Level 2 Award for Door Supervisors in the Private Security Industry — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which Act gives courts the power to issue a closure order on premises causing nuisance?

Licensing Act 2003
Criminal Justice Act 1988
Public Order Act 1986
Anti-social Behaviour, Crime and Policing Act 2014 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Anti-social Behaviour, Crime and Policing Act 2014

The Anti-social Behaviour, Crime and Policing Act 2014 gives police and councils powers to apply for closure orders on premises associated with disorder or nuisance.

Question 2: How should a door supervisor respond if asked to give a statement to police?

Refuse until a solicitor is present
Provide an honest, factual account of what they personally witnessed (Correct answer)
Discuss the event with colleagues first to ensure consistency
Provide only the minimum information required

Correct answer: Provide an honest, factual account of what they personally witnessed

Door supervisors should provide honest, factual accounts of their personal observations; colluding with colleagues to 'align' accounts could constitute perverting the course of justice.

Question 3: Which verbal technique can help reduce tension when a person is shouting?

Shouting back to match their energy
Staying completely silent
Mirroring their pace initially then gradually slowing it down (Correct answer)
Threatening consequences immediately

Correct answer: Mirroring their pace initially then gradually slowing it down

Pacing and leading is a technique where you initially match the person's communication style to establish rapport, then gradually slow down to bring them to a calmer state.

Question 4: What non-verbal communication signs might indicate a person is about to become violent?

Clenched fists, pale face, target glancing, and adopting a fighting stance (Correct answer)
Yawning and looking at their phone
Smiling and relaxed shoulders
Laughing and making jokes

Correct answer: Clenched fists, pale face, target glancing, and adopting a fighting stance

Pre-fight indicators include: clenched fists, reddening or paling of the face, target glancing (looking at where they intend to strike), adopting a wider stance, removal of jewellery or clothing, and increased breathing rate.

Question 5: A customer is hyperventilating due to a panic attack. What is the appropriate response?

Stay calm, speak reassuringly, encourage slow breathing and move them to a quiet area (Correct answer)
Call 999 immediately
Make them breathe into a paper bag
Lay them flat and elevate their legs

Correct answer: Stay calm, speak reassuringly, encourage slow breathing and move them to a quiet area

Calm reassurance and guided slow breathing help reverse the physiological effects of hyperventilation; moving to a quiet space reduces stimulation; bags are no longer recommended due to risk.

Question 6: What is a 'Personal Emergency Evacuation Plan' (PEEP)?

A first responder medical plan
A general venue evacuation plan
A plan for evacuating a VIP guest
An individual plan for evacuating a person with a disability or special need from the premises (Correct answer)

Correct answer: An individual plan for evacuating a person with a disability or special need from the premises

A PEEP is a tailored evacuation plan created for individuals who may not be able to use standard emergency exits, such as wheelchair users or those with hearing impairments.

Question 7: What visible signs might indicate alcohol intoxication in a customer?

High energy and confidence
Pale skin and aggression without emotional cause
Dilated pupils and rapid speech
Slurred speech, unsteady gait, glazed eyes and disinhibited behaviour (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Slurred speech, unsteady gait, glazed eyes and disinhibited behaviour

Classic signs of alcohol intoxication include slurred speech, impaired coordination, glazed or bloodshot eyes and reduced inhibition; these indicate the person may be too intoxicated to serve.

Question 8: Why is it important to vary security procedures and patrol routes?

Predictable routines can be exploited by attackers conducting reconnaissance (Correct answer)
It is required by SIA licensing conditions
It improves staff morale
It reduces costs

Correct answer: Predictable routines can be exploited by attackers conducting reconnaissance

Attackers conducting reconnaissance will note predictable patterns; varying routines makes it harder to predict the response to an attack and may deter hostile surveillance.

Question 9: Which channel of communication is typically most reliable in a busy nightclub environment?

Written notes
Shouted verbal commands
Hand signals
Radio communication using earpieces (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Radio communication using earpieces

In loud, crowded environments, radio communication with earpieces allows clear, private communication between security staff without being overheard or drowned out by ambient noise.

Question 10: What should a door supervisor do if they find drugs on a customer during a search?

Seize the drugs, place them in a sealed container, refuse entry, inform management, and call the police (Correct answer)
Return the drugs and let them enter
Confiscate the drugs and flush them down the toilet
Keep the drugs as evidence in their pocket

Correct answer: Seize the drugs, place them in a sealed container, refuse entry, inform management, and call the police

The door supervisor should seize the drugs safely, place them in a sealed, tamper-evident container, refuse entry, inform the manager, record the incident, and call the police. The drugs must be handled carefully to preserve evidence.

Question 11: What is 'decontamination' relevant to in a security context?

Removing alcohol from an intoxicated person's bloodstream
The process of removing hazardous substances from people following a chemical, biological, radiological or nuclear (CBRN) attack (Correct answer)
Disinfecting the venue after closing
Cleaning CCTV equipment

Correct answer: The process of removing hazardous substances from people following a chemical, biological, radiological or nuclear (CBRN) attack

CBRN decontamination involves removing or neutralising hazardous substances from affected persons after an attack; door supervisors should avoid the affected area and follow emergency services instructions.

Question 12: A suspicious package is found at the venue. In what order should a door supervisor act?

Photograph the item; send to police; clear area
Do not touch; clear the area; call 999; prevent others entering (Correct answer)
Call 999 first; then clear the area
Touch and inspect; call management; call police if unsure

Correct answer: Do not touch; clear the area; call 999; prevent others entering

The sequence is: do not touch (avoid triggering any device), clear the area immediately, call 999 and prevent others from approaching — this sequence minimises risk.

Question 13: What power does the Licensing Act 2003 give door supervisors regarding entry to licensed premises?

Power to issue fixed penalty notices
Power to close the premises
Power to refuse entry or remove people on behalf of the DPS (Correct answer)
Power to revoke the premises licence

Correct answer: Power to refuse entry or remove people on behalf of the DPS

Door supervisors act as agents of the Designated Premises Supervisor (DPS) and licence holder, giving them authority to control entry and remove persons on their behalf.

Question 14: When restraining someone on the ground, what position carries the highest risk of positional asphyxia?

On their side (recovery position)
Face down (prone) with pressure on the back (Correct answer)
On their back (supine)
Sitting upright against a wall

Correct answer: Face down (prone) with pressure on the back

The prone (face-down) position with pressure on the back or chest is the highest risk for positional asphyxia. The person's ability to breathe is severely restricted. If restraint on the ground is necessary, the recovery position is safer.

Question 15: What is a 'personal emergency evacuation plan' (PEEP)?

A plan for the door team only
A plan for VIP customers only
A fire escape route map
An individual plan for a person who may need assistance to evacuate safely, such as someone with a disability (Correct answer)

Correct answer: An individual plan for a person who may need assistance to evacuate safely, such as someone with a disability

A PEEP is an individual evacuation plan for someone who cannot self-evacuate — for example, wheelchair users, people with visual or hearing impairments, or anyone who needs specific assistance during an emergency.

Question 16: During an evacuation, what should a door supervisor do about toilet areas and disabled facilities?

Only check them after the building is evacuated
Ignore them — people will hear the alarm
Lock them to prevent re-entry
Check them to ensure they are clear of occupants, including accessible toilets and baby changing areas (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Check them to ensure they are clear of occupants, including accessible toilets and baby changing areas

All areas must be checked during evacuation, especially toilets, disabled facilities, and baby changing areas where people may not hear the alarm, may be unable to self-evacuate, or may not realise there is an emergency.

Question 17: What factors affect how much force is considered 'reasonable'?

The nature of the threat, available options, the person's vulnerability, and the environment (Correct answer)
Only whether CCTV is recording
Only the size of the person being restrained
Only the door supervisor's training level

Correct answer: The nature of the threat, available options, the person's vulnerability, and the environment

Reasonableness considers: the severity of the threat, whether lesser options were available, the vulnerability of the person (age, size, intoxication, disability), the environment, and the risk to others.

Question 18: What should a door supervisor do if they see suspicious behaviour that could be terrorism-related?

Confront the person directly
Ignore it — it's probably nothing
Post about it on social media
Report it to the Anti-Terrorist Hotline (0800 789 321) or call 999 in an emergency (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Report it to the Anti-Terrorist Hotline (0800 789 321) or call 999 in an emergency

Suspicious behaviour should be reported to the Anti-Terrorist Hotline (0800 789 321) for non-emergencies or 999 if there is an immediate threat. Never confront a suspected terrorist — report and let the police handle it.

Question 19: How should items found during a search be handled?

Disposed of immediately
Documented, secured and handed to police or management as appropriate (Correct answer)
Returned to the customer with a warning
Kept by the door supervisor as evidence

Correct answer: Documented, secured and handed to police or management as appropriate

Found items should be documented on an incident log, secured and dealt with according to the venue's policy, with prohibited items such as weapons or drugs handed to police.

Question 20: What is 'Operation Staysafe' in the context of UK terrorism response?

A public information campaign for reporting crime
A police and venue partnership operation promoting safe evacuation and lockdown procedures (Correct answer)
A training programme for counter-terrorism police
A national scheme for checking venue security measures

Correct answer: A police and venue partnership operation promoting safe evacuation and lockdown procedures

Operation Staysafe and similar local operations involve police working with venues to plan and practice evacuation, invacuation and lockdown procedures before incidents occur.

Question 21: What should a door supervisor do if they find a person unconscious in the toilets?

Leave them and tell management
Search them for drugs before calling for help
Call emergency services immediately and place them in the recovery position (Correct answer)
Attempt to wake them with water

Correct answer: Call emergency services immediately and place them in the recovery position

An unconscious person is a medical emergency; the recovery position prevents choking, and emergency services must be called immediately regardless of the suspected cause.

