NAEMT Tactical Combat Casualty Care (TCCC) Written Examination — Questions and Answers
Question 1: What should be done after handing off the casualty?
- Leave immediately
- Perform a salute
- Provide verbal and written report (Correct answer)
- Destroy all documents
Correct answer: Provide verbal and written report
After handing off a casualty to the next echelon of care, it is crucial to provide both a verbal and written report. The verbal report allows for immediate clarification and highlights urgent concerns, while the written report (the TCCC card) provides a detailed, enduring record of injuries, treatments, and vital signs. This dual reporting ensures a complete and accurate transfer of information, vital for continuity of care.
Question 2: Which hemostatic agent is the TCCC standard of care for compressible wounds not amenable to tourniquet application?
- Combat Gauze (kaolin-impregnated) (Correct answer)
- Chitosan-based gauze only
- Vaseline-impregnated gauze
- Saline-moistened gauze
Correct answer: Combat Gauze (kaolin-impregnated)
Combat Gauze impregnated with kaolin is the TCCC Committee-recommended hemostatic dressing for compressible wounds where a tourniquet cannot be applied.
Question 3: What should a communication plan include at minimum?
- Only the list of email addresses
- Stakeholder list, message content, channels, frequency, and responsible parties (Correct answer)
- Social media posting schedule only
- A single announcement template
Correct answer: Stakeholder list, message content, channels, frequency, and responsible parties
A comprehensive communication plan identifies stakeholders, defines message content, specifies communication channels, sets frequency, and assigns responsible parties.
Question 4: What does the 'MARCH' acronym in TCCC stand for?
- Monitor, Analyze, React, CPR, Help
- Movement, Alertness, Response, Chest, Hemostasis
- Mark, Assess, Report, Control, Heal
- Massive hemorrhage, Airway, Respiration, Circulation, Head injury (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Massive hemorrhage, Airway, Respiration, Circulation, Head injury
The 'MARCH' acronym in TCCC stands for Massive hemorrhage, Airway, Respiration, Circulation, and Head injury/Hypothermia. This mnemonic provides a prioritized sequence for assessing and treating combat casualties, ensuring that the most immediate life-threatening injuries are addressed first. It guides medical interventions from controlling severe bleeding to managing airway, breathing, and circulatory issues.
Question 5: What PPE should be used during casualty evacuation?
- Combat helmet only
- No gear needed
- Earplugs
- Medical gloves and barrier protection (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Medical gloves and barrier protection
During casualty evacuation, medical gloves and barrier protection are essential personal protective equipment (PPE) to prevent the transmission of bloodborne pathogens and other infectious diseases. Responders are often exposed to blood and body fluids, and using gloves and other barriers protects both the casualty and the medical personnel. This adherence to universal precautions is a critical safety measure in TCCC, safeguarding everyone involved.
Question 6: In the Care Under Fire phase, what is the primary tourniquet placement principle for extremity hemorrhage?
- Apply the tourniquet precisely 2-3 inches above the identified wound
- Perform a complete wound assessment before tourniquet application
- Pack the wound first, then apply a tourniquet if packing fails
- Apply tourniquet 'high and tight' on the limb to rapidly control bleeding (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Apply tourniquet 'high and tight' on the limb to rapidly control bleeding
Under fire, TCCC recommends applying the tourniquet 'high and tight' (as proximally as possible) to rapidly control hemorrhage with minimal time and exposure.
Question 7: Which document supports legal review of combat care?
- Unit journal
- Casualty card (Correct answer)
- Radio transcript
- Mission report
Correct answer: Casualty card
The TCCC casualty card serves as a vital legal document because it provides a detailed, contemporaneous record of the care provided to a combat casualty. In the event of a legal review or investigation into the circumstances of an injury or death, this card offers objective evidence of the treatments administered, the patient's condition, and the timeline of care. It helps ensure accountability and transparency in medical operations.
Question 8: What role does continuing education play in maintaining certification?
- It only applies to entry-level professionals
- It is required only for international practice
- It ensures professionals stay current with evolving standards and practices (Correct answer)
- It is purely optional with no impact on certification
Correct answer: It ensures professionals stay current with evolving standards and practices
Continuing education is essential to maintaining certification as it ensures professionals remain current with industry developments and evolving standards.
