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Mixed Deck — All SCMA Topics Flashcards

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  1. What does 'QID' mean in a medication order?

    Answer: Four times daily

    QID (quater in die) means four times daily, indicating the medication should be administered four times throughout the day.

  2. If a patient has a symptom of rhinorrhea, it means:

    Answer: The patient has mucus discharge from the nose.

    Rhinorrhea is a medical term derived from 'rhino-' meaning nose and '-rrhea' meaning flow or discharge. Therefore, rhinorrhea specifically refers to the condition of having a runny nose, characterized by excessive mucus discharge from the nasal passages. It is a common symptom of colds, allergies, or other nasal irritations.

  3. What is the single most effective method of preventing the spread of infection in a medical setting?

    Answer: Performing proper hand hygiene

    Hand hygiene is the #1 method recommended by the CDC and WHO for preventing the spread of infection in healthcare settings.

  4. Which OSHA standard requires healthcare employers to protect workers from bloodborne pathogen exposure?

    Answer: Bloodborne Pathogens Standard (29 CFR 1910.1030)

    OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard (29 CFR 1910.1030) mandates exposure control plans, PPE, HBV vaccination, and post-exposure protocols.

  5. What does the term 'scope of practice' mean for a medical assistant?

    Answer: The specific tasks and procedures a medical assistant is legally and professionally permitted to perform

    Scope of practice defines the procedures, actions, and processes a healthcare professional is permitted to perform based on their education, training, and licensure.

  6. What is the purpose of an Explanation of Benefits (EOB) document?

    Answer: A statement from the insurance company explaining what was paid, denied, or applied to deductible

    An EOB explains how the insurance company processed a claim, including amounts paid, adjustments, patient responsibility, and denial reasons.

  7. What does a positive rapid strep test (RADT) result indicate?

    Answer: Group A Streptococcus antigen is present in the throat specimen

    A positive rapid antigen detection test for strep detects Group A Streptococcus antigens in the specimen, indicating streptococcal pharyngitis.

  8. A urine dipstick test shows positive nitrites. What does this finding most likely indicate?

    Answer: Bacterial infection in the urinary tract

    Positive nitrites on a urine dipstick indicate the presence of bacteria that convert urinary nitrates to nitrites, suggesting a urinary tract infection.

  9. Which schedule of controlled substance has the highest potential for abuse and no accepted medical use in the US?

    Answer: Schedule I

    Schedule I substances have the highest abuse potential, no accepted medical use, and lack accepted safety for use under medical supervision.

  10. What is the primary purpose of Gram staining in microbiology?

    Answer: To classify bacteria as gram-positive or gram-negative based on cell wall characteristics

    Gram staining differentiates bacteria by cell wall composition: gram-positive bacteria appear purple, while gram-negative bacteria appear pink/red.

  11. What is the correct technique when performing a two-person cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an adult?

    Answer: One rescuer performs 30 compressions while the other gives 2 rescue breaths

    The AHA guideline for two-rescuer adult CPR is a 30:2 ratio — 30 chest compressions followed by 2 rescue breaths with a brief pause.

  12. When preparing a patient for a routine physical examination, which position is most appropriate for examining the abdomen?

    Answer: Supine

    The supine position (lying flat on the back) allows optimal access and visualization for abdominal examination.

  13. What is mandatory reporting in the context of a medical assistant's duties?

    Answer: Legally required reporting of specific conditions (abuse, communicable diseases) to government authorities

    Mandatory reporting laws require healthcare workers to report specific conditions such as child abuse, elder abuse, and certain communicable diseases to designated authorities.

  14. Which form is used to submit claims to Medicare for professional services?

    Answer: CMS-1500 form

    The CMS-1500 is the standard claim form used by individual providers and outpatient facilities to bill Medicare, Medicaid, and many private insurers.

  15. Which of the following situations requires mandatory reporting by a medical assistant?

    Answer: A patient disclosing domestic abuse

    Suspected or disclosed domestic abuse is a mandatory reporting situation in most US states to protect victim safety.

  16. What does 'prior authorization' mean in medical billing?

    Answer: Approval from the insurance company before certain services are provided

    Prior authorization is pre-approval from the insurance payer confirming that a specific service, medication, or procedure will be covered before it is performed.

  17. What does “Qhs” on a prescription mean?

    Answer: At bedtime

    The abbreviation 'Qhs' on a prescription is derived from the Latin 'quaque hora somni,' meaning 'every hour of sleep.' In modern medical practice, it is universally interpreted as 'at bedtime.' This instruction ensures that medication is taken before sleep, which can be important for drugs with sedative effects or those that need to work overnight.

  18. What is the medical term for high blood pressure?

    Answer: Hypertension

    Hypertension (hyper = excessive, tension = pressure) refers to persistently elevated blood pressure, typically ≥130/80 mmHg by current guidelines.

  19. Which type of managed care plan requires patients to select a primary care physician (PCP) who coordinates all their medical care?

    Answer: Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)

    HMOs require enrollees to choose a PCP who serves as the gatekeeper for all specialist referrals and coordinates the patient's care within the network.

  20. Autoclave sterilization achieves sterilization through which mechanism?

    Answer: Moist heat (steam) under pressure at 121°C

    An autoclave uses saturated steam under pressure (typically 121°C/250°F at 15 psi for 15–20 minutes) to denature proteins and kill all microorganisms including spores.

How this page was made: written with AI tools and published by Nathan Beja, founder of Practice Test Geeks, who is responsible for its content. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

Sources & references

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  1. specialtycma.com — Eligibility, fees, passing score, renewal, time limit, score validity, score release, test delivery · verified Oct 2026