Question 22: What should door supervisors do when evacuating mobility-impaired customers during a fire?

Carry them down stairs immediately
Leave them at their seat and tell staff
Direct them to a refuge point and ensure emergency services are informed of their location (Correct answer)
Wait until fire brigade arrives before moving them

Correct answer: Direct them to a refuge point and ensure emergency services are informed of their location

Carrying mobility-impaired people down stairs risks injury; refuge points are designated safe waiting areas where people can shelter until the fire brigade can assist with evacuation.

Question 23: A customer is found in possession of a small amount of cannabis. What is the correct door supervisor response?

Refuse entry or remove from premises, document the incident and notify police if appropriate (Correct answer)
Allow entry as cannabis is a minor offence
Conduct a full search and arrest the customer
Confiscate the cannabis and warn the customer

Correct answer: Refuse entry or remove from premises, document the incident and notify police if appropriate

While door supervisors cannot arrest for simple possession without meeting the citizen's arrest threshold, they can refuse entry and should document and report the matter to police.

Question 24: What is a 'significant event log' and when should an entry be made?

A record for insurance purposes only
A record of any event that may have legal, safety or operational significance; an entry should be made as soon as possible after the event (Correct answer)
A form completed only when police attend
A log completed only at the end of the shift

Correct answer: A record of any event that may have legal, safety or operational significance; an entry should be made as soon as possible after the event

A significant event log captures any occurrence that may require follow-up, investigation or legal action; timely entry ensures accuracy and demonstrates professional practice.

Question 25: What does 'welfare check' mean in the context of a door supervisor's duties?

Confirming customer's age at entry
Checking staff are wearing correct uniforms
Monitoring and assisting vulnerable or intoxicated persons to ensure their safety (Correct answer)
Inspecting fire exits before opening

Correct answer: Monitoring and assisting vulnerable or intoxicated persons to ensure their safety

Welfare checks involve actively monitoring customers who appear vulnerable, intoxicated or unwell, and taking steps such as arranging safe transport or calling emergency services as needed.

Question 26: Under the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971, which class carries the highest penalties?

Class A (Correct answer)
Class C
Class D
Class B

Correct answer: Class A

Class A drugs such as heroin and cocaine carry the most severe penalties under the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971, including up to life imprisonment for supply.

Question 27: Why should two door supervisors be present when searching a same-gender person?

To increase search speed
As a witness to prevent false accusations and ensure professional conduct (Correct answer)
Because the law requires two supervisors for all searches
To comply with CCTV requirements

Correct answer: As a witness to prevent false accusations and ensure professional conduct

Having a witness during searches protects both the door supervisor from false allegations and the customer from potential misconduct, maintaining transparency and accountability.

Question 28: What is the 'licensing register' and who maintains it?

A public record of all licences and TENs maintained by the local authority (Correct answer)
A national register held by the Home Office
A SIA database of licensed door supervisors
A police database of problematic venues

Correct answer: A public record of all licences and TENs maintained by the local authority

Each local authority must maintain a public licensing register containing details of all premises licences, club premises certificates, personal licences and TENs issued in their area.

Question 29: What are the four licensing objectives under the Licensing Act 2003?

Prevention of drug use; fire safety; noise control; child protection
Crime prevention; traffic management; noise control; alcohol control
Prevention of crime and disorder; public safety; prevention of public nuisance; protection of children from harm (Correct answer)
Public order; building safety; underage drinking; terrorism prevention

Correct answer: Prevention of crime and disorder; public safety; prevention of public nuisance; protection of children from harm

The four licensing objectives under the Licensing Act 2003 are prevention of crime and disorder, public safety, prevention of public nuisance and protection of children from harm.

Question 30: What distinguishes a 'rub-down search' from an 'intrusive search'?

A rub-down is only of bags; intrusive is of persons
Intrusive searches are permitted at all licensed venues
A rub-down is over clothing only; an intrusive search involves touching under clothing or inside the body (Correct answer)
Rub-down searches require police presence

Correct answer: A rub-down is over clothing only; an intrusive search involves touching under clothing or inside the body

A rub-down search is conducted over clothing and is standard for door supervisors; intrusive searches involving contact under clothing require much higher justification and consent.

Question 31: What does 'contemporaneous' mean in the context of incident records?

Made only after police request
Made at the end of the shift
Made at the time of or very shortly after the incident (Correct answer)
Made after consulting with colleagues

Correct answer: Made at the time of or very shortly after the incident

A contemporaneous record is made at the time of or immediately after an incident while details are fresh; these records carry greater evidential weight than ones made much later.

Question 32: What are the visible signs that a person may have taken MDMA (ecstasy)?

Pinpoint pupils and drowsiness
Dilated pupils, sweating, jaw clenching and elevated mood (Correct answer)
Slurred speech and stumbling
Pale skin and aggression

Correct answer: Dilated pupils, sweating, jaw clenching and elevated mood

MDMA stimulates the central nervous system, causing dilated pupils, profuse sweating, teeth clenching, elevated mood and hyperactivity.

Question 33: Under the Licensing Act 2003, it is an offence to knowingly serve alcohol to whom?

Anyone without photo ID
A person who is drunk (Correct answer)
A person who has previously been refused entry elsewhere
Any person under 21

Correct answer: A person who is drunk

Section 141 of the Licensing Act 2003 makes it an offence for any person to knowingly sell or allow the sale of alcohol to a person who is drunk.

Question 34: What is an 'escorting hold' used for in door supervision?

A technique for carrying heavy equipment
Helping elderly customers to their seats
A greeting handshake with VIP customers
A controlled technique to guide a non-compliant person from the premises using minimal force (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A controlled technique to guide a non-compliant person from the premises using minimal force

An escorting hold is a controlled restraint technique used to guide someone out of the premises when they refuse to leave voluntarily. It uses the minimum force necessary to move them safely.

Question 35: What does 'NPS' stand for in the context of drug awareness?

Non-prescribed Stimulants
New Police Substances
Novel Psychoactive Substances (Correct answer)
Narcotics Prevention Strategy

Correct answer: Novel Psychoactive Substances

Novel Psychoactive Substances (NPS), formerly called 'legal highs', are synthetic compounds designed to mimic the effects of controlled drugs; they are now largely banned under the Psychoactive Substances Act 2016.

Question 36: Which legislation makes it illegal to drive a vehicle while over the prescribed blood alcohol limit and is relevant to venues serving alcohol?

Road Traffic Act 1988 (Correct answer)
Transport Act 2000
Alcohol etc. (Scotland) Act 2010
Licensing Act 2003

Correct answer: Road Traffic Act 1988

The Road Traffic Act 1988 sets drink-drive limits; venues and door supervisors should be aware that allowing visibly drunk customers to drive could contribute to road traffic offences.

Question 37: When is physical intervention legally justified for a door supervisor?

When the manager instructs the supervisor to remove someone
Whenever a customer refuses a reasonable request
As soon as a conflict begins
When de-escalation has failed and force is necessary to protect safety (Correct answer)

Correct answer: When de-escalation has failed and force is necessary to protect safety

Physical intervention is only justified as a last resort when verbal de-escalation has failed and force is necessary to prevent harm, and even then must be proportionate.

Question 38: What does the 'conflict resolution model' typically begin with?

Calling for backup
Immediate physical restraint
Assessment of the situation and gathering information (Correct answer)
Issuing a formal warning

Correct answer: Assessment of the situation and gathering information

The conflict resolution model starts with assessing and gathering information about the situation before deciding on an appropriate response strategy.

Question 39: What is the 'attitude model' used in conflict management?

A framework showing how attitudes and behaviours influence conflict outcomes, often using a conflict escalation ladder (Correct answer)
A method for assessing a person's dress code
A modelling agency's recruitment process
A customer satisfaction survey

Correct answer: A framework showing how attitudes and behaviours influence conflict outcomes, often using a conflict escalation ladder

The attitude model (or behavioural model) illustrates how a person's attitude can escalate from calm to aggressive, and how the door supervisor's attitude and behaviour directly influences whether the situation improves or worsens.

Question 40: A door supervisor is asked to admit an under-18 to a premises with an 'over-18s only' condition. What should they do?

Refuse entry as the licence condition must be complied with (Correct answer)
Admit the person but inform them of the condition
Seek permission from the DPS first
Admit the person if accompanied by an adult

Correct answer: Refuse entry as the licence condition must be complied with

Licence conditions are legally binding; an 'over-18s only' condition means no under-18 may enter regardless of accompaniment, and breaching this risks the licence.

Question 41: How deep should chest compressions be during adult CPR?

1–2 cm
8–10 cm
5–6 cm (Correct answer)
2–3 cm

Correct answer: 5–6 cm

Compressions must be 5–6 cm deep to adequately circulate blood; too shallow is ineffective and too deep risks injury to the chest and internal organs.

Question 42: What is the recommended procedure when a door supervisor suspects a customer's drink has been spiked?

Ignore the matter as it is a police responsibility
Advise the customer to drink water and rest
Separate the customer, call emergency services and preserve the drink as evidence (Correct answer)
Remove the drink and allow the customer to leave

Correct answer: Separate the customer, call emergency services and preserve the drink as evidence

Suspected drink spiking is a serious crime; the drink should be preserved for forensic analysis, the customer separated and cared for, and emergency services called immediately.

Question 43: What is 'displacement aggression' and how should a door supervisor respond to it?

Aggression directed at the door supervisor that stems from another source; respond with empathy and de-escalation (Correct answer)
A technique for moving an aggressive person
A legal defence for assault
Aggression caused by being displaced from the queue

Correct answer: Aggression directed at the door supervisor that stems from another source; respond with empathy and de-escalation

Displacement aggression occurs when a person vents frustration from an unrelated cause onto the door supervisor; recognising this and responding with empathy can defuse the situation.