Question 9: What is the primary purpose of a systematic physical examination?
- To satisfy legal obligations
- To identify abnormalities and establish baseline findings (Correct answer)
- To fulfill documentation requirements
- To determine insurance eligibility
Correct answer: To identify abnormalities and establish baseline findings
A systematic physical examination is primarily conducted to identify abnormalities and establish baseline findings for ongoing patient care.
Question 10: What is the relationship between Pharmacology & Medication Management and ethical professional conduct?
- Ethics is relevant only when legal issues arise
- Ethical considerations are integrated into all aspects of professional practice in this area (Correct answer)
- Ethics applies only to separate, unrelated decisions
- There is no connection between technical knowledge and ethics
Correct answer: Ethical considerations are integrated into all aspects of professional practice in this area
Ethical considerations are deeply integrated into Pharmacology & Medication Management, as professional conduct and integrity underpin all aspects of practice in this field.
Question 11: An improvised tourniquet (cravat) has controlled bleeding in the field. When a proper CAT tourniquet becomes available, what is the correct TCCC action?
- Apply the proper tourniquet proximal to the improvised one, then remove the improvised (Correct answer)
- Apply the proper tourniquet over the improvised one for additional pressure
- Leave the improvised tourniquet in place and supplement with wound packing only
- Remove the improvised tourniquet first, then apply the proper tourniquet
Correct answer: Apply the proper tourniquet proximal to the improvised one, then remove the improvised
The proper tourniquet must be placed proximal to the improvised one before the improvised device is removed, ensuring continuous hemorrhage control throughout the transition.
Question 12: Which assessment finding would be classified as an objective finding?
- Blood pressure reading of 140/90 mmHg (Correct answer)
- Patient reports feeling dizzy
- Patient describes pain as 7 out of 10
- Patient states they feel anxious
Correct answer: Blood pressure reading of 140/90 mmHg
Objective findings are measurable, observable data obtained by the clinician. Blood pressure readings are quantifiable measurements, unlike subjective patient reports.
Question 13: What is the recommended approach to staying current in Treatment Protocols & Interventions?
- Relying solely on past experience
- Waiting for regulatory changes to force updates
- Regular professional development, industry publications, and peer collaboration (Correct answer)
- Reviewing initial training materials once per year
Correct answer: Regular professional development, industry publications, and peer collaboration
Staying current in Treatment Protocols & Interventions requires ongoing professional development, reading industry publications, and collaborating with peers to share knowledge and best practices.
Question 14: What is the most important competency assessed in Patient Safety & Infection Control for professionals in this field?
- Memorization of textbook definitions only
- Years of experience without demonstrated skill
- Applied knowledge and practical problem-solving ability (Correct answer)
- Academic credentials without practical application
Correct answer: Applied knowledge and practical problem-solving ability
Patient Safety & Infection Control assessment focuses on applied knowledge and practical problem-solving ability, ensuring professionals can effectively perform in real-world situations.
Question 15: Why is airway management not prioritized in Care Under Fire?
- Medics carry limited supplies
- Airway issues are not life-threatening
- There is no airway equipment available
- Bleeding and safety take priority (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Bleeding and safety take priority
Airway management is not prioritized in Care Under Fire because immediate threats like massive hemorrhage and ongoing hostile fire take precedence. Addressing significant bleeding is critical as it can lead to rapid death, and ensuring the safety of both the rescuer and casualty by suppressing the threat is paramount. Airway interventions often require more time and exposure, which are not feasible in an active combat zone.
Question 16: Why is speed critical in the Care Under Fire phase?
- To practice skills under stress
- To reduce risk and save lives (Correct answer)
- To meet training standards
- To impress team members
Correct answer: To reduce risk and save lives
Speed is critical in the Care Under Fire phase to reduce risk and save lives. Minimizing exposure time to hostile fire protects both the rescuer and the casualty from further injury. Rapidly moving the casualty to cover and quickly addressing massive hemorrhage with a tourniquet are immediate life-saving actions that must be performed with urgency.
Question 17: What should be done for a casualty with penetrating eye trauma?
