isotope of an element, affecting its atomic mass but not its chemical properties.
Question 5: Which of the following is the largest value?
- 9/100
- 0.0989
- 9.8% (Correct answer)
- 0.098
Correct answer: 9.8%
9.8% = 0.098, and 9/100 = 0.09 and 0.0989 < 0.098, so 9.8% ties for largest — but 9/100=0.09 < 0.098, making 9.8% = 0.098 the largest.
Question 6: Which word in the following sentence is a conjunctive adverb? 'The medication was effective; however, it caused significant side effects.'
- caused
- effective
- significant
- however (Correct answer)
Correct answer: however
'However' is a conjunctive adverb that connects two independent clauses and indicates a contrast.
Question 7: Which sentence contains a dangling modifier?
- Running quickly, the patient was reached by the nurse. (Correct answer)
- The nurse, running quickly, reached the patient's room.
- The quickly running nurse reached the patient's room.
- Running quickly, the nurse reached the patient's room.
Correct answer: Running quickly, the patient was reached by the nurse.
In option B, 'Running quickly' appears to modify 'the patient' (the noun that follows), but logically the nurse was running. The modifier dangles because the intended subject (nurse) is not the subject of the main clause.
Question 8: On the periodic table, elements in the same column share what?
- The same atomic mass
- Similar chemical properties (Correct answer)
- The same number of neutrons
- Identical melting points
Correct answer: Similar chemical properties
Elements in a group have similar valence electrons and chemical behavior.
Question 9: Read the following passage and identify the author's tone: 'The implementation of electronic health records has been an unqualified triumph for patient safety, virtually eliminating medication errors that once plagued our healthcare system. There is no room for doubt — EHR is the future.'
- Skeptical and questioning
- Cautious and analytical
- Neutral and informative
- Enthusiastic and absolute (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Enthusiastic and absolute
Words like 'unqualified triumph,' 'virtually eliminating,' and 'no room for doubt' signal enthusiastic, absolute advocacy — the author expresses strong, unconditional support.
Question 10: A researcher observes that enzyme activity increases as temperature rises from 20°C to 37°C but drops sharply above 40°C. What best explains the decrease above 40°C?
- The enzyme's active site becomes more specific at higher temperatures
- The substrate concentration becomes too dilute at higher temperatures
- The enzyme becomes denatured as heat disrupts its three-dimensional structure (Correct answer)
- The product of the reaction inhibits the enzyme at high temperatures
Correct answer: The enzyme becomes denatured as heat disrupts its three-dimensional structure
Above optimal temperature, excessive heat breaks the hydrogen bonds and other weak interactions that maintain the enzyme's shape, denaturing it and destroying its catalytic ability.
Question 11: A character "checked the locks twice, then a third time, before finally sitting down." What is the most reasonable inference?
- The character dislikes the house
- The character is forgetful
- The character is tired
- The character feels anxious or unsafe (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The character feels anxious or unsafe
Repeatedly checking the locks implies anxiety or a feeling of being unsafe.
Question 12: What is the median of the following data set: 4, 7, 2, 9, 5, 3, 8?
- 7
- 4
- 5 (Correct answer)
- 6
Correct answer: 5
First, arrange in order: 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8, 9. The median is the middle value. With 7 numbers, the 4th value (5) is the median.
Question 13: The pancreas releases insulin in response to which condition?
- Low blood pressure
- Low blood glucose
- High body temperature
- High blood glucose (Correct answer)
Correct answer: High blood glucose
Insulin is released when blood glucose is high, allowing cells to take up glucose and lowering blood sugar.
Question 14: A research abstract concludes: 'Our findings suggest that nurse staffing ratios are inversely associated with patient mortality rates. Hospitals with ratios below 1:4 showed a 14% increase in 30-day mortality compared to those maintaining 1:4 or better.' What does 'inversely associated' mean in this context?
- Staffing ratios and mortality rates change at the same rate
- As staffing ratios worsen (fewer nurses per patient), mortality rates increase (Correct answer)
- As staffing ratios improve, mortality rates also increase
- There is no relationship between staffing and mortality
Correct answer: As staffing ratios worsen (fewer nurses per patient), mortality rates increase
An inverse association means the variables move in opposite directions—as nurse-to-patient ratios worsen (fewer nurses), mortality increases.
Question 15: Which strategy is most helpful for understanding an unfamiliar word in a passage?
- Replace the word with a simpler word that looks similar
- Look for context clues in the surrounding sentences (Correct answer)
- Skip the word and continue reading
- Count how many times the word appears
Correct answer: Look for context clues in the surrounding sentences
Context clues — definitions, examples, synonyms, antonyms, or explanatory phrases surrounding an unfamiliar word — are the most immediate strategy for determining word meaning. Surrounding sentences often clarify meaning.
Question 16: In a bar graph showing patient recovery times by treatment type, which element helps the reader interpret what each bar represents?
- The title
- The y-axis values
- The x-axis label
- The legend/key (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The legend/key
The legend or key explains what each color, pattern, or bar in the graph represents. Without it, the reader cannot distinguish between categories. The title tells what the graph is about, while axes show measurement scales.
Question 17: Which of the following is equivalent to 0.0009?
- 0.01%
- 0.00%
- 0.09% (Correct answer)
- 0.90%
Correct answer: 0.09%
To convert a decimal to a percentage, you multiply the decimal by 100. In this case, 0.0009 multiplied by 100 equals 0.09. Therefore, 0.0009 is equivalent to 0.09%.
Question 18: What does 4(x-y)+7 equal if x = y?
- 7 (Correct answer)
- 11x – 11y
- 4x – 4y + 7
- 4xy + 7
Correct answer: 7
Given that x = y, substitute x for y in the expression 4(x-y)+7. This changes the expression to 4(x-x)+7. Since x-x equals 0, the expression simplifies to 4(0)+7. Multiplying 4 by 0 gives 0, so the final result is 0+7, which equals 7.
Question 19: Which of the following best describes an author's purpose when writing an informational text about climate change risks?
- To persuade readers to move to safer geographic regions
- To inform readers about the causes and potential consequences of climate change (Correct answer)
- To argue that governments are solely responsible for environmental damage
- To entertain readers with stories about extreme weather
Correct answer: To inform readers about the causes and potential consequences of climate change
Informational texts are written primarily to inform — presenting facts, explanations, and evidence. While an informational text may include persuasive elements, its core purpose is to educate the reader on the topic, in this case climate change risks.
Question 20: What will happen if a catalyst is added to a chemical reaction?
- Increase the rate at which the reaction takes place. (Correct answer)
- Increase the energy required for the reaction to take place.
- Reduce the amount of products in the reaction.
- Increase the time required for the reaction to take place.
Correct answer: Increase the rate at which the reaction takes place.
A catalyst is a substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction without being consumed in the process. It achieves this by lowering the activation energy required for the reaction to proceed, allowing more reactant molecules to overcome the energy barrier and form products more quickly. Catalysts do not change the equilibrium position or the amount of products formed, only how fast the reaction reaches equilibrium.
Question 21: Which structure connects a muscle to a bone?
- Fascia
- Ligament
- Cartilage
- Tendon (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Tendon
Tendons are fibrous connective tissue structures that attach muscle to bone, transmitting the force of muscle contraction to move bones.
Question 22: Solve for x: x/4 + 3 = 7
- x = 10
- x = 16 (Correct answer)
- x = 1
- x = 4
Correct answer: x = 16
Subtract 3 from both sides: x/4 = 4. Multiply both sides by 4: x = 16.
Question 23: What type of pronoun is used in the following sentence? 'The patient gave herself an insulin injection.'
- Personal pronoun
- Reflexive pronoun (Correct answer)
- Demonstrative pronoun
- Intensive pronoun
Correct answer: Reflexive pronoun
'Herself' is a reflexive pronoun — it refers back to the subject ('the patient') and indicates the subject is performing the action on herself.
Question 24: Quite enough work was needed to determine the distances between the particles, the corners between the molecular bonds, and other ______ features.
- Rational
- Indefinite
- Expressive
- Structural (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Structural
The features described—"distances between the particles" and "corners between the molecular bonds"—all relate to the physical arrangement and organization of molecules. "Structural" pertains to the way in which something is built, arranged, or organized. This word accurately encompasses these specific physical characteristics.
Question 25: Which of the following would most effectively support an argument that hospital-acquired infections have decreased over the past decade?
- CDC national statistics showing a 35% reduction in HAIs from 2011 to 2021 (Correct answer)
- A news article from 2008 reporting high HAI rates
- A personal anecdote from a patient who didn't get an infection
- An opinion piece from a hospital administrator
Correct answer: CDC national statistics showing a 35% reduction in HAIs from 2011 to 2021
CDC national statistics directly and objectively measure HAI rates over the relevant time period — this is the strongest evidence for a nationwide trend.
Question 26: A store marks up a $40 item by 25%. What is the new price?