Question 44: What is anaphylaxis and what is the treatment?

A panic attack; treated by calming the patient
A severe life-threatening allergic reaction; treated with adrenaline auto-injector (EpiPen) and 999 (Correct answer)
A mild rash caused by an allergy; treated with antihistamines
A drug overdose; treated with naloxone

Correct answer: A severe life-threatening allergic reaction; treated with adrenaline auto-injector (EpiPen) and 999

Anaphylaxis is a severe, potentially fatal allergic reaction causing airway swelling, breathing difficulty and circulatory collapse; emergency adrenaline (EpiPen) and immediate 999 call are essential.

Question 45: What is the correct way to record a use of force in the incident log?

State only that force was used
State the justification, the technique used, the duration, the outcome and any injuries (Correct answer)
Record it only if the person was injured
Write that it was 'reasonable' without further detail

Correct answer: State the justification, the technique used, the duration, the outcome and any injuries

A detailed use of force record must include why force was used, what technique was applied, how long it lasted and the outcome, demonstrating proportionality and legality.

Question 46: What legal right do individuals have regarding information held about them in CCTV recordings?

The right to access their own personal data (subject access request) under GDPR (Correct answer)
The right to demand immediate deletion of any footage
No rights as CCTV is a security measure
The right to receive a copy at no charge within 7 days

Correct answer: The right to access their own personal data (subject access request) under GDPR

Under GDPR, individuals have the right to request access to personal data held about them, including CCTV footage; venues must respond within one month and may charge a reasonable fee.

Question 47: What is 'Pub Watch' and how does it support door supervisors?

A national government scheme inspecting pubs
A police surveillance operation targeting licensed venues
An insurance scheme for licensed premises
A local voluntary scheme linking licensed premises to share intelligence on barred persons and incidents (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A local voluntary scheme linking licensed premises to share intelligence on barred persons and incidents

Pub Watch is a voluntary partnership between licensed premises that allows venues to share information on barred persons and incidents, improving security across an area.

Question 48: How should a door supervisor manage a situation where two groups are about to fight?

Join the weaker group to equalise the fight
Separate the groups using barriers or positioning, call for backup and de-escalate (Correct answer)
Wait until one group leaves before intervening
Only intervene once the fight has started

Correct answer: Separate the groups using barriers or positioning, call for backup and de-escalate

Physically separating the groups before violence erupts, combined with calling for backup and using verbal de-escalation, is the safest and most effective approach.

Question 49: What is the primary responsibility of a door supervisor during an emergency evacuation?

To lock all the doors
To ensure the safe and orderly evacuation of all persons from the premises (Correct answer)
To save the till money
To continue checking IDs

Correct answer: To ensure the safe and orderly evacuation of all persons from the premises

During an emergency evacuation, the door supervisor's primary responsibility is the safety of all persons. This includes guiding people to exits, checking areas are clear, assisting those who need help, and directing people to the assembly point.

Question 50: Under PACE 1984, how long can police initially detain a suspect without charge?

24 hours (Correct answer)
48 hours
6 hours
12 hours

Correct answer: 24 hours

PACE 1984 allows police to detain a suspect for up to 24 hours initially before charge; this can be extended in serious cases by a superintendent.

Question 51: What is the recommended minimum distance to maintain from a suspicious vehicle?

50 metres
25 metres
At least 100 metres (Correct answer)
10 metres

Correct answer: At least 100 metres

Police guidance recommends at least 100 metres (or more for larger devices) as an initial safety cordon distance from a suspicious vehicle that may contain an explosive device.

Question 52: Which area of the body should door supervisors avoid searching without specific same-gender training?

The arms and hands
The torso
Intimate areas, requiring a same-gender supervisor (Correct answer)
The face and neck

Correct answer: Intimate areas, requiring a same-gender supervisor

Searches of intimate areas must only be conducted by a person of the same gender, and even then only where explicitly consented to and required as a condition of entry.

Question 53: Which document must all SIA door supervisors carry while on duty?

Their SIA licence (Correct answer)
Their DBS certificate
Their employment contract
A copy of the venue licence

Correct answer: Their SIA licence

SIA-licensed door supervisors must carry their licence while working and produce it on request to police or an authorised person.

Question 54: What are common signs that a person may have taken a stimulant drug such as cocaine?

Red eyes and increased appetite
Drowsiness and slow speech
Slurred speech and poor coordination
Dilated pupils, excessive energy, talkativeness, jaw clenching, and sweating (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Dilated pupils, excessive energy, talkativeness, jaw clenching, and sweating

Stimulant drugs like cocaine cause dilated pupils, increased energy and confidence, talkativeness, jaw clenching or teeth grinding, sweating, and reduced appetite.

Question 55: A door supervisor suspects a drug deal is occurring outside the venue. What should they do?

Observe and document details, inform police and do not intervene directly (Correct answer)
Intervene and arrest both parties
Ignore it as it is outside the venue boundary
Film it on their personal phone and post it online

Correct answer: Observe and document details, inform police and do not intervene directly

Direct intervention in drug dealing is dangerous; the correct approach is to observe, document details and report to police who have the powers to deal with the matter.

Question 56: What are the signs that someone may have taken an opiate drug such as heroin?

Dilated pupils and hyperactivity
Red eyes and excessive hunger
Wide eyes and talkativeness
Constricted (pinpoint) pupils, drowsiness, slow breathing, and slurred speech (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Constricted (pinpoint) pupils, drowsiness, slow breathing, and slurred speech

Opiates cause constricted pupils, drowsiness or 'nodding off', slow and shallow breathing, slurred speech, and a relaxed or euphoric state. In overdose, breathing can stop entirely.

Question 57: Which characteristic distinguishes Class A drugs from other classes in terms of harm?

They are exclusively injectable substances
They cause harm only through long-term use
They are considered most harmful with the highest penalties for possession and supply (Correct answer)
They are only harmful to young people

Correct answer: They are considered most harmful with the highest penalties for possession and supply

Class A drugs are classified as most harmful; possession carries up to 7 years and supply up to life imprisonment, reflecting the severity of harm associated with these substances.

Question 58: What is the legal position on selling alcohol to a person who is buying on behalf of someone underage (proxy purchase)?

It is a civil matter between the buyer and venue
It is only an offence for the underage person
It is only illegal if the person is under 16
It is an offence under the Licensing Act 2003 to knowingly supply alcohol for someone underage (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It is an offence under the Licensing Act 2003 to knowingly supply alcohol for someone underage

Knowingly supplying alcohol for delivery to a person under 18 (proxy purchase) is an offence under Section 149 of the Licensing Act 2003.

Question 59: What is 'NPS' in the context of drug awareness?

Novel Psychoactive Substances — previously known as 'legal highs' (Correct answer)
Night Patrol Schedule
Non-Prescription Supplements
National Police Service

Correct answer: Novel Psychoactive Substances — previously known as 'legal highs'

Novel Psychoactive Substances (NPS) are synthetic drugs designed to mimic the effects of illegal drugs. Previously called 'legal highs', they were banned by the Psychoactive Substances Act 2016.

Question 60: What is the correct procedure after using physical force on a member of the public?

Only document it if the person complains
Document everything in an incident report, inform management, preserve CCTV, and seek medical attention for any injuries (Correct answer)
Deny any force was used
Delete any CCTV footage of the incident

Correct answer: Document everything in an incident report, inform management, preserve CCTV, and seek medical attention for any injuries

After any use of force: complete a detailed incident report, inform management, preserve CCTV footage, note witnesses, seek medical attention for any injuries, and cooperate with any police investigation.

Question 61: When searching bags, what must a door supervisor ensure?

The bag is searched out of the owner's sight
The search is conducted by two supervisors
The owner is present and consenting throughout the search (Correct answer)
All contents are removed and photographed

Correct answer: The owner is present and consenting throughout the search

The owner should be present during any bag search to maintain transparency, prevent false accusations of theft and ensure consent is maintained throughout.

Question 62: What personal data protection consideration applies when door supervisors note suspicious persons?

Records must be factual and proportionate; personal data must be handled in line with GDPR (Correct answer)
Only police may record descriptions of individuals
Photographs may be taken freely for security purposes
Any note-taking is prohibited under GDPR

Correct answer: Records must be factual and proportionate; personal data must be handled in line with GDPR

GDPR requires that personal data, including notes about individuals, is recorded on a need-to-know basis, stored securely and handled proportionately; blanket surveillance without justification is not permitted.

Question 63: What legal record should a door supervisor keep of any physical intervention?

No record is needed
A brief text message to their manager
A video recorded on their personal phone
A detailed written incident report including time, location, people involved, force used, reasons, witnesses, and outcome (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A detailed written incident report including time, location, people involved, force used, reasons, witnesses, and outcome

A comprehensive incident report is essential, recording: date, time, location, persons involved, what happened, what force was used and why, de-escalation attempts, witnesses, injuries, and the outcome.

Question 64: What are the signs of hostile reconnaissance that a door supervisor should watch for?

Someone photographing security measures, timing patrols, testing security reactions, making notes about exits, or returning repeatedly (Correct answer)
Someone taking selfies
Someone asking where the toilets are
Someone waiting for a taxi

Correct answer: Someone photographing security measures, timing patrols, testing security reactions, making notes about exits, or returning repeatedly

Signs include: photographing or filming security features (cameras, barriers, entry points), timing security patrols, testing security reactions, making detailed notes, repeated visits with no apparent purpose, and unusual interest in security procedures.

Question 65: What is 'drug spiking' and what should a door supervisor look out for?

Adding vitamins to drinks
The practice of adding drugs to someone's drink without their knowledge, which can cause confusion, loss of consciousness, or vulnerability to assault (Correct answer)
A cocktail mixing technique
Adding ice to drinks

Correct answer: The practice of adding drugs to someone's drink without their knowledge, which can cause confusion, loss of consciousness, or vulnerability to assault

Drug spiking involves adding substances (such as GHB/GBL or ketamine) to someone's drink without their knowledge. Signs include sudden confusion, unusual drowsiness, loss of coordination, or someone appearing much more intoxicated than expected.

Question 66: A customer appears extremely sedated with pinpoint pupils. Which substance might this indicate?

Opiates such as heroin (Correct answer)
Cannabis
Amphetamines
Cocaine

Correct answer: Opiates such as heroin

Pinpoint pupils (miosis) and heavy sedation are classic signs of opiate intoxication; this is a medical emergency requiring immediate first aid response.

Question 67: What is a 'marauding terrorist attack' (MTA)?

A hoax bomb threat
A financial fraud targeting businesses
A cyber attack on government systems
A fast-moving attack by one or more individuals using weapons to cause mass casualties in a public place (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A fast-moving attack by one or more individuals using weapons to cause mass casualties in a public place

A marauding terrorist attack involves one or more attackers moving through public areas using weapons (firearms, vehicles, or bladed weapons) to cause as many casualties as possible.

Question 68: Under the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971, drugs are classified into which categories?

Red, Amber, and Green
Class A, Class B, and Class C (Correct answer)
High, Medium, and Low
Levels 1, 2, and 3

Correct answer: Class A, Class B, and Class C

The Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 classifies controlled substances into Class A (most harmful, e.g., heroin, cocaine, ecstasy), Class B (e.g., cannabis, amphetamines), and Class C (e.g., anabolic steroids, GHB).

Question 69: What is the maximum penalty for supplying a Class A drug in the UK?

Life imprisonment and/or an unlimited fine (Correct answer)
7 years imprisonment
10 years imprisonment
5 years imprisonment

Correct answer: Life imprisonment and/or an unlimited fine

The maximum penalty for supplying or producing a Class A drug in the UK is life imprisonment and/or an unlimited fine. This reflects the serious harm these substances cause.

Question 70: What is the purpose of a 'pre-shift briefing' for door supervisors?

To conduct a roll call of all staff
To update staff employment records
To review CCTV footage from the previous night
To communicate venue-specific information, current threats, barred persons and any special instructions before the shift begins (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To communicate venue-specific information, current threats, barred persons and any special instructions before the shift begins

Pre-shift briefings ensure all staff are aware of known risks, barred persons, special events and any specific instructions, enabling a coordinated and informed security operation.

Question 71: What is 'dynamic risk assessment' in a conflict situation?

A police-led evaluation of venue safety
A written report completed after an incident
Continuously evaluating the threat and adjusting response accordingly (Correct answer)
A one-time assessment before a shift starts

Correct answer: Continuously evaluating the threat and adjusting response accordingly

Dynamic risk assessment is an ongoing mental process during a conflict where the door supervisor constantly re-evaluates the threat level and adapts their response in real time.

Question 72: A customer refuses a search at the door. What should a door supervisor do?

Force the search because refusal indicates guilt
Call the police to conduct the search
Refuse entry politely, as search is a condition of entry (Correct answer)
Allow entry and monitor the customer closely

Correct answer: Refuse entry politely, as search is a condition of entry

Refusal to comply with a search condition of entry means the person can be lawfully denied access; no search should ever be forced as this could constitute assault.

Question 73: Which legislation makes it an offence to possess a knife in a public place without lawful authority?

Misuse of Drugs Act 1971
Offensive Weapons Act 1996
Criminal Justice Act 1988 (Correct answer)
Police Act 1997

Correct answer: Criminal Justice Act 1988

Section 139 of the Criminal Justice Act 1988 prohibits carrying a bladed or pointed article in a public place without good reason or lawful authority.

Question 74: What does 'minimum use of force' mean?

Never using any force at all
Using the least painful technique
Using only the level of force that is necessary to achieve the lawful objective, and no more (Correct answer)
Using force only on the smallest person

Correct answer: Using only the level of force that is necessary to achieve the lawful objective, and no more

Minimum use of force means applying only enough force to achieve the lawful objective (e.g., removing someone from premises, preventing an assault). Any force beyond what is necessary becomes unlawful.

Question 75: What is the 'SARA model' sometimes used in security conflict management?

Search, Alert, Remove, Advise
Stop, Arrest, Restrain, Advise
Secure, Arrest, Record, Attend
Scan, Analyse, Respond, Assess (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Scan, Analyse, Respond, Assess

The SARA model (Scan, Analyse, Respond, Assess) is a problem-solving framework used to identify, address and evaluate responses to conflict and security incidents.

Question 76: A door supervisor is working alone and faces a group of aggressive individuals. What is the safest initial action?

Immediately challenge the group leader
Create distance, call for backup and avoid direct confrontation (Correct answer)
Physically intervene to prevent escalation
Ignore the group and return to the door

Correct answer: Create distance, call for backup and avoid direct confrontation

Lone working against multiple aggressors is extremely dangerous; creating distance and calling for backup while avoiding direct confrontation is the safest approach.

Question 77: What is 'due diligence' in the context of age verification on licensed premises?

Conducting CCTV review after each shift
Checking ID only for customers who appear under 16
Taking all reasonable steps to verify age, such as using a recognised Challenge 25 scheme (Correct answer)
Relying on customers' verbal confirmation of age

Correct answer: Taking all reasonable steps to verify age, such as using a recognised Challenge 25 scheme

Due diligence requires active steps to prevent underage sales; using Challenge 25 and accepted forms of ID (passport, driving licence, PASS card) demonstrates a reasonable precaution defence.

Question 78: Under the Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974, what is a 'spent conviction'?

A conviction that has been overturned on appeal
A caution given instead of prosecution
A conviction involving community service
A conviction after which the offender is no longer required to declare it in most situations (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A conviction after which the offender is no longer required to declare it in most situations

Once a rehabilitation period has passed, a conviction becomes 'spent' and the person is generally not required to disclose it; however SIA licensing requires disclosure of certain offences.

Question 79: What is 'excited delirium' and why should door supervisors be aware of it?

Excitement about being at a nightclub
A medical term for alcohol intoxication
A type of anxiety disorder
A potentially fatal condition characterised by extreme agitation, superhuman strength, and insensitivity to pain, often linked to drug use (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A potentially fatal condition characterised by extreme agitation, superhuman strength, and insensitivity to pain, often linked to drug use

Excited delirium is a medical emergency characterised by extreme agitation, hyperthermia, unusual strength, and insensitivity to pain. It can be associated with stimulant drugs and can be fatal, especially during restraint.

Question 80: What is the correct way to record a search on the venue's log?

Searches need not be logged unless an item is found
The door supervisor's name only
Only the name and outcome
Date, time, description of person, reason for search, outcome and any items found (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Date, time, description of person, reason for search, outcome and any items found

Comprehensive search logs including time, description, reason, outcome and items found create an accountable record and protect both the venue and the door supervisor.

Question 81: What is the ratio of compressions to rescue breaths in adult CPR?

30 compressions to 1 rescue breath
10 compressions to 2 rescue breaths
30 compressions to 2 rescue breaths (Correct answer)
15 compressions to 2 rescue breaths

Correct answer: 30 compressions to 2 rescue breaths

Current Resuscitation Council guidelines recommend a 30:2 ratio for adult CPR — 30 chest compressions followed by 2 rescue breaths — repeating until the patient recovers or help arrives.

Question 82: A late-night venue is required under its licence to operate a 'Challenge 25' scheme. A customer aged 24 presents a valid passport. What should happen?

Refer the decision to the DPS
Refuse entry as the customer is under 25
Accept the passport as proof of age and allow entry (Correct answer)
Accept only a driving licence or PASS card

Correct answer: Accept the passport as proof of age and allow entry

Challenge 25 is a trigger for asking for ID, not for refusal; if the customer provides acceptable proof of age (passport, driving licence, PASS card) they may be served.

Question 83: Under what circumstances can a door supervisor legally search a person for drugs?

Only with the person's consent as a condition of entry to the premises (Correct answer)
At any time they choose
Only with a police warrant
Only if the person is under 18

Correct answer: Only with the person's consent as a condition of entry to the premises

Door supervisors can only search people with their consent, typically as a condition of entry. If a person refuses to be searched, they can be refused entry but cannot be forcibly searched — only the police have that power.

Question 84: Which drug is associated with a 'date rape' risk in venues and is often colourless and odourless?

GHB (gamma-hydroxybutyrate) (Correct answer)
Cannabis
Amphetamine
Ketamine

Correct answer: GHB (gamma-hydroxybutyrate)

GHB is odourless, nearly tasteless and can cause rapid unconsciousness; it is associated with drink-spiking and sexual assault, making vigilance by door supervisors critical.

Question 85: Which offence under the Public Order Act 1986 involves threatening or abusive words likely to cause harassment?

Section 4 – Fear or provocation of violence (Correct answer)
Section 12 – Affray
Section 1 – Riot
Section 8 – Disorderly conduct

Correct answer: Section 4 – Fear or provocation of violence

Section 4 of the Public Order Act 1986 covers threatening, abusive or insulting words or behaviour likely to cause a person to believe immediate unlawful violence will be used.

Question 86: What is the purpose of a 'pat-down' search?

To verify customer identity
To identify intoxicated customers
To check for stolen property
To detect concealed weapons or prohibited items by feeling over clothing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To detect concealed weapons or prohibited items by feeling over clothing

A pat-down or rub-down search involves systematically feeling over a person's clothing to detect the presence of weapons, drugs or other prohibited items.

Question 87: What is the 'fight or flight' response and how is it relevant to conflict management?