- Flush with alcohol
- Irrigate with saline
- Cover both eyes (Correct answer)
- Bandage one eye
Correct answer: Cover both eyes
For a casualty with penetrating eye trauma, both eyes should be covered. This is because the eyes move sympathetically; if one eye moves, the other will also move. Covering both eyes prevents involuntary movement of the injured eye, which could exacerbate the trauma and cause further damage. It helps protect the injured eye until definitive medical care can be provided.
Question 18: If a single tourniquet fails to control hemorrhage from an extremity wound, what is the correct TCCC action?
- Apply maximum manual pressure over the existing tourniquet and wait
- Remove and reapply the tourniquet at a lower position on the limb
- Apply a second tourniquet immediately proximal to the first (Correct answer)
- Convert immediately to wound packing with hemostatic gauze only
Correct answer: Apply a second tourniquet immediately proximal to the first
When a single tourniquet fails to stop bleeding, TCCC protocol calls for applying a second tourniquet immediately proximal to the first to increase pressure and achieve arterial occlusion.
Question 19: Why is continuous improvement important in quality management?
- Because standards evolve, competitors improve, and customer expectations change (Correct answer)
- Because employees need new tasks to stay busy
- Because regulators demand changes every year
- Because existing processes are always fundamentally flawed
Correct answer: Because standards evolve, competitors improve, and customer expectations change
Continuous improvement is essential because the competitive landscape, customer expectations, and industry standards are constantly evolving, requiring ongoing adaptation.
Question 20: What should be avoided in TCCC documentation?
- Treatment times
- Personal opinions (Correct answer)
- Injury location
- Vital signs
Correct answer: Personal opinions
TCCC documentation must be objective and factual, focusing solely on observable injuries, treatments rendered, and patient responses. Personal opinions, assumptions, or speculative statements should be strictly avoided. Including subjective commentary can introduce bias, reduce the credibility of the medical record, and potentially hinder accurate medical decision-making by subsequent care providers, compromising patient care.
Question 21: How does Pharmacology & Medication Management contribute to overall professional effectiveness?
- It is relevant only during the certification examination
- It applies only to supervisory-level professionals
- It serves only as a credential requirement with no practical impact
- It provides essential knowledge and skills that directly impact quality of work and outcomes (Correct answer)
Correct answer: It provides essential knowledge and skills that directly impact quality of work and outcomes
Pharmacology & Medication Management directly contributes to professional effectiveness by providing essential knowledge and skills that improve the quality of work and outcomes across all career levels.
Question 22: What is the main goal of Tactical Evacuation Care?
- Provide advanced medical care during transport (Correct answer)
- Ignore casualty until safe
- Complete mission tasking
- Initiate combat
Correct answer: Provide advanced medical care during transport
The main goal of Tactical Evacuation Care (TACEVAC) is to provide advanced medical care during transport to a higher level of definitive care. This phase involves continuing and escalating treatments initiated in Tactical Field Care, monitoring the casualty's condition, and performing additional interventions as needed while en route. The aim is to maintain stability and optimize the casualty's chances of survival until they reach a medical facility.
Question 23: What is the recommended approach to staying current in Patient Safety & Infection Control?
- Waiting for regulatory changes to force updates
- Reviewing initial training materials once per year
- Relying solely on past experience
- Regular professional development, industry publications, and peer collaboration (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Regular professional development, industry publications, and peer collaboration
Staying current in Patient Safety & Infection Control requires ongoing professional development, reading industry publications, and collaborating with peers to share knowledge and best practices.
Question 24: What distinguishes quality assurance from quality control?
- QA is more expensive; QC is free
- QA is performed by managers; QC is performed by workers
- There is no practical difference between them
- QA is proactive and process-focused; QC is reactive and product-focused (Correct answer)
Correct answer: QA is proactive and process-focused; QC is reactive and product-focused
Quality assurance is a proactive approach focused on preventing defects through process improvement, while quality control is reactive, focused on identifying defects in products.
Question 25: Which patient is evacuated first if multiple casualties exist?
- Minor scrapes
- Deceased individuals
- Severe but stable patients
- Urgent casualties with airway issues (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Urgent casualties with airway issues
In a mass casualty situation, TCCC principles dictate that patients with urgent, life-threatening conditions, such as airway compromise, severe bleeding, or tension pneumothorax, are prioritized for evacuation. These 'urgent' casualties have the highest potential for survival if immediate advanced care is provided. Addressing critical issues like airway problems first maximizes the chances of saving lives by preventing rapid deterioration.