- $48
- $50 (Correct answer)
- $65
- $45
Correct answer: $50
25% of $40 is $10; $40 + $10 = $50.
Question 27: The prefix 'hyper-' appears in words like 'hypertension' and 'hyperglycemia.' What does 'hyper-' mean?
- Against or in opposition to something
- Between or among different structures
- Under or below normal levels
- Above normal or excessive (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Above normal or excessive
The prefix 'hyper-' means above, beyond, or excessive. Hypertension = high blood pressure; hyperglycemia = high blood sugar. Its opposite is 'hypo-,' meaning below normal.
Question 28: A recipe requires 3/4 cup of sugar. If you want to make 2.5 times the recipe, how much sugar do you need?
- 1¾ cups
- 1½ cups
- 1 cup
- 1⅞ cups (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 1⅞ cups
3/4 × 2.5 = 3/4 × 5/2 = 15/8 = 1⅞ cups.
Question 29: Which body part does rhino represent?
- Mouth
- Eye
- Nose (Correct answer)
- Chin
Correct answer: Nose
The prefix 'rhino-' is derived from the Greek word 'rhis,' which means nose. This prefix is commonly used in medical and scientific terminology to refer to the nose or nasal cavity. For example, a rhinoceros is named for its prominent nose horn, directly linking 'rhino' to the nose.
Question 30: What is the value of 3/4 + 2/3?
- 5/12
- 17/12 (Correct answer)
- 5/7
- 6/7
Correct answer: 17/12
Convert to a common denominator of 12: 9/12 + 8/12 = 17/12.
Question 31: Read the passage: 'The clinic's waiting room was filled to capacity. Patients coughed into their sleeves and clutched paperwork. The receptionist typed rapidly without looking up. Several people had been waiting for over an hour.' Based on this passage, what can be reasonably inferred?
- The patients are all experiencing emergency medical conditions.
- The receptionist is rude and incompetent.
- The clinic is understaffed or overwhelmed with patients. (Correct answer)
- The clinic is about to close for the day.
Correct answer: The clinic is understaffed or overwhelmed with patients.
The details — full waiting room, long wait times, busy receptionist — collectively suggest the clinic is overwhelmed or understaffed, though this is never stated directly.
Question 32: Which of the following is an example of a physical change?
- Wood burning
- Bread baking
- Ice melting (Correct answer)
- Iron rusting
Correct answer: Ice melting
A physical change alters the form or appearance of a substance without changing its chemical composition. Ice melting into water is a phase change — it is still H₂O. Rusting, burning, and baking involve chemical reactions that form new substances.
Question 33: A reader notices that a healthcare brochure uses the phrase "studies show" without citing any specific research. This is an example of:
- A vague or unsupported appeal to authority (Correct answer)
- An effective use of pathos
- A strong evidence-based claim
- A legitimate primary source citation
Correct answer: A vague or unsupported appeal to authority
"Studies show" without specific citations is a common rhetorical technique that implies authority without providing verifiable evidence. Critical readers should seek specific source information when evaluating health claims.
Question 34: Which component of blood is primarily responsible for clotting?
- Red blood cells
- White blood cells
- Platelets (Correct answer)
- Plasma
Correct answer: Platelets
Platelets aggregate at injury sites and help form blood clots to stop bleeding.
Question 35: In which sentence is the colon used correctly?
- The supplies include: bandages, gloves, and syringes.
- She needed: to rest and recover.
- The three vital signs are: temperature, pulse, and respiration.
- Bring the following: a stethoscope, a pen, and your ID badge. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Bring the following: a stethoscope, a pen, and your ID badge.
A colon is correctly used after a complete sentence that introduces a list. "Bring the following" is a complete clause. In the other options, a colon incorrectly interrupts the flow of the main verb or its complement.
Question 36: What nouns are singular in the following list?
- Crisis
- Locus
- Ovum
- all of the above (Correct answer)
Correct answer: all of the above
To determine the correct answer, one must identify the singular forms of the given nouns. "Crisis" is singular (plural: crises), "Ovum" is singular (plural: ova), and "Locus" is singular (plural: loci). Since all three options are singular nouns, "all of the above" is the correct choice.
Question 37: An author repeatedly uses words like "shocking," "disastrous," and "alarming" to describe a policy. This word choice reveals the author's:
- Use of statistics
- Strong negative bias (Correct answer)
- Neutral reporting
- Support for the policy
Correct answer: Strong negative bias
Emotionally charged negative words reveal the author's strong bias against the policy.
Question 38: What is the difference between a cation and an anion?
- Cations are positively charged (lost electrons); anions are negatively charged (gained electrons) (Correct answer)
- Cations have more neutrons; anions have more protons
- Cations are nonmetals; anions are metals
- Cations are negatively charged; anions are positively charged
Correct answer: Cations are positively charged (lost electrons); anions are negatively charged (gained electrons)
Cations form when an atom loses electrons (becoming positively charged); anions form when an atom gains electrons (becoming negatively charged).
Question 39: In a biology textbook, a section heading reads 'How Antibiotics Combat Bacterial Infections.' Which of the following would most likely appear in this section?
- An explanation of mechanisms by which antibiotics kill or inhibit bacteria (Correct answer)
- Statistics on antibiotic prescription rates by country
- A history of Alexander Fleming's discovery of penicillin
- A comparison of viral and fungal infections
Correct answer: An explanation of mechanisms by which antibiotics kill or inhibit bacteria
The heading specifies 'how antibiotics combat' infections, indicating the section will explain the mechanisms of antibiotic action against bacteria.
Question 40: Solve for x: 3x + 7 = 22
- x = 9
- x = 3
- x = 5 (Correct answer)
- x = 7
Correct answer: x = 5
Subtract 7 from both sides: 3x = 15. Then divide both sides by 3: x = 5.
Question 41: Choose the sentence with parallel structure.
- She likes reading, to swim, and biking.
- She likes read, swim, and to bike.
- She likes to read, swimming, and bike.
- She likes reading, swimming, and biking. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: She likes reading, swimming, and biking.
All three items use the same -ing form for parallelism.
Question 42: What is the median of the data set: 14, 9, 22, 17, 5, 11, 22?
- 11
- 14 (Correct answer)
- 22
- 17
Correct answer: 14
Ordered: 5, 9, 11, 14, 17, 22, 22 — the middle (4th) value is 14.
Question 43: Which passage statement is true?
- Karla’s team achieved 11% growth in global sales. (Correct answer)
- Mrs. Bukhari appreciates all of Karla’s hard work.
- Karla is dedicated to her employer, Systematic Alliance Reserve, Inc.
- Karla’s new parking spot will be better than her old one.
Correct answer: Karla’s team achieved 11% growth in global sales.
This is a factual recall question, meaning the information about Karla's team achieving 11% growth in global sales must be explicitly stated within the passage. The other options might be inferences, subjective statements, or not directly supported by the text.
Question 44: A healthcare student reads an article arguing that hospital food quality directly impacts patient recovery speed. The student notices the author has financial ties to a food service company. This should lead the student to:
- Recognize a potential conflict of interest and evaluate the evidence more critically (Correct answer)
- Report the author to academic authorities
- Immediately dismiss the article as completely worthless
- Accept the findings because the author is a healthcare expert
Correct answer: Recognize a potential conflict of interest and evaluate the evidence more critically
A conflict of interest doesn't automatically invalidate research, but it requires the reader to evaluate the evidence with greater scrutiny for potential bias.
Question 45: Which of the following organelles would be used in cellular respiration, the process that generates cellular energy?
- chloroplast
- ribosome
- mitochondria (Correct answer)
- nucleolus
Correct answer: mitochondria
Cellular respiration is the metabolic process that converts glucose and oxygen into ATP, the primary energy currency of the cell. This vital process primarily occurs within the mitochondria, often referred to as the 'powerhouses' of the cell, making them essential for generating cellular energy.
Question 46: What is the name of the source that contains a number of maps?
- Almanac
- App
- Atlas (Correct answer)
- Anthology
Correct answer: Atlas
An atlas is a collection of maps, usually bound into a book or presented as a digital resource. Its primary purpose is to provide comprehensive geographical information, including physical features, political boundaries, and thematic data. Therefore, it is the definitive source for finding a compilation of maps.
Question 47: Which fraction is largest: 3/5, 7/12, 5/8, or 2/3?
- 2/3 (Correct answer)
- 5/8
- 3/5
- 7/12
Correct answer: 2/3
Converting to decimals: 3/5=0.60, 7/12≈0.583, 5/8=0.625, 2/3≈0.667 — 2/3 is largest.
Question 48: A passage about Florence Nightingale describes her early life, then her work in Crimea, then her later reforms to hospital sanitation. Which text structure is being used?
- Chronological (Correct answer)
- Cause and effect
- Problem and solution
- Compare and contrast
Correct answer: Chronological
Chronological structure organizes events in the order they occurred over time. Signal words like 'then,' 'next,' 'later,' and 'finally' typically appear in this structure.
Question 49: Which blood vessels carry blood AWAY from the heart?
- Capillaries
- Arteries (Correct answer)
- Venules
- Veins
Correct answer: Arteries
Arteries carry blood away from the heart (regardless of whether the blood is oxygenated or deoxygenated).
Question 50: Which of the following BEST describes the difference between a fact and an opinion?
- Facts can be verified through evidence; opinions express personal views or judgments (Correct answer)
- Facts require no proof; opinions require extensive evidence
- Facts are always true; opinions can be true or false
- Facts are found in textbooks; opinions are found in newspapers
Correct answer: Facts can be verified through evidence; opinions express personal views or judgments
Facts are objectively verifiable claims supported by evidence; opinions express personal views, beliefs, or value judgments that may not be verifiable.
Question 51: What is the correct plural form of "criterion"?
- Criterions
- Criterions
- Criterias
- Criteria (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Criteria
"Criteria" is the correct plural of "criterion," which comes from Greek. "Criterions" exists but is less preferred. "Criterias" is always incorrect.
Question 52: Which of the following correctly describes the central dogma of molecular biology?
- DNA → RNA → Protein (Correct answer)
- RNA → DNA → Protein
- Protein → RNA → DNA
- DNA → Protein → RNA
Correct answer: DNA → RNA → Protein
The central dogma describes the flow of genetic information: DNA is transcribed to RNA, which is translated to protein.
Question 53: Which sentence avoids a double negative?
- She didn't say nothing.
- I don't have no money.
- I don't have any money. (Correct answer)
- I can't hardly see.
Correct answer: I don't have any money.
'Don't have any' correctly uses a single negative.
Question 54: An author presents only the advantages of a proposal and omits any drawbacks. This approach suggests the passage is:
- A balanced analysis
- A factual summary
- A neutral report
- Persuasive and one-sided (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Persuasive and one-sided
Presenting only advantages and ignoring drawbacks marks the passage as persuasive and one-sided.
Question 55: What is the slope of the line y = 4x - 3?
- -3
- 3
- 4 (Correct answer)
- -4
Correct answer: 4
In slope-intercept form y = mx + b, the slope m is 4.
Question 56: During photosynthesis, which two compounds are combined to create the output of glucose and oxygen?
- Bicarbonate and water.
- Carbon dioxide and bicarbonate.
- Carbon dioxide and multiple alkaline substances.
- Carbon dioxide and water. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Carbon dioxide and water.
Photosynthesis is the fundamental process by which plants convert light energy into chemical energy. The balanced chemical equation for photosynthesis shows that carbon dioxide (CO₂) and water (H₂O) are the primary reactants. These compounds are combined in the presence of sunlight to produce glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) as food and oxygen (O₂) as a byproduct.
Question 57: A blood glucose test, or fasting PG test, is given after a patient has gone without food for at least eight hours. It's widely considered to be a reliable test, and it appears the results aren't affected by patient age or physical activity. Many doctors prefer this method of testing because it's easy, fast and inexpensive. In this context, reliable means
- benign
- considerable
- noteworthy
- considerable (Correct answer)
Correct answer: considerable
The term 'reliable' in this context implies that the test consistently yields accurate and trustworthy results, unaffected by external factors like age or activity. While 'considerable' typically means significant in amount or extent, it can also imply importance or significance. Therefore, a 'reliable' test is a 'considerable' or important tool for diagnosis due to its consistent accuracy.
Question 58: Which of the following is a possible cause of herniation of discs?
- plantar fasciitis
- ulcer
- whiplash (Correct answer)
- hepatitis
Correct answer: whiplash
Whiplash is a common injury to the neck caused by a sudden, forceful back-and-forth movement of the head, often from car accidents. This rapid movement can place significant stress on the intervertebral discs in the spine, potentially leading to their bulging or herniation.
Question 59: What is the purpose of a "thesis statement" in a persuasive essay?
- To provide background on the topic without taking a position
- To present the opposing viewpoint before refuting it
- To state the author's main position or argument clearly (Correct answer)
- To list all the evidence supporting the main claim
Correct answer: To state the author's main position or argument clearly
A thesis statement presents the author's central argument or claim in a clear, concise sentence. Every paragraph in the essay should support this statement. It is typically found at the end of the introduction.
Question 60: Based on the context, what does the word 'palliative' mean in this sentence: 'The oncology team shifted from curative to palliative care, focusing on comfort and quality of life rather than eliminating the disease.'?
- Care that treats disease symptoms and improves comfort when a cure is not possible (Correct answer)
- Aggressive, experimental medical treatment
- A form of chemotherapy that cures cancer
- Surgical removal of a tumor
Correct answer: Care that treats disease symptoms and improves comfort when a cure is not possible
Context clues: 'shifted from curative' (opposite of palliative), 'focusing on comfort and quality of life rather than eliminating the disease' — palliative care provides comfort when curing is no longer the goal.
Question 61: From "She slid the untouched plate away and stared out the window," the reader can best infer that the character:
- Was satisfied with the meal
- Disliked the restaurant's food
- Was waiting for someone to join her
- Had lost her appetite, likely from distress (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Had lost her appetite, likely from distress
Pushing away untouched food and staring away suggests distress that has taken her appetite.
Question 62: Here, the term "reliable" refers to
- benign
- considerable
- accurate (Correct answer)
- noteworthy
Correct answer: accurate
The term "reliable" refers to the consistency and trustworthiness of information or data. An accurate measurement or piece of information is one that is correct and free from error, making it dependable and reliable. Therefore, "accurate" is the best synonym for "reliable" among the given choices, as it directly implies correctness and dependability.
Question 63: A recipe calls for 3¼ cups of flour. If you want to make 1.5 times the recipe, how many cups of flour do you need?
- 4¼ cups
- 4½ cups
- 4¾ cups
- 4⅞ cups (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 4⅞ cups
3.25 × 1.5 = 4.875 cups, which equals 4⅞ cups.
Question 64: Which law states that energy cannot be created or destroyed?
- Newton's second law
- Law of conservation of energy (Correct answer)
- Boyle's law
- Ohm's law
Correct answer: Law of conservation of energy
The law of conservation of energy says energy only transforms between forms.
Question 65: What is the passage's main argument by the author?
- Gandhi started a congress in India to pass legislation to fix unfair labor policies in the country.
- Gandhi used non-violent protests to successfully alert the world to unfair practices of the British against his country of India. (Correct answer)
- Gandhi went too far in his protests and was subsequently imprisoned by the British authorities in India.
- Gandhi was probably the most effective historical figure to use the tactic of a hunger strike.
Correct answer: Gandhi used non-violent protests to successfully alert the world to unfair practices of the British against his country of India.
This statement comprehensively summarizes Gandhi's historical significance by identifying his primary method (non-violent protests), his objective (alerting the world to British injustices), and the outcome (successful challenge to unfair practices). It captures the core essence of his movement and its global impact.
Question 66: In the digestive system of a mammal, nutrient absorption is most likely to happen in which of the following structures?
- duodenum (Correct answer)
- epiglottis
- stomach
- cecum
Correct answer: duodenum
The duodenum is the first section of the small intestine, and it is the primary site for the chemical digestion of chyme and the absorption of most nutrients. While some absorption occurs throughout the small intestine, and the stomach digests food, the duodenum is where the bulk of nutrient uptake into the bloodstream happens.
Question 67: Round 4.7852 to the nearest hundredth.
- 4.79 (Correct answer)
- 4.785
- 4.8
- 4.78
Correct answer: 4.79
The digit in the thousandths place is 5, so round the hundredths digit up: 4.79.
Question 68: Which of the following BEST demonstrates the use of context clues to determine word meaning?
- Using the surrounding sentences and information to infer the word's meaning (Correct answer)
- Asking a classmate what the word means
- Looking up the word in a medical dictionary
- Skipping unfamiliar words and re-reading the passage
Correct answer: Using the surrounding sentences and information to infer the word's meaning
Context clues involve using information within the passage — surrounding sentences, contrasting ideas, examples, and definitions — to infer the meaning of an unfamiliar word.
Question 69: Which of the following statements about enzymes is TRUE?
- Enzymes are consumed in the reactions they catalyze.
- Enzymes are denatured and permanently destroyed at 37°C.
- Enzymes lower the activation energy required for a chemical reaction. (Correct answer)
- Enzymes can only catalyze reactions in acidic conditions.
Correct answer: Enzymes lower the activation energy required for a chemical reaction.
Enzymes are biological catalysts that lower the activation energy needed for a reaction, allowing it to proceed faster without being consumed in the process.
Question 70: What type of reaction releases heat to the surroundings?
- Exothermic (Correct answer)
- Endothermic
- Neutral
- Catalytic
Correct answer: Exothermic
Exothermic reactions release energy as heat.
Question 71: A pharmacy stock of 480 tablets must be divided equally among 6 patients over 4 days. How many tablets does each patient receive per day?
- 25
- 20 (Correct answer)
- 15
- 30
Correct answer: 20
Total tablets per patient = 480/6 = 80. Per day = 80/4 = 20 tablets per patient per day.
Question 72: What is the purpose of an "abstract" in a scientific article?
- To give a brief overview of the study's purpose, methods, and findings (Correct answer)
- To list all references cited in the article
- To provide detailed methodology for replicating the study
- To present the raw data collected during the study
Correct answer: To give a brief overview of the study's purpose, methods, and findings
An abstract is a concise summary (usually 150–300 words) that gives readers a quick overview of the research: what was studied, how, and what was found. It helps readers decide whether to read the full article.
Question 73: Identify the dangling modifier: 'Running late, the bus was missed by Maria.'
- There is no dangling modifier in this sentence
- 'By Maria' is the dangling modifier
- 'Running late' correctly modifies 'the bus'
- 'Running late' is a dangling modifier because the bus cannot run late (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 'Running late' is a dangling modifier because the bus cannot run late
'Running late' dangles because it appears to modify 'the bus' rather than Maria.
Question 74: If you have 200 mL of a 60% sodium chloride solution, how much NaCl is dissolved in the solution?
- 80 g
- 120 g (Correct answer)
- 50 g
- 20 g
Correct answer: 120 g
A 60% sodium chloride solution typically means that there are 60 grams of NaCl dissolved per 100 mL of solution (mass/volume percentage). To find the amount of NaCl in 200 mL, you can set up a proportion: (60 g NaCl / 100 mL solution) = (X g NaCl / 200 mL solution). Solving for X gives X = (60 * 200) / 100 = 120 grams of NaCl.
Question 75: The medical prefix 'brady-' as used in 'bradycardia' (abnormally slow heart rate) means which of the following?
- Abnormal or irregular
- Fast or accelerated
- Heart or cardiac
- Slow (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Slow
The prefix 'brady-' means slow. Bradycardia = slow + heart (kardia). Its opposite, tachycardia, uses 'tachy-' meaning fast.
Question 76: Which of the following sentences correctly uses a semicolon?
- The patient was ready; to be discharged.
- She studied for the exam; but failed.
- The procedure was completed; quickly and efficiently.
- The nurse was tired; however, she finished her shift. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The nurse was tired; however, she finished her shift.
A semicolon before a conjunctive adverb ('however') correctly joins two independent clauses. 'However' requires a semicolon before it and a comma after when connecting clauses.
Question 77: Identify the sentence with a dangling modifier.
- I saw a dog while walking to school.
- While I walked, a dog barked.
- Walking to school, the dog barked at me. (Correct answer)
- Walking to school, I saw a dog.
Correct answer: Walking to school, the dog barked at me.
The modifier implies the dog was walking to school, which is illogical.
Question 78: Which sentence is punctuated correctly with a series of three or more items?
- The patient needed oxygen, fluids, and rest. (Correct answer)
- The patient needed oxygen fluids, and rest.
- The patient needed oxygen, fluids and rest.
- The patient needed, oxygen fluids, and rest.
Correct answer: The patient needed oxygen, fluids, and rest.
In a series of three or more items, a comma should appear after each item including before the conjunction. The Oxford (serial) comma before 'and' clarifies meaning.
Question 79: Which of the following is NOT a form of tissue?
- epithelial
- parenchyma (Correct answer)
- nervous
- connective
Correct answer: parenchyma
In biology, the four primary types of animal tissues are epithelial, connective, muscular, and nervous tissue. Parenchyma, on the other hand, is a type of plant tissue, specifically a fundamental tissue found in the cortex and pith of stems, roots, and in the mesophyll of leaves. Therefore, parenchyma is not a form of animal tissue.
Question 80: In a chemical equation, what does the law of conservation of mass require?
- Products must be simpler than reactants
- The number of atoms of each element must be equal on both sides of the equation (Correct answer)
- Reactions always release energy
- Products must weigh more than reactants
Correct answer: The number of atoms of each element must be equal on both sides of the equation
The law of conservation of mass states that matter cannot be created or destroyed — the total mass and number of atoms of each element must be the same on both sides of a chemical equation.
Question 81: An instruction manual for a blood glucose monitor states: 'Step 1: Wash hands with warm soapy water and dry thoroughly. Step 2: Insert a new test strip into the monitor. Step 3: Use the lancing device to obtain a blood sample from the side of a fingertip. Step 4: Touch the blood drop to the edge of the test strip.' Why does the manual specify 'the side of a fingertip' in Step 3?
- The side of the fingertip produces more blood than the pad
- Blood from the side of the fingertip gives more accurate readings
- The monitor can only read blood from the side of the fingertip
- The side of the fingertip has fewer nerve endings, causing less pain (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The side of the fingertip has fewer nerve endings, causing less pain
The sides of fingertips have fewer nerve endings than the pads, so lancing there causes less pain while still providing an adequate blood sample.
Question 82: What type of cells result from mitosis?
- one diploid cell
- two haploid cells
- four haploid cells
- two diploid cells (Correct answer)
Correct answer: two diploid cells
Mitosis is a type of cell division that produces two genetically identical daughter cells from a single parent cell. During mitosis, a diploid parent cell (containing two complete sets of chromosomes) undergoes division to create two new cells, each also diploid and containing the same number of chromosomes as the original parent cell. This process is crucial for growth, tissue repair, and asexual reproduction.
Question 83: What is produced when an acid reacts with a base?
- Two acids
- An element
- A salt and water (Correct answer)
- A metal and gas
Correct answer: A salt and water
Neutralization of an acid and base produces a salt and water.
Question 84: Which of the following is an example of an argument based on a generalization?
- Data from 50,000 patients shows a 60% success rate for this procedure.
- Research suggests that regular exercise may improve cardiovascular health.
- Five studies show the drug reduces blood pressure — therefore it is effective.
- One nurse was rude to me, so all nurses must be rude. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: One nurse was rude to me, so all nurses must be rude.
Concluding that 'all nurses are rude' based on one experience with one nurse is a hasty generalization — a logical fallacy that draws a broad conclusion from insufficient evidence.
Question 85: Solve for y: 4y - 12 = 2y + 6
- y = 12
- y = 3
- y = 6
- y = 9 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: y = 9
Subtract 2y: 2y - 12 = 6. Add 12: 2y = 18. Divide by 2: y = 9.
Question 86: What's the scale's maximum weight?
- 115 lbs.
- 280 lbs.
- 28 lbs.
- 300 lbs. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 300 lbs.
To determine the scale's maximum weight, one must examine the markings or digital display on the scale itself. The maximum weight capacity is typically indicated by the highest number on the dial or the upper limit of its digital range. In this case, "300 lbs." represents the highest measurable weight the scale is designed to handle.
Question 87: Which type of graph would best indicate the percentage of a school’s annual scholarship fund spent on freshman students?
- line graph
- scatter plot
- histogram
- pie chart (Correct answer)
Correct answer: pie chart
A pie chart is the best type of graph to indicate the percentage of a whole that is spent on a particular category. It visually represents parts of a whole, making it easy to see the proportion of the scholarship fund allocated to freshman students compared to other groups or the total. Other graph types like line graphs or scatter plots are better for showing trends or relationships between variables over time, not proportions of a total.
Question 88: In a persuasive article, the author cites five studies supporting her argument but omits four studies with contradictory findings. This technique is best described as:
- Cherry-picking — selectively using only evidence that supports one's position (Correct answer)
- Ethos — building credibility by citing academic sources
- Red herring — introducing irrelevant information to distract from the main point
- Bandwagon appeal — claiming an argument is correct because many people agree
Correct answer: Cherry-picking — selectively using only evidence that supports one's position
Cherry-picking involves deliberately selecting only evidence that supports one's argument while ignoring contradictory data. This is a logical fallacy that undermines the objectivity of the argument.
Question 89: Which detail would most strengthen an author's argument that a city is becoming safer?
- More tourists visited last summer
- The city built a new park
- Police records show crime dropped 30% over five years (Correct answer)
- A resident says it feels safer
Correct answer: Police records show crime dropped 30% over five years
Documented crime statistics provide direct, measurable support for the claim of greater safety.
Question 90: A brick stack is 3 1/2 feet tall. What is the number of bricks in the stack if each brick is 1 3/4 inches high?
- 28
- 2
- 24 (Correct answer)
- 12
Correct answer: 24
First, convert all measurements to a common unit, such as inches. The brick stack is 3 1/2 feet tall, which is 3.5 feet. Since 1 foot equals 12 inches, the stack height in inches is 3.5 × 12 = 42 inches. Each brick is 1 3/4 inches high, which is 1.75 inches. To find the number of bricks, divide the total stack height by the height of one brick: 42 inches ÷ 1.75 inches/brick = 24 bricks. Therefore, there are 24 bricks in the stack.
Question 91: Simplify the expression above. Which of the following is correct?