A physiological stress response that increases aggression or avoidance; understanding it helps predict and manage behaviour (Correct answer)
A door supervisor's duty to either fight or retreat
A legal defence for using force
A training drill for emergency situations

Correct answer: A physiological stress response that increases aggression or avoidance; understanding it helps predict and manage behaviour

The fight or flight response is triggered by perceived threat and causes heightened arousal; understanding this helps door supervisors anticipate aggressive behaviour and use de-escalation appropriately.

Question 88: What is the 'chain of command' and why does it matter to door supervisors?

The hierarchy of authority from operative to supervisor to management; it ensures decisions are made at the correct level and accountability is maintained (Correct answer)
A communications protocol for radio networks
A tool for locking doors in sequence
A procedure for escalating fire incidents

Correct answer: The hierarchy of authority from operative to supervisor to management; it ensures decisions are made at the correct level and accountability is maintained

The chain of command defines who has authority to make what decisions; door supervisors should escalate issues appropriately rather than making decisions above their authority level.

Question 89: What is the key principle of 'proportionality' when using force?

Verbal force is always required before physical force
The force used must match the level of threat (Correct answer)
Force may be pre-emptive if a threat is anticipated
Any level of force is acceptable when protecting property

Correct answer: The force used must match the level of threat

Proportionality means the degree of force used must correspond to the severity of the threat; using excessive force is unlawful and can result in criminal charges.

Question 90: What should a door supervisor do if they find an unattended bag or suspicious item?

Open it to check the contents
Pick it up and move it to a safe place
Do not touch it; clear the area and call police using the HOT protocol (Correct answer)
Continue normal duties unless it is clearly dangerous

Correct answer: Do not touch it; clear the area and call police using the HOT protocol

The HOT protocol (Has it been hidden? Is it obviously suspicious? Is it typical of its surroundings?) guides assessment; the item should not be touched and police should be called.

Question 91: Which offence describes a group of 3 or more persons using violence causing others to fear for their safety?

Violent disorder under s.2 Public Order Act 1986 (Correct answer)
Affray under s.3 Public Order Act 1986
Breach of peace
Riot under s.1 Public Order Act 1986

Correct answer: Violent disorder under s.2 Public Order Act 1986

Violent disorder under Section 2 of the Public Order Act 1986 involves 3 or more people using or threatening violence, causing a person of reasonable firmness to fear for their safety.

Question 92: What is the legal position if a door supervisor uses force against a person who is passively resisting removal?

Force is fully justified regardless of level
Only verbal commands may be used
Force is never permitted against passive resistance
Force may be used but must be the minimum necessary (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Force may be used but must be the minimum necessary

Even against passive resistance, a door supervisor may use reasonable force as a last resort, but it must be the minimum necessary and proportionate to the situation.

Question 93: What is 'drug-facilitated sexual assault' and how can door supervisors help prevent it?

A crime only relevant to police investigations
A term for consensual drug use between partners
An issue solely managed by bar staff
The use of substances to incapacitate victims; supervisors can monitor for suspicious behaviour, drink-spiking and welfare check vulnerable customers (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The use of substances to incapacitate victims; supervisors can monitor for suspicious behaviour, drink-spiking and welfare check vulnerable customers

Door supervisors play a key role in spotting suspicious behaviour, signs of spiked drinks and vulnerable individuals, and can intervene early to prevent drug-facilitated assaults.

Question 94: What does 'reasonable force' mean in the context of a door supervisor's powers?

Force authorised by a police officer
Any force necessary to subdue a person
Minimum verbal force only
Force proportionate to the threat faced (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Force proportionate to the threat faced

Reasonable force must be proportionate to the threat; excessive force can lead to criminal liability for the door supervisor.

Question 95: What information should be gathered if a bomb threat is received by telephone?

Hang up immediately and call the police
Keep the caller talking and gather as much information as possible: where is the bomb, when will it go off, what does it look like, why are they doing it, and note their voice characteristics (Correct answer)
Record the call on your mobile phone
Put the caller on hold

Correct answer: Keep the caller talking and gather as much information as possible: where is the bomb, when will it go off, what does it look like, why are they doing it, and note their voice characteristics

Stay calm, keep the caller talking, and gather information: exact location of the device, time of detonation, type of device, reason for the threat, and note the caller's accent, background noise, and speech characteristics. Use a bomb threat checklist if available.

Question 96: Which technique involves using open questions to gather information during a conflict?

Active listening and questioning (Correct answer)
Authoritative command voice
Tactical communication shutdown
Verbal judo

Correct answer: Active listening and questioning

Open questions that cannot be answered with yes or no encourage the person to talk, giving the door supervisor information and time to assess the situation while potentially reducing tension.

Question 97: What does 'irresponsible drinks promotions' mean under the Licensing Act 2003 guidance?

Happy hour pricing at any time
Drinks promotions not approved by the local authority
Promotions that encourage excessive consumption or target vulnerable groups, which are prohibited under licence conditions (Correct answer)
Any promotion offering free alcohol

Correct answer: Promotions that encourage excessive consumption or target vulnerable groups, which are prohibited under licence conditions

The Licensing Act guidance prohibits promotions that encourage rapid or excessive consumption, offer unlimited alcohol for a fixed price or specifically target intoxicated persons.

Question 98: What does AED stand for?

Automated External Defibrillator (Correct answer)
Acute Emergency Diagnostic
Advanced Emergency Device
Automated Emergency Defibrillation

Correct answer: Automated External Defibrillator

An AED (Automated External Defibrillator) analyses heart rhythm and delivers an electric shock to restore normal rhythm in cardiac arrest; they are designed for use by untrained persons.

Question 99: What type of attack involves the use of a vehicle loaded with explosives rather than a driven weapon?

Chemical vehicle attack
Vehicle-borne IED (VBIED) attack (Correct answer)
Vehicle as a weapon attack
Remote detonated attack

Correct answer: Vehicle-borne IED (VBIED) attack

A VBIED (Vehicle-Borne IED) uses a vehicle as the delivery mechanism for an explosive device, distinct from a vehicle as a weapon attack where the vehicle itself is the weapon.

Question 100: What does 'early morning restriction order' (EMRO) allow a local authority to do?

Restrict the sale of alcohol during specified early morning hours in a defined area (Correct answer)
Close all licensed premises before midnight
Extend licensing hours for special events
Restrict entry to licensed premises to over-21s

Correct answer: Restrict the sale of alcohol during specified early morning hours in a defined area

An EMRO allows local authorities to restrict the sale of alcohol between midnight and 6am in areas with persistent alcohol-related problems.

Question 101: What is 'positional asphyxia' and why must door supervisors be aware of it?

A type of martial arts hold
A technique for restraining aggressive individuals
A condition where a person's body position prevents them from breathing adequately, which can be fatal (Correct answer)
A breathing exercise for stress relief

Correct answer: A condition where a person's body position prevents them from breathing adequately, which can be fatal

Positional asphyxia occurs when a person's body position restricts their ability to breathe. Restraining someone face-down, applying pressure to the chest or back, or restricting the diaphragm can be fatal.

Question 102: Which physical signs might indicate a person has consumed cocaine?

Slow movement and confusion
Extreme confidence, rapid speech, dilated pupils and nosebleeds (Correct answer)
Increased appetite and drowsiness
Pinpoint pupils and sedation

Correct answer: Extreme confidence, rapid speech, dilated pupils and nosebleeds

Cocaine is a stimulant producing confidence, rapid speech, dilated pupils; heavy use can cause nosebleeds due to damage to nasal membranes from snorting.

Question 103: What does the acronym 'PASS' stand for when using a fire extinguisher?

Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep (Correct answer)
Press, Alert, Spray, Secure
Pull, Activate, Spray, Suppress
Push, Aim, Shoot, Sweep

Correct answer: Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

PASS describes the technique: Pull the pin, Aim at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle and Sweep the nozzle from side to side across the base of the fire.

Question 104: Which communication barrier is most likely when dealing with a person under the influence of alcohol?

Reduced ability to process information and respond rationally (Correct answer)
Language barrier
Hearing impairment
Cognitive disability

Correct answer: Reduced ability to process information and respond rationally

Alcohol impairs cognitive processing, reducing a person's ability to understand instructions or reason calmly, which means door supervisors need adapted communication strategies.

Question 105: Why is it important to conduct searches consistently and without discrimination?

To satisfy insurance requirements
To reduce the time spent searching
To comply with the Equality Act 2010 and avoid accusations of bias (Correct answer)
To maximise the number of searches carried out

Correct answer: To comply with the Equality Act 2010 and avoid accusations of bias

Inconsistent searches that target people based on protected characteristics breach the Equality Act 2010 and can expose the venue and individual to legal action.

Question 106: After a physical intervention, what is the first action a door supervisor should take?

Check the welfare of all parties and call emergency services if needed (Correct answer)
Search the person detained
Write the incident report
Inform the manager

Correct answer: Check the welfare of all parties and call emergency services if needed

Immediate welfare checks ensure no one has been injured; if medical assistance is needed, emergency services must be called without delay as a duty of care.

Question 107: Why should door supervisors avoid using pain compliance techniques without specific training?

They can cause serious injury and legal liability without proper training (Correct answer)
They only work on intoxicated persons
They require police supervision
They are always illegal in England and Wales

Correct answer: They can cause serious injury and legal liability without proper training

Pain compliance techniques can cause injury if applied incorrectly; without proper training they are dangerous and could expose the door supervisor to criminal prosecution for assault.

Question 108: What is the 'Frank' approach to drug awareness referenced in UK security training?

A slang term for cannabis
A search technique for detecting drugs
A government drug information resource providing factual advice without moralising (Correct answer)
A police liaison procedure

Correct answer: A government drug information resource providing factual advice without moralising

FRANK is the UK government's drug information service; security training draws on FRANK resources to ensure staff have accurate, non-judgmental knowledge of drug effects and risks.

Question 109: What is a 'security sweep' and when should it be conducted?

A police inspection of the venue
A daily cleaning procedure
A check of staff personal belongings
A systematic check of the premises before opening and after closing to identify suspicious items (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A systematic check of the premises before opening and after closing to identify suspicious items

A security sweep involves systematically checking all areas of the premises for suspicious items before opening and after major events; it is a key preventive security measure.

Question 110: Under UK law, when is a door supervisor legally justified in using physical intervention?

Whenever the venue manager instructs them to
When the customer refuses to buy a drink
Whenever a customer is rude
When it is necessary to prevent crime, in self-defence, or to prevent injury, and all other options have been exhausted (Correct answer)

Correct answer: When it is necessary to prevent crime, in self-defence, or to prevent injury, and all other options have been exhausted

Physical intervention is only justified when necessary to prevent crime (Criminal Law Act 1967 S.3), in self-defence or defence of others (common law), or to prevent injury, and only when de-escalation has failed.

Question 111: Under the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974, employees have a duty to:

Refuse any task they consider potentially hazardous
Take reasonable care of their own health and safety and that of others affected by their work (Correct answer)
Carry out their own risk assessments independently
Report all incidents directly to the Health and Safety Executive

Correct answer: Take reasonable care of their own health and safety and that of others affected by their work

Section 7 of the HASAWA 1974 requires employees to take reasonable care of their own health and safety and of others who may be affected by their acts or omissions.

Question 112: Why is accurate incident documentation important for a door supervisor?

It creates a contemporaneous record that can be used in court and protects the supervisor from false allegations (Correct answer)
It is required only for insurance purposes
It is only necessary for major incidents involving police
It is completed solely for management's benefit

Correct answer: It creates a contemporaneous record that can be used in court and protects the supervisor from false allegations

Accurate, contemporaneous records demonstrate what occurred and why; they can be used in court proceedings and protect the door supervisor against allegations of misconduct or excessive force.

Question 113: After a conflict situation has been resolved, what should a door supervisor do?

Complete an incident report detailing what happened, who was involved, and what actions were taken (Correct answer)
Forget about it and move on
Only report it if asked by the manager
Post about it on social media

Correct answer: Complete an incident report detailing what happened, who was involved, and what actions were taken

A detailed incident report must be completed recording the facts of what happened, who was involved, what actions were taken, any use of force, and the outcome. This provides a vital record for legal and operational purposes.

Question 114: Which Act makes it illegal to discriminate against a disabled person when providing services including venue access?

Equality Act 2010 (Correct answer)
Human Rights Act 1998
Care Act 2014
Disability Discrimination Act 1995

Correct answer: Equality Act 2010

The Equality Act 2010 consolidated previous discrimination law; door supervisors must make reasonable adjustments and cannot refuse entry solely because of a person's disability.

Question 115: A customer is asked to leave but claims they have a right to remain as a paying guest. What is the legal position?

The customer can only be asked to leave if they are causing disorder
A customer has a right to stay until the venue closes
Only the police can remove a paying customer
A paying customer can be required to leave and becomes a trespasser if they refuse (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A paying customer can be required to leave and becomes a trespasser if they refuse

The licence holder and DPS have the right to withdraw permission for any person to remain on the premises; a person who stays after being asked to leave becomes a trespasser.

Question 116: What is the Psychoactive Substances Act 2016?

An Act legalising cannabis
An Act regulating alcohol sales
An Act governing prescription medication
An Act making it an offence to produce, supply, or offer to supply any psychoactive substance intended for human consumption (Correct answer)

Correct answer: An Act making it an offence to produce, supply, or offer to supply any psychoactive substance intended for human consumption

The Psychoactive Substances Act 2016 made it an offence to produce, supply, or offer to supply any psychoactive substance (with exemptions for alcohol, tobacco, caffeine, and medicines). It replaced the previous patchwork approach to 'legal highs'.

Question 117: What is a 'licence review' under the Licensing Act 2003 and when might it be triggered?

A formal process where the licensing authority reconsiders a licence after problems arise, such as crime or disorder (Correct answer)
A police assessment of the venue's security
An annual renewal process for all premises
A routine inspection by environmental health

Correct answer: A formal process where the licensing authority reconsiders a licence after problems arise, such as crime or disorder

A licence review is triggered when a responsible authority or interested party believes the licensing objectives are not being met; the licensing authority may add conditions, reduce hours or revoke the licence.

Question 118: Which commonly misused over-the-counter medicine can cause intoxication-like symptoms?

Ibuprofen
Aspirin
Antihistamines in high doses (Correct answer)
Paracetamol

Correct answer: Antihistamines in high doses

High doses of antihistamines such as diphenhydramine can cause drowsiness, confusion and disorientation, mimicking drug intoxication and requiring the same welfare response.

Question 119: What are 'club drugs' and why are they particularly relevant to door supervisors?

Drugs only relevant to police, not security staff
Prescription medicines misused in clubs
Drugs commonly used in nightclub environments such as MDMA, ketamine and GHB, posing health risks (Correct answer)
Legal highs available over the counter

Correct answer: Drugs commonly used in nightclub environments such as MDMA, ketamine and GHB, posing health risks

Club drugs are substances associated with nightlife environments; door supervisors need to recognise signs of their use to identify medical emergencies and manage conflict risks.

Question 120: What does 'Challenge 25' mean?

Staff should ask for ID from anyone who appears to be under 25 years old (Correct answer)
It is a type of premises licence
Customers must be 25 to enter the venue
The venue can serve up to 25 underage customers

Correct answer: Staff should ask for ID from anyone who appears to be under 25 years old

Challenge 25 is a policy where staff challenge anyone who appears to be under 25 to prove they are 18 or over before being served alcohol. It provides a safety margin above the legal age of 18.

Question 121: A customer is found collapsed in the toilets with a syringe nearby. What is the immediate priority?

Remove the syringe immediately
Leave and call management only
Call emergency services, ensure an open airway and apply recovery position without removing the syringe (Correct answer)
Attempt to wake the person with ammonia-based smelling salts

Correct answer: Call emergency services, ensure an open airway and apply recovery position without removing the syringe

A collapsed person is a medical emergency; securing the airway and recovery position are priorities; moving the syringe risks a needlestick injury — leave it for emergency services.

Question 122: What does 'duty of care' mean for a door supervisor during a conflict?

An obligation to obey the DPS at all times
A legal obligation to take reasonable steps to prevent harm to all persons involved (Correct answer)
A requirement to call police in every conflict
A duty to protect only the venue's property

Correct answer: A legal obligation to take reasonable steps to prevent harm to all persons involved

Duty of care means door supervisors must take reasonable steps to ensure the safety of customers, staff and even the person being removed, including providing first aid if needed.

Question 123: Which UK government counter-terrorism strategy uses the four strands of Prevent, Pursue, Protect and Prepare?

JTAC
CONTEST (Correct answer)
PREVENT
COBRA

Correct answer: CONTEST

CONTEST is the UK's counter-terrorism strategy built on four workstreams: Prevent (stop radicalisation), Pursue (disrupt plots), Protect (harden targets) and Prepare (respond to attacks).

Question 124: What indicators might suggest a person has been radicalised?

Expressing political opinions
Studying religious texts
Sudden changes in behaviour, expressing extremist views, glorifying violence and disengaging from previous social groups (Correct answer)
Visiting a mosque or church regularly

Correct answer: Sudden changes in behaviour, expressing extremist views, glorifying violence and disengaging from previous social groups

Indicators of radicalisation include rapid changes in behaviour, adopting extreme viewpoints, glorifying acts of violence or terrorism and withdrawing from normal social contacts.

Question 125: Which document records the conditions attached to a premises licence?

The SIA register
The premises licence itself and its summary (Correct answer)
The local authority inspection report
The DPS certificate

Correct answer: The premises licence itself and its summary

The premises licence document and its summary set out all the conditions under which the premises may operate; a copy of the summary must be displayed prominently at the premises.

Question 126: What is 'personal space' and why is it important in conflict situations?

A legal buffer zone around licensed premises
The physical distance around a person; maintaining it reduces threat perception (Correct answer)
The area behind a venue where staff take breaks
The distance required between bouncers on a door

Correct answer: The physical distance around a person; maintaining it reduces threat perception

Maintaining appropriate personal space prevents an aggressive person from feeling cornered or threatened, reducing the likelihood of physical escalation.

Question 127: What does 'de-escalation' mean in conflict management?

Reducing the intensity of a conflict through communication techniques (Correct answer)
Calling for police backup immediately
Escalating force to match the aggressor
Using a staircase to move people

Correct answer: Reducing the intensity of a conflict through communication techniques

De-escalation involves using verbal and non-verbal communication techniques to calm a situation, reduce tension, and prevent a conflict from becoming physical or more serious.

Question 128: What is the recovery position used for?

To maintain an open airway and prevent choking in an unconscious breathing person (Correct answer)
To resuscitate a person who is not breathing
To stabilise a person with a suspected spinal injury
To treat a person in anaphylactic shock

Correct answer: To maintain an open airway and prevent choking in an unconscious breathing person

The recovery position keeps an unconscious but breathing person on their side with the airway open, preventing vomit or fluid from blocking the airway.

Question 129: The Psychoactive Substances Act 2016 bans the supply of substances that do what?

Cause any physical side effect
Produce a psychoactive effect in humans, with exceptions for alcohol, tobacco and medicines (Correct answer)
Are sold for recreational purposes
Have a stimulant effect only

Correct answer: Produce a psychoactive effect in humans, with exceptions for alcohol, tobacco and medicines

The Psychoactive Substances Act 2016 bans the production, supply and possession with intent to supply any substance that produces a psychoactive effect, with specific exemptions.

Question 130: Why is it important for door supervisors to know the location of all emergency exits?

To direct evacuees efficiently, avoid bottlenecks, and ensure all exits are utilised during an emergency (Correct answer)
To prevent customers using them during normal hours
To lock them at closing time
To use them for smoke breaks

Correct answer: To direct evacuees efficiently, avoid bottlenecks, and ensure all exits are utilised during an emergency

Knowing all exit locations allows door supervisors to direct people efficiently during evacuations, distribute the flow of people across multiple exits to prevent dangerous bottlenecks, and use the safest routes.

Question 131: What is 'situational awareness' and why is it fundamental to door supervision?

Knowledge of first aid procedures
Understanding the venue's licensing conditions
Continuous monitoring of the environment to identify and respond to threats before they escalate (Correct answer)
Awareness of the venue's entertainment schedule

Correct answer: Continuous monitoring of the environment to identify and respond to threats before they escalate

Situational awareness — constantly scanning the environment, identifying risks and anticipating problems — is the foundation of proactive security and conflict prevention.

Question 132: A door supervisor finds a sealed bag of white powder in a customer's jacket. What should they do?

Taste the powder to identify it
Preserve the item without handling it excessively, refuse the customer entry and call police (Correct answer)
Dispose of the powder to prevent drug use on the premises
Return the powder and issue a warning

Correct answer: Preserve the item without handling it excessively, refuse the customer entry and call police

Handling the substance minimally preserves forensic evidence; door supervisors must not possess controlled drugs themselves and should call police to take charge of the matter.

Question 133: What offence is committed when a person dishonestly makes a false representation to obtain a benefit?

Obtaining services dishonestly
Fraud by false representation under the Fraud Act 2006 (Correct answer)
Deception under the Deception Act
Theft under the Theft Act 1968

Correct answer: Fraud by false representation under the Fraud Act 2006

Section 2 of the Fraud Act 2006 defines fraud by false representation; a person who uses a fake ID to gain entry could be guilty of this offence.

Question 134: What is 'positional asphyxia' and why must door supervisors be aware of it?

A potentially fatal condition caused by body position restricting breathing during restraint (Correct answer)
A medical term for panic attacks in crowds
A technique for restraining violent persons
A safety check for entry queues

Correct answer: A potentially fatal condition caused by body position restricting breathing during restraint

Positional asphyxia occurs when a person's body position prevents adequate breathing, often during restraint face-down; it can be fatal and door supervisors must avoid positions that restrict breathing.

Question 135: What risks are associated with restraining an intoxicated person?

The main risk is damage to their clothing
Increased risk of positional asphyxia, vomiting and choking, unpredictable behaviour, and reduced pain response (Correct answer)
No additional risks — intoxicated people are easier to restrain
Only the risk of them falling asleep

Correct answer: Increased risk of positional asphyxia, vomiting and choking, unpredictable behaviour, and reduced pain response

Intoxicated individuals face heightened risks during restraint: alcohol suppresses breathing reflexes (positional asphyxia risk), they may vomit and choke, their behaviour is unpredictable, and reduced pain response means they may not show warning signs.

Question 136: Under the Licensing Act 2003, which licensable activity requires a licence or TEN?

Regulated entertainment and the retail sale of alcohol (Correct answer)
Serving soft drinks
Playing recorded music at low volume
Holding private functions with no alcohol

Correct answer: Regulated entertainment and the retail sale of alcohol

Licensable activities include the retail sale of alcohol, regulated entertainment (live music, dancing, films) and late-night refreshment; they all require authorisation under the Act.

Question 137: Under the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971, which drug is classified as Class B?

Ecstasy (MDMA)
Cocaine
Heroin
Cannabis (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Cannabis

Cannabis is classified as a Class B drug under the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971; Class A includes heroin, cocaine and MDMA which carry heavier penalties.

Question 138: The Equality Act 2010 prohibits door supervisors from refusing entry based on which characteristic?

Age (under 18)
Race or disability (Correct answer)
Dress code violation
Intoxication level

Correct answer: Race or disability

The Equality Act 2010 protects against discrimination on grounds of protected characteristics including race, disability, gender and religion; dress codes must be applied equally.

Question 139: Which of the following is a Class A drug in the UK?

Cocaine (Correct answer)
Anabolic steroids
Diazepam
Cannabis

Correct answer: Cocaine

Cocaine is a Class A drug — the most serious classification. Class A also includes heroin, ecstasy (MDMA), crack cocaine, LSD, and magic mushrooms (when prepared).

Question 140: What is 'See It, Say It, Sorted' in the context of UK security?

A public awareness campaign encouraging people to report suspicious activity to authorities (Correct answer)
A social media hashtag
A recycling initiative
A cleaning campaign

Correct answer: A public awareness campaign encouraging people to report suspicious activity to authorities

'See It, Say It, Sorted' is a public awareness campaign (primarily used in transport settings) encouraging people to report anything suspicious to police or staff. It reinforces the message that reporting suspicious activity helps keep everyone safe.

Question 141: What should a door supervisor do if they witness a colleague using excessive force?

Join in to help their colleague
Only report it if asked about it later
Ignore it — it's not their responsibility
Intervene to stop the excessive force, report it to management, and document the incident (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Intervene to stop the excessive force, report it to management, and document the incident

The door supervisor has a legal and professional duty to intervene if a colleague is using excessive force, report it to management, and document what happened. Failing to intervene could make them complicit.

Question 142: What should a door supervisor do if they suspect a customer is suffering a drug overdose?

Ignore it — it's not the venue's responsibility
Remove them from the venue and leave them outside
Call 999 immediately, place them in the recovery position if unconscious but breathing, and monitor their condition (Correct answer)
Give them coffee to sober up

Correct answer: Call 999 immediately, place them in the recovery position if unconscious but breathing, and monitor their condition

A suspected drug overdose is a medical emergency. Call 999 immediately, place the casualty in the recovery position if unconscious but breathing, monitor breathing, be prepared to perform CPR, and tell paramedics what substance may have been taken if known.

Question 143: What is the purpose of a 'licence summary' being displayed at the premises entrance?

To inform the public and police of the licence conditions at a glance (Correct answer)
To advertise the venue's opening hours
To act as proof of insurance
To satisfy the data protection requirements

Correct answer: To inform the public and police of the licence conditions at a glance

The displayed licence summary provides transparency, allows police and responsible authorities to quickly verify conditions are being met and informs customers of the venue's authorised activities.

Question 144: Under the Criminal Law Act 1967, who can make a citizen's arrest in England and Wales?

Any person (Correct answer)
Only licensed security staff
Only magistrates
Only police officers

Correct answer: Any person

The Criminal Law Act 1967 allows any person to arrest someone they reasonably suspect of committing an indictable offence, giving door supervisors this legal power.

Question 145: Which form of regulated entertainment was deregulated for small venues under the Live Music Act 2012?

Only classical music performances
Street busking only
All forms of live music
Live unamplified music and amplified live music for audiences up to 500 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Live unamplified music and amplified live music for audiences up to 500

The Live Music Act 2012 removed the licensing requirement for live unamplified music and amplified live music in licensed venues and workplaces for audiences up to 500 between 8am and 11pm.

Question 146: What are the signs of ketamine intoxication?

Extreme confidence and rapid speech
Excessive energy and sweating
Pinpoint pupils and sedation
Dissociation, confusion, inability to feel pain and appearing unconscious while awake (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Dissociation, confusion, inability to feel pain and appearing unconscious while awake

Ketamine is a dissociative anaesthetic causing confusion, detachment from reality, inability to feel pain and a 'k-hole' state where the person appears semi-conscious.

Question 147: What is a 'handover briefing' and why is it important?

A briefing given only after a violent incident
A radio check at the start of a shift
A written report submitted to management only
A communication from the outgoing shift to the incoming shift covering incidents, issues and important information (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A communication from the outgoing shift to the incoming shift covering incidents, issues and important information

Handover briefings ensure continuity of security; incoming staff are made aware of persons barred, ongoing issues, special conditions and any incidents from the previous shift.

Question 148: Under the Licensing Act 2003, what is the penalty for selling alcohol to a person under 18?

A fine up to level 5 on the standard scale (unlimited since 2015) (Correct answer)
A fixed penalty notice only
Immediate licence revocation
Up to 6 months imprisonment

Correct answer: A fine up to level 5 on the standard scale (unlimited since 2015)

Selling alcohol to a person under 18 is a summary offence with a fine up to the legal maximum; persistent underage sales can also lead to licence review and revocation.

Question 149: What is the correct way to dispose of a confiscated knife found during a search?

Keep it behind the bar
Dispose of it in the bin
Place it safely in a container and hand it to the police (Correct answer)
Return it to the owner on departure

Correct answer: Place it safely in a container and hand it to the police

A confiscated knife must be handled safely, placed in a secure container and handed to police; possession of a blade by the door supervisor without good reason could itself be an offence.

Question 150: It is an offence to serve alcohol to a person who is drunk. Under which Act is this provision?

The Licensing Act 2003 (Correct answer)
The Health and Safety at Work Act 1974
The Misuse of Drugs Act 1971
The Equality Act 2010

Correct answer: The Licensing Act 2003

Section 141 of the Licensing Act 2003 makes it an offence to knowingly sell or attempt to sell alcohol to a person who is drunk on relevant premises.

Question 151: What is 'reasonable force' in the context of conflict management?

The minimum amount of force necessary and proportionate to deal with the situation (Correct answer)
Any level of force a door supervisor decides to use
Force that leaves no visible marks
Force approved by the venue manager

Correct answer: The minimum amount of force necessary and proportionate to deal with the situation

Reasonable force is the minimum level of force that is necessary and proportionate to the threat faced. It must be no more than is needed to deal with the immediate situation.

Question 152: Under RIDDOR 2013, within how many days must an employer report a worker's specified injury (such as a bone fracture other than a finger or toe) to the HSE?

7 days
3 days
10 days (Correct answer)
15 days

Correct answer: 10 days

Specified injuries to workers must be reported to the HSE within 10 days of the incident occurring under RIDDOR 2013.

Question 153: What must a door supervisor obtain before conducting a search of a customer?

Authorisation from the DPS in writing
The customer's informed consent (Correct answer)
A written warrant
Permission from the police

Correct answer: The customer's informed consent

Door supervisors have no statutory search powers; all searches must be based on the customer's free and informed consent, often given as a condition of entry to the venue.

Question 154: A customer appears intoxicated by drugs but becomes aggressive when confronted. What is the priority?

Safety first — de-escalate verbally, call for backup and avoid physical confrontation if possible (Correct answer)
Demand the customer identify the drugs taken
Eject the customer alone without backup
Immediately apply restraint

Correct answer: Safety first — de-escalate verbally, call for backup and avoid physical confrontation if possible

Drug-induced aggression is unpredictable; the safest approach is verbal de-escalation, summoning backup and avoiding solo physical confrontation where possible.

Question 155: What is a 'drugs policy' for a licensed venue?

A documented set of procedures for preventing drug use, searching, seizure, storage, and police liaison (Correct answer)
A policy encouraging drug use
A policy for selling energy drinks
A medical policy for prescribing medication

Correct answer: A documented set of procedures for preventing drug use, searching, seizure, storage, and police liaison

A drugs policy sets out the venue's approach to preventing drug use, including search procedures, how seized drugs are handled and stored, staff training, police liaison, and signage. It is a key document for due diligence.

Question 156: What is the 'Prevent' strategy in UK counter-terrorism?

Preventing the sale of alcohol to minors
Preventing people from entering the UK
Preventing drug use in venues
A strategy to stop people being drawn into terrorism and to identify and support those at risk of radicalisation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A strategy to stop people being drawn into terrorism and to identify and support those at risk of radicalisation

Prevent is the workstream of CONTEST that aims to stop people becoming terrorists or supporting terrorism. It includes identifying and supporting people vulnerable to radicalisation, and working with communities.

Question 157: Why is it important that door supervisors do not use or be under the influence of drugs or alcohol while on duty?

It is only an issue if customers complain
Alcohol is permitted if consumed before the shift starts
Only relevant if working at a drug-free venue
It impairs judgement, creates legal liability and is grounds for licence revocation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It impairs judgement, creates legal liability and is grounds for licence revocation

Being under the influence on duty impairs decision-making and the ability to manage conflict safely; it also breaches professional standards and SIA licence conditions.

Question 158: Which fire extinguisher is safe to use on an electrical fire?

CO2 (carbon dioxide) extinguisher (Correct answer)
Wet chemical extinguisher
Foam extinguisher
Water extinguisher

Correct answer: CO2 (carbon dioxide) extinguisher

CO2 extinguishers are safe for electrical fires as they do not conduct electricity; water and foam extinguishers conduct electricity and must not be used on live electrical equipment.

Question 159: A door supervisor witnesses a crime. What should they record immediately?

Details after calling management
Only the suspect's name
Time, description of suspect, nature of offence, direction of travel and any witnesses (Correct answer)
Their own personal account for court use only

Correct answer: Time, description of suspect, nature of offence, direction of travel and any witnesses

An immediate record of suspect description, offence observed, time and direction of travel provides critical information for police and retains detail that may quickly be forgotten.

Question 160: A venue's premises licence is being reviewed following a serious incident. Who can call for a review?

Only the local council chief executive
Only the licence holder
Only the police
Police, environmental health, other responsible authorities or any interested party (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Police, environmental health, other responsible authorities or any interested party

A licence review can be requested by any responsible authority (such as police) or by interested parties such as local residents, with the licensing authority deciding the outcome.

Question 161: A door supervisor detains someone pending police arrival. Under which legal basis is this justified?

Citizen's arrest under the Criminal Law Act 1967 (Correct answer)
Common law powers of detention
Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 s.24
Vagrancy Act 1824

Correct answer: Citizen's arrest under the Criminal Law Act 1967

Door supervisors use citizen's arrest powers under the Criminal Law Act 1967 to detain a person until police arrive.

Question 162: As a door supervisor, what should you do if you notice someone has left a bag unattended in a crowded venue?

Put it in lost property
Announce it over the PA system
Open it to check the contents
Clear the immediate area, do not touch the bag, inform management, and follow the venue's suspicious package procedure (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Clear the immediate area, do not touch the bag, inform management, and follow the venue's suspicious package procedure

Do not touch or move the bag. Clear the immediate area, inform management, follow the venue's suspicious item procedure, and call the police if necessary. Treat all unattended items as potentially suspicious.

Question 163: What happens if a premises operates without a valid premises licence?

It is reported to the SIA for investigation
Nothing, unless police are directly informed
It receives only a civil penalty
It commits a criminal offence under the Licensing Act 2003 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It commits a criminal offence under the Licensing Act 2003

Operating licensable activities without a premises licence is a criminal offence under the Licensing Act 2003, with penalties including fines and imprisonment for the responsible person.

Question 164: After physically restraining someone, what is the door supervisor's duty of care?

To only check on them every 30 minutes
To leave them restrained until the police arrive regardless of time
To continually monitor the person's breathing, consciousness, and wellbeing until they are released or handed to police/paramedics (Correct answer)
No further responsibility once restrained

Correct answer: To continually monitor the person's breathing, consciousness, and wellbeing until they are released or handed to police/paramedics

The door supervisor has a continuing duty of care: monitor breathing and consciousness, do not restrict breathing, check for injuries, ensure they are not left in a dangerous position, and hand over to emergency services as soon as possible.

Question 165: Which drug class is associated with aggression and paranoia, increasing conflict risk at venues?

Benzodiazepines
Opiates
Stimulants such as cocaine and amphetamines (Correct answer)
Hallucinogens such as LSD

Correct answer: Stimulants such as cocaine and amphetamines

High-dose stimulant use can cause paranoia, increased aggression and unpredictable behaviour, making stimulant-intoxicated customers higher-risk in conflict situations.

Question 166: What is the purpose of a 'witness statement' after an incident?

To claim compensation from the venue
To document the door supervisor's personal opinions
To inform the media about the incident
To provide an accurate account of events for legal or disciplinary proceedings (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To provide an accurate account of events for legal or disciplinary proceedings

A witness statement provides a factual, contemporaneous account that can be used in court proceedings or disciplinary processes, and should be completed as soon as possible after the incident.

Question 167: What does the acronym 'ACT' stand for in the context of UK counter-terrorism for security staff?

Armed Counter Terrorism
Alert, Contain, Tell
Awareness, Communicate, Take action
Action Counters Terrorism (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Action Counters Terrorism

ACT (Action Counters Terrorism) is the UK government campaign that provides security staff and the public with tools and training to help prevent and respond to terrorist incidents.

Question 168: What is the difference between 'formal' and 'informal' communication in a security context?

Formal communication is documented and official (reports, radio logs); informal is verbal and undocumented (Correct answer)
Formal is verbal; informal is written
Formal communication is only used with police
They are interchangeable terms

Correct answer: Formal communication is documented and official (reports, radio logs); informal is verbal and undocumented

Formal communication creates a documented record (incident reports, radio logs, policy documents); informal communication (spoken briefings, quick updates) is valuable but carries less evidential weight.

Question 169: What is the purpose of a 'body camera' (BWV) worn by some door supervisors?

To replace CCTV in low-coverage areas
To monitor staff performance for management
To broadcast live footage to police
To record interactions as evidence, deter misconduct and protect staff from false allegations (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To record interactions as evidence, deter misconduct and protect staff from false allegations

Body-worn video provides a contemporaneous, objective record of incidents; it deters aggressive behaviour, protects staff from false allegations and provides strong evidence for court proceedings.

Question 170: What is the 'broken record' technique in conflict management?

Recording and replaying the conversation
Deliberately annoying someone until they leave
Calmly and firmly repeating the same message without being drawn into arguments (Correct answer)
Playing music to calm people down

Correct answer: Calmly and firmly repeating the same message without being drawn into arguments

The broken record technique involves calmly and consistently repeating your key message without being drawn into side arguments or responding to provocation. It maintains your position without escalating.

Question 171: What is a 'trigger point' in conflict management?

A pressure point used in restraint
A specific stimulus that provokes an escalation in a person's aggression (Correct answer)
The point at which a door supervisor is legally permitted to use force
The moment police are called

Correct answer: A specific stimulus that provokes an escalation in a person's aggression

Identifying trigger points — words, actions or situations that provoke aggression — allows door supervisors to avoid or manage them proactively to prevent escalation.

Question 172: What does 'SAMPLE' stand for in first aid casualty assessment?

Severity, Attention, Medical, Pain, Life signs, Events
Signs and symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past history, Last oral intake, Events leading up (Correct answer)
Site, Assessment, Medical, Pain, Level of consciousness, Environment
Situation, Airway, Medical history, Pulse, Level of response, Emergency

Correct answer: Signs and symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past history, Last oral intake, Events leading up

SAMPLE is a history-taking tool: Signs/Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past medical history, Last oral intake and Events leading to the situation — helping paramedics when they arrive.

Level 2 Award for Door Supervisors in the Private Security Industry

The SIA Door Supervisor qualification tests knowledge across private security principles, door supervisor responsibilities, conflict management, and physical intervention skills required to obtain an SIA Door Supervisor licence in the UK.

172

Questions

260 min

Time Limit

70%

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These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

Sources & references

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gov.uk — Eligibility, fees, score validity, exam information · verified Oct 2026
assets.publishing.service.gov.uk — Exam format, time limit · verified Oct 2026