Question 26: How often should vital signs be reassessed?
- Every 5–15 minutes (Correct answer)
- Only at start
- When asked
- Once per hour
Correct answer: Every 5–15 minutes
TCCC guidelines mandate frequent reassessment of vital signs, typically every 5-15 minutes, due to the dynamic and often critical nature of combat injuries. This regular monitoring allows medical personnel to promptly detect any deterioration or improvement in the casualty's condition. Timely identification of changes is crucial for adjusting treatment plans and ensuring the most effective care during tactical field care and evacuation.
Question 27: Which medical intervention is typically performed during Care Under Fire?
- Administer pain medications
- Start IV fluids
- Apply a tourniquet (Correct answer)
- Apply chest seals
Correct answer: Apply a tourniquet
In the Care Under Fire phase of TCCC, the only medical intervention typically performed is the application of a tourniquet for massive extremity bleeding. This is because a tourniquet can be applied quickly and effectively, even under direct fire, to control life-threatening hemorrhage. Other interventions are delayed until the casualty is moved to a safer location, as they would expose the rescuer to undue risk.
Question 28: Why is communication important during evacuation?
- To verify weather
- To alert local civilians
- To coordinate care and handoff (Correct answer)
- To check for enemy
Correct answer: To coordinate care and handoff
Effective communication during evacuation is paramount for coordinating care and ensuring a smooth handoff to the next level of medical support. It allows the evacuating team to relay critical patient information, anticipated needs, and estimated arrival times to the receiving medical facility. This coordination ensures that appropriate resources and personnel are prepared, preventing delays and optimizing the continuity of life-saving treatment.
Question 29: What is the primary objective of Tactical Combat Casualty Care certification?
- To validate professional competence in tactical combat casualty care (Correct answer)
- To replace formal education requirements
- To fulfill a government mandate
- To provide tax benefits to employers
Correct answer: To validate professional competence in tactical combat casualty care
The Tactical Combat Casualty Care certification validates that professionals have demonstrated competence and knowledge in their field.
Question 30: What common challenge do professionals face when applying Treatment Protocols & Interventions principles?
- Finding the relevant textbook chapter
- The principles are too simple to present any challenge
- Obtaining permission to use the principles
- Balancing theoretical best practices with practical constraints and real-world conditions (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Balancing theoretical best practices with practical constraints and real-world conditions
Professionals commonly face the challenge of adapting theoretical best practices in Treatment Protocols & Interventions to the practical constraints and varying conditions encountered in real-world settings.
Question 31: How does mentoring contribute to professional development?
- By guaranteeing promotion within the organization
- By replacing formal education entirely
- By providing guidance, knowledge transfer, and career insights from experienced professionals (Correct answer)
- By reducing the need for continuing education credits
Correct answer: By providing guidance, knowledge transfer, and career insights from experienced professionals
Mentoring provides valuable guidance, knowledge transfer, and career insights from experienced professionals, accelerating the mentee's professional growth and development.
Question 32: What common challenge do professionals face when applying Patient Safety & Infection Control principles?
- The principles are too simple to present any challenge
- Obtaining permission to use the principles
- Finding the relevant textbook chapter
- Balancing theoretical best practices with practical constraints and real-world conditions (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Balancing theoretical best practices with practical constraints and real-world conditions
Professionals commonly face the challenge of adapting theoretical best practices in Patient Safety & Infection Control to the practical constraints and varying conditions encountered in real-world settings.
Question 33: Which foundational principle is most critical to professional practice in this field?
- Maximizing revenue above all other considerations
- Following only traditional methods without adaptation
- Prioritizing speed over accuracy in all situations
- Evidence-based decision making and continuous improvement (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Evidence-based decision making and continuous improvement
Evidence-based decision making ensures that professional practices are grounded in proven methodologies and current best practices.
Question 34: What does the 'M' in the TCCC MARCH assessment acronym represent?
- Medical history
- Massive hemorrhage (Correct answer)
- Mental status evaluation
- Movement and extraction
Correct answer: Massive hemorrhage
The 'M' in MARCH stands for Massive Hemorrhage, reflecting that controlling life-threatening bleeding is always the first priority in TCCC.