- 29/72 (Correct answer)
- 18/126
- 22/67
- 14/54
Correct answer: 29/72
Without the specific expression provided, we assume the task is to simplify a fraction or an algebraic expression that results in 29/72. To simplify a fraction, you divide both the numerator and the denominator by their greatest common divisor (GCD). In this case, 29 is a prime number, and 72 is not a multiple of 29, meaning there are no common factors other than 1. Therefore, the fraction 29/72 is already in its simplest form.
Question 92: Read this passage: 'Studies suggest that mindfulness practices may reduce anxiety in some patients.' How does the author qualify this claim?
- By including personal testimonials from patients
- By using absolute language to confirm the effectiveness of mindfulness
- By citing specific research studies with sample sizes
- By using words like 'studies suggest' and 'may reduce' and 'some patients' (Correct answer)
Correct answer: By using words like 'studies suggest' and 'may reduce' and 'some patients'
The author uses hedging language — 'studies suggest' (not confirms), 'may reduce' (not definitely reduces), 'some patients' (not all) — to qualify the claim and indicate uncertainty.
Question 93: Derek purchased concert tickets in the month of June for $73, $66, $96, $17, and $66 dollars. Which of the following is an accurate estimate of the total amount he spent on concert tickets in June?
- $330 (Correct answer)
- $360
- $300
- $400
Correct answer: $330
To estimate the total amount, round each concert ticket price to the nearest ten dollars. The prices become $70, $70, $100, $20, and $70. Summing these rounded values gives $70 + $70 + $100 + $20 + $70 = $330. This provides an accurate estimate of the total amount spent.
Question 94: Which of the following correctly pairs an organ with its primary function in the endocrine system?
- Adrenal gland — produces estrogen for reproduction
- Pineal gland — regulates blood pressure
- Pancreas — produces insulin to regulate blood glucose (Correct answer)
- Thyroid gland — regulates immune response
Correct answer: Pancreas — produces insulin to regulate blood glucose
The pancreas produces insulin (from beta cells) and glucagon (from alpha cells) to regulate blood glucose levels. The thyroid regulates metabolism; the adrenal glands produce stress hormones (cortisol, epinephrine); the pineal gland produces melatonin.
Question 95: Which of the following is an example of a run-on sentence?
- The patient had a high fever, and the doctor was called immediately.
- Because the patient had a high fever, the doctor was called immediately.
- The patient had a high fever; the doctor was called immediately.
- The patient had a high fever the doctor was called immediately. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The patient had a high fever the doctor was called immediately.
Option C is a run-on (fused sentence) — two independent clauses joined without any punctuation or conjunction.
Question 96: The well-stocked larder was replete with dozens of canned goods intended to last through the winter. Which of the following is the meaning of the underlined word above?
- exploding
- managed
- heavy
- full (Correct answer)
Correct answer: full
The word 'replete' means completely filled or well-supplied with something. In the context of a 'well-stocked larder' filled 'with dozens of canned goods,' 'full' is the most accurate synonym. It indicates that the larder was abundantly supplied.
Question 97: Which sentence uses the correct verb tense for a completed past action affecting now?
- I have finished my report. (Correct answer)
- I finish my report.
- I finishing my report.
- I will finish my report.
Correct answer: I have finished my report.
Present perfect 'have finished' links a past action to the present.
Question 98: Which word is a preposition in: 'The book is on the table'?
- Table
- On (Correct answer)
- Book
- Is
Correct answer: On
'On' shows the relationship between the book and the table.
Question 99: Which of the following is an example of a compound sentence?
- The patient was stable, but the doctor ordered more tests. (Correct answer)
- Running late, she skipped breakfast.
- The nurse checked the patient's vitals.
- After reviewing the chart, the doctor made her decision.
Correct answer: The patient was stable, but the doctor ordered more tests.
A compound sentence joins two independent clauses with a coordinating conjunction. "The patient was stable" and "the doctor ordered more tests" are both independent clauses joined by "but."
Question 100: Which of the following is an example of a transitional phrase that shows contrast?
- As a result
- In addition
- On the other hand (Correct answer)
- Furthermore
Correct answer: On the other hand
'On the other hand' is a transitional phrase that signals contrast between ideas. 'In addition' and 'Furthermore' add information; 'As a result' shows cause-effect.
Question 101: Simplify the expression: 4x + 3x - 2x.
- 7x
- x
- 5x (Correct answer)
- 9x
Correct answer: 5x
Combine like terms: 4 + 3 - 2 = 5, giving 5x.
Question 102: If 2/3 of a quantity is 24, what is the full quantity?
- 32
- 48
- 16
- 36 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 36
Let n = the quantity. (2/3)n = 24. Multiply both sides by 3/2: n = 24 × (3/2) = 36.
Question 103: The square above is based on the eye color of two parents, one of whom has brown eyes and carries the recessive gene for green eyes (a). What is the probability that a biological child of these parents will have brown eyes?
- 50% (Correct answer)
- 100%
- 25%
- 0%
Correct answer: 50%
Assuming 'B' represents the dominant brown eye gene and 'b' represents the recessive green eye gene, and the brown-eyed parent carrying the recessive gene is heterozygous (Bb). If the other parent is homozygous recessive (bb, green eyes), a Punnett square cross (Bb x bb) would yield 50% Bb (brown eyes) and 50% bb (green eyes). Thus, the probability of a child having brown eyes is 50%.
Question 104: In a textbook, which section should you look to get the definition of a term?
- Dictionary
- Glossary (Correct answer)
- Thesaurus
- Index
Correct answer: Glossary
A glossary is a list of specialized terms with their definitions, typically found at the end of a book or textbook. Its purpose is to provide quick and easy access to the meanings of important vocabulary used within that specific text. Therefore, when looking for the definition of a term within a textbook, the glossary is the most appropriate section to consult.
Question 105: The type of light used in a lab experiment meant to measure how quickly plants develop when exposed to artificial light is an example of which type of variable?
- responding
- dependent
- independent (Correct answer)
- random
Correct answer: independent
In a scientific experiment, the independent variable is the factor that is intentionally changed or manipulated by the experimenter to observe its effect. In this scenario, the type of light used is the variable being controlled and altered to see how it influences plant development, making it the independent variable. The plant development itself would be the dependent variable.
Question 106: A passage states: 'The Amazon rainforest produces approximately 20% of the world's oxygen and is home to 10% of all species on Earth.' What is the main idea of this sentence?
- The Amazon rainforest plays a critical role in global biodiversity and oxygen production. (Correct answer)
- Ten percent of all species live in South America.
- Oxygen is primarily produced by forests.
- The Amazon rainforest is the largest forest in the world.
Correct answer: The Amazon rainforest plays a critical role in global biodiversity and oxygen production.
The sentence highlights two key facts about the Amazon's global importance — oxygen production and species diversity — making option B the main idea. The other choices are either not stated or too narrow.
Question 107: Choose the sentence that avoids a double negative.
- She can't find nothing in the supply room.
- He didn't say anything about the results. (Correct answer)
- I don't have no time to review the chart.
- They won't go nowhere near that area.
Correct answer: He didn't say anything about the results.
"He didn't say anything" uses a single negative correctly. "Anything" is a negative word that works with "didn't." The other options use double negatives (don't/no, can't/nothing, won't/nowhere).
Question 108: Which structure prevents food from entering the trachea during swallowing?
- Pharynx
- Larynx
- Epiglottis (Correct answer)
- Uvula
Correct answer: Epiglottis
The epiglottis is a flap of cartilage that covers the trachea during swallowing to direct food into the esophagus.
Question 109: The large intestine's primary function is to:
- Digest proteins
- Absorb fats
- Secrete digestive enzymes
- Absorb water and form feces (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Absorb water and form feces
The large intestine absorbs water and electrolytes from indigestible material and consolidates it into feces for elimination.
Question 110: A patient needs 500 mL of IV fluid over 4 hours. What is the flow rate in mL per hour?
- 150 mL/hr
- 100 mL/hr
- 125 mL/hr (Correct answer)
- 115 mL/hr
Correct answer: 125 mL/hr
Flow rate = Volume / Time = 500 mL ÷ 4 hours = 125 mL/hr.
Question 111: In 2017, which department's summer classes had the most students?
- Science
- Business
- Literature
- History (Correct answer)
Correct answer: History
To answer this question, one would need to refer to a specific data source, such as a chart or table, that lists student enrollment numbers for various departments' summer classes in 2017. Based on the provided correct answer, the data indicates that the History department had the highest number of students during that period. Without the actual data, the explanation relies on the premise that the correct answer accurately reflects the information presented in the original context.
Question 112: What type of sentence is this: "Although she was tired, she completed her charting"?
- Compound
- Compound-complex
- Complex (Correct answer)
- Simple
Correct answer: Complex
A complex sentence has one independent clause ("she completed her charting") and at least one dependent clause ("Although she was tired"). The word "although" introduces the dependent clause.
Question 113: What kind of source is a prehistoric artifact?
- Primary (Correct answer)
- Compiled
- Tertiary
- Secondary
Correct answer: Primary
A primary source is an original document or physical object created at the time under study, offering direct evidence. A prehistoric artifact, such as a tool, pottery, or artwork from a past era, is an original item from that period. Therefore, it serves as direct evidence for historical or archaeological study, classifying it as a primary source.
Question 114: Which of the following correctly factors x² - 9?
- (x + 3)²
- (x + 3)(x - 3) (Correct answer)
- (x - 3)²
- (x - 9)(x + 1)
Correct answer: (x + 3)(x - 3)
x² - 9 is a difference of two squares: a² - b² = (a + b)(a - b). Here a = x and b = 3, giving (x + 3)(x - 3).
Question 115: Based on the blood pressure monitor above, what is this patient’s pulse rate?
- 130/82
- 73 (Correct answer)
- 82
- 130
Correct answer: 73
To determine the patient's pulse rate, one must refer to the provided image of the blood pressure monitor. The pulse rate is typically displayed as a distinct numerical value, often labeled with 'PULSE' or a heart symbol, separate from the systolic and diastolic blood pressure readings. The correct answer of 73 would be the number displayed for the pulse on the monitor.
Question 116: What is the correct capitalization for the following sentence: 'the patient was admitted to riverside community hospital on tuesday.'
- The Patient was admitted to Riverside Community Hospital on Tuesday.
- The patient was admitted to Riverside Community Hospital on Tuesday. (Correct answer)
- The patient was admitted to Riverside Community hospital on Tuesday.
- the patient was admitted to Riverside Community Hospital on Tuesday.
Correct answer: The patient was admitted to Riverside Community Hospital on Tuesday.
Proper nouns (Riverside Community Hospital) and the first word of a sentence must be capitalized. Days of the week (Tuesday) are also proper nouns requiring capitalization.
Question 117: What is the largest organ of the human body?
- Skin (Correct answer)
- Liver
- Brain
- Lungs
Correct answer: Skin
The skin is the body's largest organ and serves as a protective barrier and temperature regulator.
Question 118: Which blood type is considered the 'universal donor'?
- Type B negative
- Type AB positive
- Type O negative (Correct answer)
- Type A positive
Correct answer: Type O negative
Type O negative blood lacks A, B, and Rh antigens on red blood cells, making it safe to transfuse to most patients in emergencies.
Question 119: What word relates to the toes among the following?
- Orthopedic
- Polydactyl (Correct answer)
- Hyperdipsia
- Dysphagia
Correct answer: Polydactyl
Polydactyl refers to the condition of having extra fingers or toes. The root 'dactyl' specifically relates to digits, which include toes. The prefix 'poly-' means many, indicating multiple digits beyond the usual count, making it the correct word related to toes.
Question 120: A researcher wants to test whether a new fertilizer increases plant growth. She grows 50 plants with the fertilizer and 50 plants without it under identical conditions. What is the control group?
- The researcher observing the plants
- The 50 plants grown without the new fertilizer (Correct answer)
- The type of soil used in the experiment
- The 50 plants grown with the new fertilizer
Correct answer: The 50 plants grown without the new fertilizer
The control group receives no treatment and serves as the baseline for comparison. The plants grown without fertilizer are the control; those with fertilizer are the experimental group.
Question 121: What is the difference between an element and a compound?
- An element contains only one type of atom; a compound contains two or more elements chemically bonded together (Correct answer)
- Elements can be separated by physical means; compounds cannot be separated at all
- A compound has fewer atoms than an element
- An element is a mixture; a compound is a pure substance
Correct answer: An element contains only one type of atom; a compound contains two or more elements chemically bonded together
An element is a pure substance consisting of only one type of atom (e.g., oxygen O₂). A compound is a pure substance formed when two or more different elements are chemically bonded in fixed proportions (e.g., water H₂O).
Question 122: ______ the small intestine is the stomach. Which completes the sentence? <br> <br> Which completes the sentence?
- lateral
- posterior
- proximal
- superior (Correct answer)
Correct answer: superior
In anatomical terms, "superior" means above or towards the head. The stomach is located above the small intestine in the human body. Therefore, the stomach is superior to the small intestine, indicating its position relative to the small intestine.
Question 123: What is the cost of a DVD without the sales tax if you buy $22.90 for one that has a 7% sales tax included?
- $21.40 (Correct answer)
- $21.30
- $20.95
- $21.50
Correct answer: $21.40
Let 'x' be the original cost of the DVD without sales tax. With a 7% sales tax, the total cost is x + 0.07x, which simplifies to 1.07x. We are given that the total cost is $22.90, so 1.07x = $22.90. To find 'x', divide $22.90 by 1.07, which gives $21.4018... Rounding to two decimal places, the cost of the DVD without sales tax is $21.40.
Question 124: A character "checked the locks twice, then a third time, before finally sitting down." What is the most reasonable inference?
- The character is forgetful
- The character feels anxious or unsafe (Correct answer)
- The character dislikes the house
- The character is tired
Correct answer: The character feels anxious or unsafe
Repeatedly checking the locks implies anxiety or a feeling of being unsafe.
Question 125: Which of the following is the correct order of operations for evaluating 6 + 2 × 4²?
- Exponent first, then multiply, then add: 4² = 16; 2 × 16 = 32; 6 + 32 = 38 (Correct answer)
- Add first: 6 + 2 = 8; then 8 × 4² = 8 × 16 = 128
- Evaluate left to right only: 6 + 2 = 8; 8 × 4 = 32; 32² = 1024
- Multiply first: 2 × 4 = 8; then 8² = 64; then 6 + 64 = 70
Correct answer: Exponent first, then multiply, then add: 4² = 16; 2 × 16 = 32; 6 + 32 = 38
PEMDAS: Exponents (4² = 16), then Multiplication (2 × 16 = 32), then Addition (6 + 32 = 38).
Question 126: Read the following passage from a pharmacology text: 'First-generation antihistamines such as diphenhydramine readily cross the blood-brain barrier, causing drowsiness. Second-generation antihistamines like loratadine were designed to be less lipophilic, significantly reducing CNS penetration and sedative effects while maintaining peripheral H1 receptor blockade.' The relationship between the two sentences is best described as:
- The second sentence provides statistical evidence for the first
- The second sentence provides an exception to the first
- The second sentence describes a solution developed in response to the limitation in the first (Correct answer)
- The second sentence contradicts the claim made in the first
Correct answer: The second sentence describes a solution developed in response to the limitation in the first
The first sentence identifies a problem (drowsiness from first-generation antihistamines), and the second describes how second-generation drugs were designed to address that limitation.
Question 127: The diaphragm is most directly involved in which body process?
- Digestion
- Circulation
- Filtration
- Breathing (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Breathing
The diaphragm contracts and relaxes to draw air into and push it out of the lungs.
Question 128: What kind of text most closely resembles an academic essay?
- Technical
- Procedural
- Expository (Correct answer)
- Narrative
Correct answer: Expository
An academic essay primarily aims to explain, describe, or argue a particular point or topic, often supported by evidence and analysis. This purpose aligns most closely with an 'expository' text, which is designed to inform, explain, or clarify. Narrative texts tell stories, procedural texts give instructions, and technical texts provide detailed information, but expository best captures the explanatory nature of academic essays.
Question 129: A passage notes a scientist published results but refused to share her data with other researchers. A critical reader might reasonably question:
- The length of the paper
- Whether the results can be verified (Correct answer)
- The scientist's nationality
- The color of the charts
Correct answer: Whether the results can be verified
Withholding data prevents verification, which a critical reader should question.
Question 130: A client who consumes one of these ready-made biscuits should likely restrict their consumption of which nutrient for the remainder of the day?
- Saturated fat (Correct answer)
- Fiber
- Cholesterol
- Carbohydrate
Correct answer: Saturated fat
Without the specific nutritional label for the ready-made biscuits, we infer that the correct answer points to a common nutritional concern. Ready-made baked goods, especially biscuits, are often high in saturated fat due to ingredients like butter, shortening, or palm oil. Consuming one biscuit with a high saturated fat content would necessitate restricting further intake of this nutrient to stay within daily recommended limits for heart health.
Question 131: Which of the following describes the flow of oxygenated blood from the heart to the body?
- systemic circulation (Correct answer)
- ventricular circulation
- pulmonary circulation
- cellular circulation
Correct answer: systemic circulation
Systemic circulation is the major circuit of the cardiovascular system responsible for transporting oxygenated blood from the left side of the heart, through the aorta, to all the tissues and organs of the body. After delivering oxygen and nutrients, it then returns deoxygenated blood back to the right side of the heart. This contrasts with pulmonary circulation, which moves blood between the heart and lungs.
Question 132: What type of cell division produces gametes with half the normal chromosome number?
- Meiosis (Correct answer)
- Cytokinesis
- Mitosis
- Replication
Correct answer: Meiosis
Meiosis produces haploid gametes with half the chromosome number.
Question 133: What is the value of 4! (4 factorial)?
- 24 (Correct answer)
- 12
- 48
- 8
Correct answer: 24
4! = 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 24.
Question 134: From a primitive form of exercise to a sophisticated leisure and competitive sport, swimming has evolved. Swimming is a demanding sport that calls for extensive training because it works almost all of the muscles in the body. In competitions, swimmers compete to cover a specified distance in the shortest amount of time using a particular swimming stroke. Additionally, swimmers train to increase their stamina and capacity for long swims. It is interesting to consider how swimming will develop for people in the future, either advancing into a progressive purpose or regressing to a primal mode of movement, because swimming has developed into a highly intricate competitive sport where one incorrect technique can disqualify a participant. <br> Which of the following scenarios would result in swimming as predicted by the author?
- Animals, including amphibians, begin to swim instinctively upon birth, as a dominant genetic trait.
- People swim in home and community pools to relax and exercise.
- Swimming remains a competitive Olympic sport.
- Humans settling on the moon use swimming techniques to move through space. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Humans settling on the moon use swimming techniques to move through space.
The author speculates about swimming's future, asking if it will advance into a 'progressive purpose' or regress. The scenario of 'Humans settling on the moon use swimming techniques to move through space' represents a highly advanced, novel, and 'progressive purpose' for swimming, aligning with the author's forward-looking speculation about its evolution beyond current forms. This option best reflects a significant future implication.
Question 135: A medication administration reference card reads: 'Verify the six rights of medication administration — right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time, and right documentation — before administering any medication. The right patient check requires two unique identifiers, such as name and date of birth, and must not rely solely on room number or bed assignment.' Why does the reference card specifically warn against relying on room number or bed assignment for patient identification?
- Room numbers are difficult to read in low-light clinical environments
- Date of birth is considered more legally defensible than room number in malpractice cases
- Patients may be moved between rooms or beds, making location an unreliable identifier (Correct answer)
- The Joint Commission requires exactly two identifiers and room number does not count as one
Correct answer: Patients may be moved between rooms or beds, making location an unreliable identifier
The passage implies that room or bed assignment can change — a patient may be transferred — making location a dynamic and therefore unreliable identifier, whereas name and date of birth are stable attributes tied to the individual.
Question 136: Which of these opinions is stated in the passage?
- Gulliver’s Travels is Swift’s most perfect satire. (Correct answer)
- In Gulliver’s Travels, Gulliver is unable to respond to the criticisms of the king in the land of giants.
- In Gulliver’s Travels, Gulliver discusses government and culture with the king of the land of giants.
- Gulliver’s Travels presents a dark view of humanity.
Correct answer: Gulliver’s Travels is Swift’s most perfect satire.
This question asks for a statement of opinion *from the passage itself*. While *Gulliver's Travels* is known for its dark view of humanity and Gulliver's inability to respond to the king's criticisms, these might be interpretations rather than direct statements within the passage. The statement "Gulliver’s Travels is Swift’s most perfect satire" is a definitive evaluative judgment, which, if present in the passage, would be a stated opinion of the author.
Question 137: Which word correctly completes the sentence: 'The results of the lab test were _______ to the attending physician.'
- forward
- forwarded (Correct answer)
- forwards
- forwarding
Correct answer: forwarded
'Forwarded' is the past-tense verb that correctly fills the blank, agreeing with the past-tense context of the sentence and the plural subject 'results.'
Question 138: A virtual______ of species, including sea urchins, mice, dogs, primates, and chimps, were housed in the lab.
- Menagerie (Correct answer)
- Milieu
- Arboretum
- Sanctuary
Correct answer: Menagerie
The sentence describes a collection of various animal species, including "sea urchins, mice, dogs, primates, and chimps," housed in a lab. A "menagerie" is a collection of wild animals kept in captivity, or more broadly, a diverse collection of people or things. It perfectly describes the diverse group of animals mentioned.
Question 139: If Maria left a $10.16 tip on a breakfast that cost $86.89, approximately what percentage was the tip?
- 25%
- 31%
- 17%
- 12% (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 12%
To find the percentage of the tip, divide the tip amount by the original cost of the breakfast and then multiply by 100. So, ($10.16 ÷ $86.89) × 100. This calculation yields approximately 0.1169 × 100, which is 11.69%. When rounded to the nearest whole percentage, this is 12%. Therefore, the tip was approximately 12%.
Question 140: A medical consent form contains: 'I understand that this procedure carries risks including but not limited to infection, bleeding, nerve damage, and adverse reaction to anesthesia. I acknowledge that no guarantees have been made regarding the outcome.' The phrase 'including but not limited to' serves what purpose?
- To reassure the patient that complications are unlikely
- To list every possible complication of the procedure
- To satisfy a legal requirement for informed consent format
- To indicate that the listed risks are not exhaustive (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To indicate that the listed risks are not exhaustive
The phrase 'including but not limited to' indicates that the listed items are examples and that additional risks may exist beyond those specifically mentioned.
Question 141: What gas do humans exhale as a waste product of cellular respiration?
- Oxygen
- Nitrogen
- Hydrogen
- Carbon dioxide (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Carbon dioxide
Cellular respiration releases carbon dioxide as a metabolic waste product.
Question 142: An unknown element is found to contain 45 protons and an atomic mass of 64, what is its atomic number?
- 64
- 45 (Correct answer)
- It cannot be determined.
- 19
Correct answer: 45
The atomic number of an element is solely determined by the number of protons in its nucleus. In this case, the unknown element contains 45 protons, so its atomic number is 45. The atomic mass (64) is the sum of protons and neutrons, but it does not define the element's atomic number.
Question 143: A student scored 85, 92, 78, and 95 on four exams. What is the mean (average) score?
- 87.5 (Correct answer)
- 88.0
- 85.0
- 90.0
Correct answer: 87.5
Add all four scores: 85 + 92 + 78 + 95 = 350. Divide by the number of scores: 350 ÷ 4 = 87.5.
Question 144: Which of the following BEST describes a scientific hypothesis?
- A testable, falsifiable prediction made before an experiment is conducted (Correct answer)
- A summary of data collected and analyzed during an experiment
- A universal law derived from decades of repeated observation
- A proven scientific fact supported by multiple independent studies
Correct answer: A testable, falsifiable prediction made before an experiment is conducted
A hypothesis is a testable, falsifiable prediction about the outcome of an experiment. It is proposed before data is collected, and it must be possible to prove it wrong.
Question 145: Which sentence correctly uses a semicolon?
- She; studied hard and passed.
- She studied hard; she passed the exam. (Correct answer)
- She studied hard; and passed the exam.
- She studied; hard for the exam.
Correct answer: She studied hard; she passed the exam.
A semicolon joins two independent clauses without a coordinating conjunction.
Question 146: The _______ of Helen Cortes works, which have sold many dozens of copies, is reflected in her ______ readership.
- Provincialism . . Liberal
- Popularity . . Wide (Correct answer)
- Integrity . . Scattered
- Variety . . Narrow
Correct answer: Popularity . . Wide
If Helen Cortes's works "sold many dozens of copies," it signifies her "popularity." This widespread appeal would naturally be reflected in a "wide" readership, meaning a large number of people read her work. This pair of words logically completes the sentence, showing a cause-and-effect relationship between sales and readership.
Question 147: A passage describes a town where "shops closed early, streets emptied by dusk, and few new families had moved in for years." The author most likely wants the reader to conclude the town is:
- In decline (Correct answer)
- Strictly religious
- Dangerous at night
- Thriving and growing
Correct answer: In decline
Early closures, empty streets, and no new residents together imply a town in decline.
Question 148: An individual reading a book about the first emperor of China wants to find the first reference in the book to the Terracotta Army. Where should he or she look?
- The table of contents
- The index (Correct answer)
- The glossary
- The afterword
Correct answer: The index
The index is an alphabetical list of topics, names, and key terms discussed in a book, along with the page numbers where they appear. To find the first reference to a specific topic like the Terracotta Army, an individual should consult the index, as it directly points to all relevant page numbers, allowing for easy identification of the earliest mention.
Question 149: If y = 3x + 2, what is the value of y when x = -4?
- y = -14
- y = 10
- y = 14
- y = -10 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: y = -10
Substitute x = -4: y = 3(-4) + 2 = -12 + 2 = -10.
Question 150: What is the role of decomposers in an ecosystem?
- Breaking down dead organic matter and recycling nutrients (Correct answer)
- Converting atmospheric nitrogen to usable forms
- Transferring energy from plants to herbivores
- Producing energy from sunlight
Correct answer: Breaking down dead organic matter and recycling nutrients
Decomposers (fungi and bacteria) break down dead organisms and waste, releasing nutrients back into the environment for uptake by producers.
Question 151: When the author of a persuasive essay acknowledges the opposing argument before refuting it, this technique is called:
- Ad hominem
- Concession and rebuttal (Correct answer)
- Circular reasoning
- Hasty generalization
Correct answer: Concession and rebuttal
Concession and rebuttal is a persuasive technique where the author acknowledges a valid point in the opposing argument (concession) before explaining why their own position is still stronger (rebuttal). It strengthens credibility.
Question 152: A student scored 75% on a test with 80 questions. How many questions did the student answer correctly?
- 60 (Correct answer)
- 55
- 75
- 65
Correct answer: 60
75% of 80 = 0.75 × 80 = 60 questions answered correctly.
Question 153: Which sentence uses correct subject-verb agreement?
- The team of nurses are ready for their shift.
- The team of nurses is ready for their shift. (Correct answer)
- The nurses team are ready for their shift.
- The team nurse are ready for their shift.
Correct answer: The team of nurses is ready for their shift.
The subject is 'team' (singular collective noun), so the singular verb 'is' is correct. The prepositional phrase 'of nurses' does not affect subject-verb agreement.
Question 154: What does the prefix "hyper-" mean in the word "hypertension"?
- Below normal
- Between
- Without
- Above or excessive (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Above or excessive
The prefix "hyper-" means above, beyond, or excessive. Hypertension means abnormally high blood pressure. Contrast with "hypo-" which means below normal (as in hypotension).
Question 155: What is the relationship between pressure and volume of a gas at constant temperature, as described by Boyle's Law?
- Pressure and volume are unrelated at constant temperature
- Pressure doubles when volume doubles
- Pressure and volume are inversely proportional (P ∝ 1/V) (Correct answer)
- Pressure and volume are directly proportional (P ∝ V)
Correct answer: Pressure and volume are inversely proportional (P ∝ 1/V)
Boyle's Law states that at constant temperature, pressure and volume of a gas are inversely proportional: as pressure increases, volume decreases (P₁V₁ = P₂V₂).
Question 156: Which of the following best describes a "primary source"?
- A textbook that summarizes historical events
- A diary entry written during a historical event (Correct answer)
- A journal article reviewing others' research
- An encyclopedia article about a scientific discovery
Correct answer: A diary entry written during a historical event
A primary source is original, firsthand material created at the time of the event being studied — such as diaries, letters, photographs, or original research data. Secondary sources interpret or analyze primary sources.
Question 157: In the first paragraph, the author puts quotation marks around the word "civilization" to show.
- studiousness
- skepticism (Correct answer)
- anger
- wit
Correct answer: skepticism
When an author places quotation marks around a word like "civilization," it often signals that they are using the term with a degree of irony, doubt, or critical distance. This stylistic choice suggests the author is questioning the true nature or positive connotations of "civilization" in that context, implying skepticism about its inherent goodness or the way it's being presented.
Question 158: Which revision BEST corrects the dangling modifier in the following sentence? 'The nurse administered the medication after being examined.'
- The nurse administered the medication after the patient was examined. (Correct answer)
- The patient was administered medication by the nurse after being examined.
- The medication was administered after the nurse examined.
- After being examined, the medication was administered by the nurse.
Correct answer: The nurse administered the medication after the patient was examined.
The original sentence implies the nurse was examined, which is illogical. Option A clarifies that the patient was examined by making the patient the explicit subject of that clause.
Question 159: Throughout her interview with local students, the dignitary exchanged her ________ public manner for a kinder, less pretentious one.
- Modest
- Lofty (Correct answer)
- Gushing
- Amicable
Correct answer: Lofty
The dignitary "exchanged her _______ public manner for a kinder, less pretentious one." This implies her original manner was the opposite of kind and unpretentious. "Lofty" can mean haughty or pompous, suggesting a superior or arrogant demeanor, which contrasts well with the new "kinder, less pretentious" manner.
Question 160: Identify the adverb in: 'She quickly answered the question.'
- Question
- Quickly (Correct answer)
- She
- Answered
Correct answer: Quickly
'Quickly' modifies the verb 'answered.'
Question 161: If f(x) = 2x² + 3, what is f(3)?
- 39
- 21 (Correct answer)
- 15
- 24
Correct answer: 21
f(3) = 2(3²) + 3 = 2(9) + 3 = 18 + 3 = 21.
Question 162: Which of these better supports the passage's initial line?
- A young artist from a wealthy family receives the best education that money can buy, but still does not succeed as a painter.
- A young writer comes from an impoverished, rural background, and receives a scholarship to university, but fails to make something of herself.
- A child prodigy becomes a world-famous violinist before reaching puberty, despite growing up in a working-class household.
- A playwright is inspired to write beautiful plays about the destitution and difficulties of his childhood and becomes widely acclaimed as the greatest writer of his generation. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A playwright is inspired to write beautiful plays about the destitution and difficulties of his childhood and becomes widely acclaimed as the greatest writer of his generation.
Without the passage's initial line, we infer its theme likely involves finding success or inspiration despite challenging circumstances. A playwright from an impoverished background who writes acclaimed plays about his difficult childhood perfectly illustrates this. This scenario demonstrates how personal hardship can be transformed into artistic success and widespread recognition, strongly supporting a theme of triumph over adversity.
Question 163: Which transition word best indicates a contrast between two ideas?
- Furthermore
- Nevertheless (Correct answer)
- Subsequently
- Therefore
Correct answer: Nevertheless
'Nevertheless' signals a contrast or concession between two ideas.
Question 164: Which part of the digestive tract reabsorbs water and forms feces?
- Small intestine
- Stomach
- Duodenum
- Large intestine (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Large intestine
The large intestine absorbs water and electrolytes, compacting waste into feces.
Question 165: A student 'used context clues to deduce the meaning of an unfamiliar term.' What does the word 'deduce' mean?
- To memorize information through repeated practice
- To restate an idea using simpler, more familiar language
- To search for a definition in a reference dictionary
- To reach a conclusion through logical reasoning from available evidence (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To reach a conclusion through logical reasoning from available evidence
Deduce means to draw a logical conclusion from evidence or reasoning. The Latin root 'ducere' means 'to lead' — deducing leads you from evidence to a conclusion.
Question 166: Solve for x: 3x - 7 = 14.
- 21
- 3
- 9
- 7 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 7
Add 7 to both sides to get 3x = 21, then divide by 3 to get x = 7.
Question 167: Gastrointestinal 797 Genetics 687-699 Glaucoma 543 Glycemia 530 In the book whose index is excerpted above, which pages probably contain the chapter on ocular degeneration?
- 654
- 600 (Correct answer)
- 689
- 725
Correct answer: 600
Ocular degeneration refers to conditions affecting the eye. Among the given index entries, 'Glaucoma' (page 543) is an eye condition. Since index entries are typically alphabetical, and 'ocular degeneration' would fall alphabetically after 'Glaucoma,' a chapter on a related eye condition would logically be found on a page number following 543, making 600 a plausible location within the book's structure.
Question 168: From a primitive form of exercise to a sophisticated leisure and competitive sport, swimming has evolved. Swimming is a demanding sport that calls for extensive training because it works almost all of the muscles in the body. In competitions, swimmers compete to cover a specified distance in the shortest amount of time using a particular swimming stroke. Additionally, swimmers train to increase their stamina and capacity for long swims. It is interesting to consider how swimming will develop for people in the future, either advancing into a progressive purpose or regressing to a primal mode of movement, because swimming has developed into a highly intricate competitive sport where one incorrect technique can disqualify a participant. <br> What word or phrase best describes the structure of this passage?
- An activity narrowed to a specific purpose and expanded to consider future implications. (Correct answer)
- An activity narrowed to a specific purpose and expanded to consider future deviations.
- A hypothesis tested against certain conditions, developed into a larger thesis.
- An activity and its purposes are explained.
Correct answer: An activity narrowed to a specific purpose and expanded to consider future implications.
The passage begins by tracing swimming's evolution from a 'primitive form of exercise' to a 'sophisticated leisure and competitive sport.' It then narrows its focus to the specific demands and techniques of competitive swimming. Finally, the passage expands its scope to consider 'how swimming will develop for people in the future,' explicitly discussing 'future implications' like advancing or regressing, thus fitting the described structure.
Question 169: The hormone responsible for the 'fight-or-flight' response is primarily released by the:
- Thyroid gland
- Adrenal medulla (Correct answer)
- Anterior pituitary
- Pineal gland
Correct answer: Adrenal medulla
The adrenal medulla releases epinephrine and norepinephrine, triggering the fight-or-flight response to perceived threats.
Question 170: Which organ system is primarily responsible for regulating body temperature, water balance, and waste elimination through sweat?
- Urinary system
- Endocrine system
- Lymphatic system
- Integumentary system (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Integumentary system
The integumentary system (skin, hair, nails, sweat glands, and sebaceous glands) regulates body temperature through sweat production and evaporation, and eliminates small amounts of waste through perspiration.
Test of Essential Academic Skills (TEAS)
The TEAS exam is a standardized test for students applying to health science programs, assessing academic preparedness in reading, math, science, and English.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds
These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy
Sources & references
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