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Mixed Deck — All SIA CP Topics Flashcards

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  1. Why is it important for close protection team members to maintain physical fitness?

    Answer: Because the role may require sprinting, sustained physical exertion, carrying the principal, or engaging in physical confrontation

    CP operatives may need to sprint, physically shield the principal, carry an injured person, engage in physical confrontation, or work long hours under stress. Physical fitness is essential to perform these duties effectively.

  2. Why should a CPO avoid using names on an open (unencrypted) radio channel?

    Answer: Names could identify the principal or team members to hostile parties monitoring the channel

    Using names on an open channel reveals the identity of the principal and team members to anyone monitoring the frequency, potentially enabling a hostile party to identify and target them.

  3. What is the purpose of 'actions on' drills in close protection?

    Answer: Pre-planned and rehearsed responses to specific emergency scenarios, ensuring the team reacts quickly and correctly

    'Actions on' are pre-planned, rehearsed responses to specific scenarios (e.g., 'actions on' an ambush, 'actions on' a bomb threat). Rehearsing ensures the team responds instinctively under pressure.

  4. When conducting a threat assessment, what does 'intent' refer to?

    Answer: Whether a potential adversary has the desire and motivation to carry out an attack

    Intent refers to whether a potential threat actor has the motivation, desire, and willingness to carry out an attack against the principal. Intent combined with capability determines the level of threat.

  5. What is the correct first aid for a suspected fractured femur?

    Answer: Immobilise with a traction splint if available, keep the casualty warm and warm to prevent shock and call for urgent evacuation

    A fractured femur can involve 1–2 litres of internal bleeding; traction splint reduces pain and bleeding, warmth prevents hypothermia and urgent evacuation to surgery is required.

  6. What is a 'decoy' movement in a CP protective plan?

    Answer: A movement by a decoy vehicle or person to draw surveillance or attack away from the principal

    A decoy movement uses a vehicle or person mimicking the principal's movement to draw hostile surveillance or attack away, protecting the real principal who travels separately and discreetly.

  7. What is 'wound packing' and when is it used?

    Answer: Tightly packing a deep wound with haemostatic gauze or clean material to control bleeding that cannot be controlled by surface pressure alone

    Wound packing is used for deep wounds such as gunshot or stab injuries where surface pressure cannot reach the bleeding point; packing the wound tightly applies pressure directly at the source.

  8. What is 'technical surveillance' and what are common forms relevant to CP?

    Answer: Surveillance using electronic devices: tracking devices on vehicles, phone monitoring or hidden cameras

    Technical surveillance includes GPS tracking devices, IMSI catchers, covert cameras and phone interception; CPOs should conduct vehicle sweeps and manage device security to counter these threats.

  9. What position should an unconscious but breathing casualty be placed in?

    Answer: The recovery position (on their side)

    An unconscious casualty who is breathing normally should be placed in the recovery position (on their side) to keep the airway clear and prevent choking if they vomit.

  10. What is the correct ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths for adult CPR in the UK?

    Answer: 30 compressions to 2 breaths

    The UK Resuscitation Council recommends 30 chest compressions followed by 2 rescue breaths for adult CPR. Compressions should be at a rate of 100-120 per minute.

  11. Why should a CP team plan for 'worst case scenarios' at every venue?

    Answer: To ensure a response plan exists for the most serious possible incident, enabling immediate action without deliberation

    Planning for the worst ensures that if a catastrophic event occurs, the team has a prepared response; improvising in a crisis increases the risk of poor decisions and delayed action.

  12. What is a 'debrief' and why is it conducted after a close protection operation?

    Answer: A structured review of the operation to identify what went well, what went wrong, and lessons learned

    A debrief is a structured review held after an operation where the team discusses what happened, identifies successes and failures, and captures lessons learned to improve future operations.

  13. What does 'stay off the net' mean in radio communications?

    Answer: Do not transmit on the radio channel as it is in use for an important communication

    'Stay off the net' instructs all non-essential team members not to transmit, keeping the channel clear for an ongoing priority communication or active incident.

  14. What is the legal position if a close protection operative causes injury while using force they honestly believed was reasonable, but a court later rules was excessive?

    Answer: They may face criminal charges and/or civil liability, though their honest belief is a factor the court considers

    If a court determines the force was excessive, the operative may face criminal prosecution and/or civil claims. However, the court will consider whether their honest belief in the need for force was genuine, even if mistaken.

  15. What is a 'security survey' of a venue?

    Answer: A systematic assessment of a venue's physical and procedural security before the principal visits

    A security survey examines all aspects of a venue — access points, emergency exits, CCTV coverage, staff, crowd density — to identify risks and plan mitigation before the principal arrives.

  16. What does 'proportionality' mean in the context of using force in close protection?

    Answer: The level of force used must be appropriate and proportionate to the threat faced

    Proportionality means the force used must be no more than is necessary and appropriate to deal with the threat. Using excessive force — even against a real threat — can result in criminal charges.

  17. Why is it important for a CPO to understand the concept of 'attribution'?

    Answer: To assess whether an incident was a targeted attack on the principal or a random event

    Attribution determines whether an incident (accident, approach, surveillance) was targeted or coincidental; this informs whether the threat level should be upgraded and protective measures increased.

  18. What does 'non-confrontational' mean in a CP context?

    Answer: Avoiding direct engagement with threats, preferring evasion and extraction over fighting

    Non-confrontational CP practice means avoiding situations where physical conflict might occur, preferring evasion, route changes and rapid extraction to confrontation whenever possible.

  19. Which document provides the legal authority for a CPO to carry out close protection work in the UK?

    Answer: SIA Close Protection licence

    A person must hold a valid SIA Close Protection licence to work legally as a CPO in the UK; any other category of SIA licence does not cover this type of work.

  20. Under the Protection from Harassment Act 1997, which behaviour could result in a CPO being prosecuted?

    Answer: Following or monitoring a person in a course of conduct that causes them distress

    A course of conduct (two or more acts) that causes harassment, alarm or distress could constitute the criminal offence of harassment; CPOs conducting surveillance-like activities must remain within the law.

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Sources & references

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  1. gov.uk — Registration, renewal, retake fee, test delivery, eligibility, fees, score validity, exam information · verified Oct 2026
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