Question 35: How should a tension pneumothorax be treated?
- Perform needle decompression (Correct answer)
- Apply abdominal dressing
- Use oxygen mask
- Start CPR
Correct answer: Perform needle decompression
A tension pneumothorax should be treated by performing needle decompression. This life-saving procedure involves inserting a needle into the chest to release trapped air, which is compressing the lung and heart. Untreated tension pneumothorax can rapidly lead to circulatory collapse and death, making prompt decompression a critical intervention in TCCC.
Question 36: What should be verified before loading a casualty onto an aircraft?
- Casualty is unconscious
- Destination unknown
- Evac team is briefed and equipped (Correct answer)
- All weapons are operational
Correct answer: Evac team is briefed and equipped
Before loading a casualty onto an aircraft for evacuation, it is crucial to verify that the evac team is briefed and equipped. This ensures a smooth and safe transfer of care, where the receiving team understands the casualty's condition, injuries, and treatments already provided. Proper briefing and equipment readiness prevent delays, ensure continuity of care, and enhance safety during transport.
Question 37: Where should a tourniquet be applied?
- On the wrist only
- 2–3 inches above the wound (Correct answer)
- Below the wound
- Directly on the wound
Correct answer: 2–3 inches above the wound
A tourniquet should be applied 2–3 inches above the wound, directly on the skin, and not over a joint. This placement ensures that the tourniquet is on a single bone where it can effectively compress the artery against the bone, stopping blood flow. Applying it too close to the wound or over a joint can reduce its effectiveness in controlling hemorrhage.
Question 38: When should documentation be completed?
- Before any care
- Only at headquarters
- Immediately after providing care (Correct answer)
- At the end of deployment
Correct answer: Immediately after providing care
Documentation in TCCC should be completed immediately after providing care to ensure accuracy and completeness. Delaying documentation can lead to forgotten details, errors, or omissions, which can compromise the continuity and quality of patient care. Timely recording captures critical information while it is fresh in the medic's mind, supporting effective handoffs and informed treatment decisions.
Question 39: What is the relationship between Treatment Protocols & Interventions and ethical professional conduct?
- Ethical considerations are integrated into all aspects of professional practice in this area (Correct answer)
- Ethics applies only to separate, unrelated decisions
- Ethics is relevant only when legal issues arise
- There is no connection between technical knowledge and ethics
Correct answer: Ethical considerations are integrated into all aspects of professional practice in this area
Ethical considerations are deeply integrated into Treatment Protocols & Interventions, as professional conduct and integrity underpin all aspects of practice in this field.
Question 40: Which IV fluid is preferred for resuscitation?
- Hextend (Correct answer)
- Dextrose
- Tap water
- Normal saline
Correct answer: Hextend
Hextend (Hetastarch) is a preferred IV fluid for resuscitation in TCCC because it is a colloid, which is more effective at expanding intravascular volume than crystalloids like normal saline. Colloids stay in the bloodstream longer, requiring smaller volumes to achieve resuscitation goals and reducing the risk of hypothermia and coagulopathy often associated with large volumes of crystalloids. Whole blood is also highly preferred if available.
Question 41: What is the priority treatment during evacuation?
- Monitor and stabilize the patient (Correct answer)
- Advanced field surgery
- Inventory checks
- Mission updates
Correct answer: Monitor and stabilize the patient
During evacuation, the primary treatment priority remains continuous monitoring and stabilization of the patient. The dynamic environment of transport can cause a patient's condition to change rapidly, necessitating ongoing assessment of vital signs and interventions. This ensures that any deterioration is promptly addressed and that the patient arrives at the next medical facility in the best possible condition, maintaining the care already provided.
Question 42: Which vital sign change most urgently requires immediate clinical intervention?
- Temperature of 99.5°F
- Resting heart rate of 85 bpm
- Blood pressure of 130/85 mmHg
- Sudden drop in oxygen saturation below 90% (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Sudden drop in oxygen saturation below 90%
Oxygen saturation below 90% indicates significant hypoxemia requiring immediate intervention to prevent organ damage.
Question 43: Which wound location is NOT appropriate for tourniquet application in TCCC?
- Gunshot wound to the mid-thigh with arterial bleeding
- Deep laceration of the forearm with pulsatile bleeding
- Above-knee traumatic amputation
- Penetrating abdominal wound with external hemorrhage (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Penetrating abdominal wound with external hemorrhage
Abdominal wounds cannot be controlled with a tourniquet due to anatomical constraints; wound packing or junctional hemorrhage control techniques are required instead.
Question 44: Which bandage type is recommended in TCCC for securing wound packing and maintaining pressure after hemorrhage is controlled?
- Emergency Trauma Dressing (ETD / Israeli Bandage) (Correct answer)
- Occlusive dressing sealed on all four sides
- Elastic (ACE) bandage wrapped circumferentially
- Standard 4×4 gauze squares secured with medical tape
Correct answer: Emergency Trauma Dressing (ETD / Israeli Bandage)
The Emergency Trauma Dressing (Israeli Bandage) is recommended in TCCC because its integrated pressure applicator maintains consistent, sustained pressure over packed wounds.
Question 45: How should negative or difficult information be communicated to stakeholders?
- Honestly and promptly, with proposed solutions or mitigation steps (Correct answer)
- Buried within positive information to minimize impact
- Delayed until the situation has fully resolved
- Only when specifically asked about it
Correct answer: Honestly and promptly, with proposed solutions or mitigation steps
Negative information should be communicated honestly and promptly, accompanied by proposed solutions or mitigation plans to maintain trust and enable timely action.
Question 46: How should hypothermia be prevented during evacuation?
- Apply ice packs
- Keep them moving
- Use Mylar blankets and shielding (Correct answer)
- Expose the wound to air
Correct answer: Use Mylar blankets and shielding
Hypothermia is a significant risk for trauma casualties and should be prevented during evacuation by using Mylar blankets and shielding. Trauma patients are prone to hypothermia due to shock, blood loss, and exposure to environmental elements. Maintaining body temperature with insulating materials and protecting them from wind and cold is crucial for preventing complications and improving survival rates.
Question 47: After approximately how many hours does tourniquet application become a significant risk factor for limb viability?
- 1 hour
- 6 hours
- 30 minutes
- 2 hours (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 2 hours
While tourniquets may remain in place longer when necessary, ischemia-related muscle and nerve injury risk increases significantly after 2 hours, making reassessment and documentation critical.
Question 48: What is the most important competency assessed in Treatment Protocols & Interventions for professionals in this field?
- Years of experience without demonstrated skill
- Memorization of textbook definitions only
- Academic credentials without practical application
- Applied knowledge and practical problem-solving ability (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Applied knowledge and practical problem-solving ability
Treatment Protocols & Interventions assessment focuses on applied knowledge and practical problem-solving ability, ensuring professionals can effectively perform in real-world situations.
Question 49: Why are time notations important on medical forms?
- To set meeting reminders
- For vehicle logbooks
- To track sleep cycles
- To record timing of interventions (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To record timing of interventions
Time notations on TCCC medical forms are critically important for recording the precise timing of interventions, such as tourniquet application, medication administration, or fluid resuscitation. This chronological record allows subsequent medical providers to track the progression of the patient's condition and the effectiveness of treatments. Accurate time stamps are essential for making informed decisions and ensuring optimal patient management, especially for time-sensitive interventions.
Question 50: What documentation is vital during evacuation?
- Oral report only
- Radio log
- Evacuation map
- TCCC casualty card (Correct answer)
Correct answer: TCCC casualty card
The TCCC casualty card (such as DA Form 7656 or DD Form 1380) is vital documentation during evacuation because it provides a concise, standardized record of the casualty's injuries, treatments rendered, and vital signs. This card ensures that critical medical information is accurately transferred to higher echelons of care. It facilitates a seamless handoff and continuity of treatment, preventing delays and ensuring receiving medical personnel have essential data for ongoing management.
NAEMT Tactical Combat Casualty Care (TCCC) Written Examination
The TCCC written exam tests knowledge of battlefield trauma care protocols across the three phases of care — Care Under Fire, Tactical Field Care, and Tactical Evacuation Care — ensuring military personnel and medical providers can deliver evidence-based life-saving interventions in combat environments.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds