SDPD Police Recruit Written Test — Questions and Answers
Question 1: An officer is first on scene to a vehicle collision with an unconscious driver. What is the first priority using the MARCH protocol?
- Massive hemorrhage control (Correct answer)
- Airway — open the airway with head-tilt chin-lift
- Hypothermia prevention
- Circulation — check for a pulse
Correct answer: Massive hemorrhage control
The MARCH protocol (Massive hemorrhage, Airway, Respiration, Circulation, Hypothermia) prioritizes controlling life-threatening bleeding above all other interventions.
Question 2: An officer is the first to arrive at a chaotic scene and determines the situation is under control and no further assistance is needed. What is the most appropriate and universally understood radio transmission to relay this status?
- "Control, the situation is handled."
- "Control, I'm 10-98."
- "Control, we are all clear here."
- "Control, show me Code 4." (Correct answer)
Correct answer: "Control, show me Code 4."
"Code 4" is a widely used and understood radio code in California law enforcement meaning "No further assistance needed" or "the situation is under control." While other phrases might convey a similar meaning, "Code 4" is the standardized, brief, and clear term for this specific status update.
Question 3: An SDPD officer is investigating a domestic violence call where a victim has visible injuries qualifying as a felony under PC 273.5. The victim is uncooperative and states they do not want the suspect arrested. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the officer?
- Advise the victim that they must make a private person's arrest if they want action taken.
- Arrest the suspect based on the probable cause established by the visible injuries, regardless of the victim's wishes. (Correct answer)
- Issue a citation to the suspect and advise them to leave for the night.
- Honor the victim's wishes and close the investigation without an arrest.
Correct answer: Arrest the suspect based on the probable cause established by the visible injuries, regardless of the victim's wishes.
In cases of domestic violence, particularly felonies like PC 273.5 (corporal injury), the officer's decision to arrest is based on probable cause, not the victim's immediate wishes. SDPD policy and state law encourage the arrest of domestic violence offenders when probable cause exists to protect the victim and hold the offender accountable. The presence of a visible injury provides strong evidence for probable cause.
Question 4: An SDPD officer stops a vehicle for speeding in heavy fog. The driver was traveling at the posted speed limit of 50 mph, but the officer determines the speed was unsafe for the current conditions. Which California Vehicle Code section best supports the officer's citation?
- CVC 22352 - Prima Facie Speed Limits
- CVC 22349 - Maximum Speed Law
- CVC 23103 - Reckless Driving
- CVC 22350 - Basic Speed Law (Correct answer)
Correct answer: CVC 22350 - Basic Speed Law
CVC 22350, the Basic Speed Law, states that no person shall drive at a speed greater than is reasonable or prudent having due regard for weather, visibility, and traffic conditions. Even if driving at the posted limit, the speed can be unlawful if it's unsafe for the conditions, such as heavy fog.
Question 5: When handling a firearm discovered at a crime scene, which of the following is the most appropriate initial action for an officer to take to preserve evidence?
- Place the firearm in a sealed plastic bag to prevent loss of trace evidence.
- Insert a pen into the barrel to lift the weapon without touching the grip.
- Immediately unload the weapon and place the ammunition in a separate bag.
- Use gloves and pick up the weapon by the textured surfaces, such as the checkered grip or slide serrations. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Use gloves and pick up the weapon by the textured surfaces, such as the checkered grip or slide serrations.
To preserve potential fingerprints and DNA, a firearm should be handled minimally, with gloves, on textured surfaces where prints are less likely to be viable. [19] Placing objects in the barrel can destroy ballistic evidence, and sealing a weapon in plastic can trap moisture, which degrades DNA and can cause rust. [20]
Question 6: A key philosophical difference between the traditional policing model and the community policing model is the primary measure of effectiveness. This focus shifts FROM an emphasis on enforcement statistics TO an emphasis on what?
- The size of the departmental budget and the amount of equipment.
- The absence of crime and the level of public trust and cooperation. (Correct answer)
- The number of citations issued and departmental response times.
- The conviction rate of felony arrests.
Correct answer: The absence of crime and the level of public trust and cooperation.
Traditional policing often measures success with quantitative data like arrest numbers and response times. Community policing shifts the focus to qualitative outcomes that are more difficult to measure but represent a truer state of public safety, such as the reduction of crime and fear, and the strength of police-community relationships.
Question 7: During a traffic stop for an infraction, under which of the following circumstances is a peace officer required by CVC 40302 to take the violator into custody and directly before a magistrate?
- The violator argues about the legality of the traffic stop.
- The violator refuses to provide a written promise to appear in court. (Correct answer)
- The violator does not have proof of insurance in the vehicle.
- The violator has a prior traffic citation within the last year.
Correct answer: The violator refuses to provide a written promise to appear in court.
CVC 40302 mandates that a person arrested for a non-felony violation of the code shall be taken before a magistrate if they refuse to give their written promise to appear in court (i.e., sign the citation).
Question 8: The concept of "chain of custody" is fundamental to evidence handling. What is its primary purpose?
- To document the forensic tests that will be performed on each piece of evidence.
- To create an itemized list of evidence for the property room.
- To create a chronological paper trail of every person who has handled a piece of evidence. (Correct answer)
- To ensure evidence is transported to the lab by the highest-ranking officer.
Correct answer: To create a chronological paper trail of every person who has handled a piece of evidence.
The chain of custody is a formal record that shows the chronological sequence of every person who has had custody of a piece of evidence from the moment of its collection to its presentation in court. [2, 12] This process ensures the integrity of the evidence by demonstrating that it has not been tampered with, altered, or substituted. [9, 11]
Question 9: Upon arriving at the scene of a domestic violence incident involving a physical assault, an SDPD officer observes a handgun on a coffee table in plain sight. According to California Penal Code § 18250, what is the officer's legal obligation regarding the firearm?
- Inform the individuals that the firearm must be sold to a licensed dealer within 24 hours.
- Ask the owner to secure the firearm in a locked container before leaving the premises.
- Take temporary custody of the firearm for the protection of the officer and others present. (Correct answer)
- Only seize the firearm if it was used during the commission of the assault.
Correct answer: Take temporary custody of the firearm for the protection of the officer and others present.
California Penal Code § 18250 mandates that a peace officer at the scene of a domestic violence incident involving a physical assault or threat to human life shall take temporary custody of any firearm in plain sight or discovered pursuant to a lawful search. This is done for the protection of the peace officer and other persons present.
Question 10: An SDPD officer is involved in a multi-unit response to a large disturbance. To avoid congesting the primary dispatch channel with unit-to-unit coordination, what is the standard procedure?
- Use a cell phone to communicate with other units.
- Limit communications to only emergency traffic.
- Move communications to an assigned tactical (Tac) channel. (Correct answer)
- Keep all transmissions on the primary channel but make them brief.
Correct answer: Move communications to an assigned tactical (Tac) channel.
Tactical (Tac) channels are specifically designated for on-scene, unit-to-unit communications during an incident. This procedure keeps the main dispatch channel clear for other priority calls and allows for more effective coordination among responding officers without being broadcast city-wide on the primary frequency.
Question 11: When performing CPR on an adult victim, what is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio?
- 15 compressions to 2 breaths
- 20 compressions to 1 breath
- 10 compressions to 1 breath
- 30 compressions to 2 breaths (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 30 compressions to 2 breaths
Current AHA guidelines specify 30 chest compressions followed by 2 rescue breaths for adult CPR.
Question 12: What are the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) an officer might observe in a subject?
- High blood pressure, flushing, and dry skin
- Slow heart rate, pale skin, and confusion
- Rapid heart rate, sweating, shakiness, and confusion (Correct answer)
- Slow breathing, drowsiness, and sweet-smelling breath
Correct answer: Rapid heart rate, sweating, shakiness, and confusion
Hypoglycemia typically presents with rapid heart rate (tachycardia), diaphoresis, tremors, and altered mental status due to glucose deprivation of the brain.
Question 13: Which of the following relationships falls under the legal definition of 'domestic violence' according to California Penal Code § 13700(b)?
- Abuse committed against a person with whom the suspect has previously had a dating relationship. (Correct answer)
- A conflict between a landlord and a tenant over rent.
- An argument between two long-time neighbors over a property line.
- A dispute between two roommates who have never had a dating relationship.
Correct answer: Abuse committed against a person with whom the suspect has previously had a dating relationship.
California Penal Code § 13700(b) defines 'domestic violence' as abuse committed against a spouse, former spouse, cohabitant, former cohabitant, or a person with whom the suspect has had a child or is having or has had a dating or engagement relationship. The other options do not describe the specific intimate or familial relationships covered by this statute.
Question 14: His ______________ of the situation was incorrect.
- annalysis
- analisys
- anallysys
- analysis (Correct answer)
Correct answer: analysis
The correct spelling is 'analysis' — derived from the Greek 'analyein,' the word follows standard English conventions with a single 'n,' single 'l,' and 'y' before the suffix. All three wrong options introduce incorrect double letters or substitute incorrect vowels, making them misspellings with no basis in the word's etymology or spelling rules.
Question 15: Which specialized unit within the San Diego Police Department focuses on investigating homicides?
- Narcotics Unit
- Homicide Unit (Correct answer)
- Robbery Unit
- Fraud Unit
Correct answer: Homicide Unit
The Homicide Unit specializes in investigating homicides and other suspicious deaths.
Question 16: Which of the following actions, if discovered, would most likely result in an officer being placed on a 'Brady List' (Giglio-impaired)?
- Receiving a citizen complaint for rudeness that was later determined to be unfounded.
- Being involved in a preventable traffic collision with a department vehicle.
- Intentionally misrepresenting facts in a police report to strengthen a case. (Correct answer)
- Failing to qualify with their firearm on the first attempt during a training exercise.
Correct answer: Intentionally misrepresenting facts in a police report to strengthen a case.
The 'Brady List' stems from *Brady v. Maryland* and its progeny, requiring prosecutors to disclose exculpatory evidence to the defense. This includes information that could impeach the credibility of a testifying officer. Intentionally misrepresenting facts in a report is a serious breach of integrity and truthfulness, directly impacting the officer's credibility as a witness and mandating disclosure to the defense.
Question 17: What is the primary function of the Vice Unit within the San Diego Police Department?
- Investigating drug-related offenses
- Responding to emergency calls
- Handling crimes related to gambling, prostitution, and human trafficking (Correct answer)
- Investigating financial crimes
Correct answer: Handling crimes related to gambling, prostitution, and human trafficking
The Vice Unit focuses on crimes related to gambling, prostitution, and human trafficking.
Question 18: Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of maintaining a crime scene log?
- To provide a detailed inventory of all evidence collected.
- To record the initial statements provided by witnesses and victims.
- To document every individual who enters and exits the secured crime scene. (Correct answer)
- To create a rough sketch of the crime scene layout.
Correct answer: To document every individual who enters and exits the secured crime scene.
A crime scene log is a dedicated record used to track every person who enters and leaves the cordoned-off area. [1, 18] This is crucial for maintaining the integrity of the scene and preserving the chain of custody for any evidence found within it. [17]
Question 19: Under SDPD Procedure 1.56, 'Intervention Duties,' an officer who observes another officer using force that is 'clearly beyond that which is necessary' has a duty to do what?
- Wait until the situation is over and then discuss it with the other officer.
- Report the incident only if the subject files a complaint.
- Intervene to prevent the use of unreasonable force when in a position to do so. (Correct answer)
- Discreetly record the incident on their body-worn camera for later review.
Correct answer: Intervene to prevent the use of unreasonable force when in a position to do so.
SDPD Procedure 1.56 mandates that 'Any officer who is present and observes another officer using force that is clearly beyond that which is necessary...shall, when in a position to do so, intervene to prevent the use of unreasonable force.' This is a 'shall' (mandate), not a 'should' (suggestion).
Question 20: When an officer suspects a victim has suffered a spinal injury, how should the airway be opened if the victim is unconscious and not breathing?
- Jaw-thrust maneuver without head tilt (Correct answer)
- Hyperextend the neck and lift the chin
- Head-tilt chin-lift method
- Roll victim onto their side and open mouth
Correct answer: Jaw-thrust maneuver without head tilt
The jaw-thrust maneuver opens the airway without moving the cervical spine, making it the preferred technique when spinal injury is suspected.
Question 21: A subject complains of severe chest pain radiating to the left arm and jaw, with nausea and sweating. In the absence of allergy, what should the officer offer while awaiting EMS?
- One adult aspirin (325mg) or four low-dose baby aspirin (81mg each) (Correct answer)
- A sugary drink to raise blood glucose
- Nitroglycerin from the victim's own prescription
- Ibuprofen 400mg to reduce inflammation
Correct answer: One adult aspirin (325mg) or four low-dose baby aspirin (81mg each)
Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation and can reduce myocardial damage during a suspected heart attack; it is a standard pre-hospital intervention absent contraindications.
Question 22: Which of the following actions by an SDPD officer constitutes a reportable use of force incident?
- The officer's mere presence at a scene.
- Pointing a firearm at a person to gain compliance. (Correct answer)
- Placing a compliant individual in handcuffs without resistance.
- Verbally commanding a suspect to stop running.
Correct answer: Pointing a firearm at a person to gain compliance.
SDPD Procedure 1.04 lists specific incidents that require a use of force report. Among these is 'The pointing of a firearm at a person to gain compliance.' Placing handcuffs on a compliant person is not considered a reportable use of force unless physical resistance is overcome.
Question 23: An officer pulls over a driver for a routine traffic violation. The driver is 25 years old and has a 17-year-old passenger in the front seat. Neither are wearing a seat belt. Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding the seat belt violation(s) under CVC 27315?
- A warning should be issued since it is a first offense for the passenger.
- The driver is responsible for their own violation, but not the passenger's.
- Only the driver can be cited, as they are responsible for all occupants.
- Both the driver and the passenger can be cited for failing to wear a seat belt. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Both the driver and the passenger can be cited for failing to wear a seat belt.
According to CVC 27315, a person shall not operate a motor vehicle unless that person and all passengers 16 years of age or over are properly restrained by a safety belt. Therefore, both the driver and the 17-year-old passenger are in violation and can be individually cited.
Question 24: The primary purpose of organizing an incident report's narrative in chronological order is to:
- Prioritize the officer's actions over the statements of witnesses.
- Create a clear, logical, and easy-to-follow account of the sequence of events as they occurred. [5, 8, 20] (Correct answer)
- Ensure the most serious crime is described first for the District Attorney.
- Make the report easier to read for media representatives.
Correct answer: Create a clear, logical, and easy-to-follow account of the sequence of events as they occurred. [5, 8, 20]
A chronological narrative is a fundamental standard in police report writing. It presents the events in the order they happened, which provides a clear and logical flow for anyone reading the report, including supervisors, detectives, and prosecutors, to understand the incident from beginning to end. [5, 19, 20]
Question 25: An SDPD officer is at an intersection with a steady red circular traffic light. The driver of a vehicle comes to a complete stop at the marked limit line and then proceeds to make a right turn. However, there is a sign posted that explicitly says "NO TURN ON RED". Which CVC section has the driver violated?
- CVC 22107 - Turning Movements and Required Signals
- CVC 22450 - Stop Requirements
- CVC 21800 - Right-of-Way
- CVC 21453 - Red Signals (Correct answer)
Correct answer: CVC 21453 - Red Signals
CVC 21453(b) allows for a right turn after stopping at a red light, but this is only permissible if there is no sign prohibiting the turn. By turning right despite the prohibitory sign, the driver has violated CVC 21453.
Question 26: An SDPD officer detains a person on a valid probation term that includes a 'Fourth Waiver,' meaning the individual has agreed to be subject to search and seizure by law enforcement. What is the primary limitation on the officer's authority to conduct a search under this waiver?
- The officer must have the probation officer present to conduct the search.
- The officer must still have probable cause to believe the probationer has committed a new crime.
- The search is limited to a pat-down for weapons only.
- The search cannot be conducted for reasons of harassment or for arbitrary or capricious reasons. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The search cannot be conducted for reasons of harassment or for arbitrary or capricious reasons.
While a probation search waiver significantly reduces a person's expectation of privacy, the search must still be constitutionally reasonable. Courts have held that a search under a Fourth Waiver cannot be undertaken for harassment or for arbitrary or capricious reasons unrelated to a legitimate law enforcement purpose.
Question 27: Tissue or fluid taken for investigative purposes.
- Sinew
- Flesh
- Sample
- Specimen (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Specimen
Specimens are biological samples used for inspection purposes. Specimens help to determine what has happened or why it was present at the crime scene at that time.
Question 28: An officer, new to a patrol area, wants to immediately implement community policing principles. Which of the following should be their first and highest-priority action?
- Begin making frequent, non-enforcement contacts with residents, business owners, and community leaders. (Correct answer)
- Identify all parolees and probationers living in the area for close monitoring.
- Analyze the area's crime statistics from the past five years to identify hotspots.
- Memorize the street grid to improve emergency response times.
Correct answer: Begin making frequent, non-enforcement contacts with residents, business owners, and community leaders.
The foundation of community policing is building trust and relationships. Before an officer can effectively solve problems or gain cooperation, they must first be a known and trusted presence in the community. Proactive, positive, non-enforcement contacts are the first step in building that essential foundation.
Question 29: What is the best first action for treating a thermal burn victim whose clothing is still on fire?
- Stop, Drop, and Roll — extinguish flames before treating burns (Correct answer)
- Remove burned clothing immediately by pulling it off
- Apply burn ointment to the flames to smother them
- Apply cool water to the affected area immediately
Correct answer: Stop, Drop, and Roll — extinguish flames before treating burns
The immediate priority is to extinguish flames using Stop, Drop, and Roll before any medical treatment is rendered to prevent further injury.
Question 30: An officer is monitoring a busy street festival and observes a sidewalk vendor whose cart and display are positioned in a way that forces pedestrians off the curb and into the street to get by. Which core tenet of the Sidewalk Vending Ordinance is this vendor violating?
- Vending within 50 feet of another licensed vendor.
- Operating without a valid Business Tax Certificate displayed.
- Selling merchandise outside of the approved product list for the event.
- Failing to maintain the required clear path of travel for pedestrians. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Failing to maintain the required clear path of travel for pedestrians.
A primary purpose of the Sidewalk Vending Ordinance is to ensure public safety and accessibility. The regulations explicitly state that a vendor cannot block or obstruct the free movement of pedestrians on a sidewalk and must maintain a minimum clear path of travel.
Question 31: When broadcasting an 'Attempt to Locate' (ATL) for a wanted suspect, which of the following is the most critical information to provide immediately after the initial alert?
- The case number for the report.
- A detailed clothing description.
- The reason the suspect is wanted (e.g., the specific charge). (Correct answer)
- The suspect's last known address.
Correct answer: The reason the suspect is wanted (e.g., the specific charge).
Immediately after alerting units to an ATL, broadcasting the reason the person is wanted (e.g., 'wanted for 211 PC, armed with a handgun') is most critical for officer safety. This information allows responding officers to understand the potential threat level and adjust their tactics accordingly before they even receive a physical description.
Question 32: An officer is investigating a sensitive case and is contacted by a close personal friend who is a journalist. The journalist asks for 'off the record' information about the investigation. Which ethical principle is most directly at stake for the officer in this scenario?
- Courage
- Confidentiality (Correct answer)
- Loyalty
- Discretion
Correct answer: Confidentiality
Law enforcement officers are entrusted with sensitive and confidential information related to criminal investigations, victim and witness data, and internal department matters. Divulging any of this information, even 'off the record,' is a serious breach of confidentiality. This can compromise the investigation, violate the privacy rights of individuals, and erode public trust in the department.
Question 33: A flying object has traveled a total distance of 1,800 miles in 20 days flying 12 hours each day. <br>What is the average speed that the flying object was traveling
- 4 mph
- 5.5 mph
- 6 mph
- 7.5 mph (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 7.5 mph
1,800 miles divided by 20 days gives us an average of 90 miles per day.<br>The object flew for 12 hours each day,90 miles per day divided by 12 hours = 7.5 miles per hour
Question 34: During a domestic violence investigation, a victim expresses fear for their safety after the officer leaves. The suspect has not yet been located. To provide immediate protection, the officer should inform the victim about and offer to request which type of court order?
- An Emergency Protective Order (EPO) (Correct answer)
- A Permanent Restraining Order (PRO)
- A Civil Harassment Restraining Order (CHRO)
- A Notice to Appear Citation
Correct answer: An Emergency Protective Order (EPO)
An Emergency Protective Order (EPO) is a short-term order requested by a law enforcement officer and issued by a judicial officer, available 24/7, to provide immediate protection to a victim of domestic violence. It is designed to last for 5 court days or 7 calendar days, whichever is shorter, giving the victim time to apply for a longer-term restraining order.
Question 35: The primary goal of the 'Problem-Solving' component of community policing is to:
- Address the underlying conditions and root causes of recurring crime and disorder issues. (Correct answer)
- Justify the need for increased departmental funding and resources.
- Shift responsibility for minor calls for service from the police to other city agencies.
- Increase the number of arrests for quality-of-life offenses.
Correct answer: Address the underlying conditions and root causes of recurring crime and disorder issues.
Problem-solving in this context is about moving beyond a reactive, incident-driven response. Instead of simply handling one call after another, officers are encouraged to analyze why these incidents are happening repeatedly and develop tailored, long-term solutions that address the root causes.
Question 36: Which division within the San Diego Police Department is primarily responsible for conducting criminal investigations?
- Patrol Division
- Communications Division
- Investigations Unit (Correct answer)
- Traffic Division
Correct answer: Investigations Unit
The Investigations Unit is responsible for conducting criminal investigations within the San Diego Police Department.
Question 37: According to San Diego Municipal Code §56.54, which of the following statements is correct regarding the consumption of alcohol on city beaches like Mission Beach and Pacific Beach?
- It is permitted only if the beverage is in a plastic cup instead of a glass bottle.
- It is allowed between the hours of noon and 8:00 p.m. daily.
- It is permitted as long as the person consuming is over 21 and not causing a disturbance.
- It is prohibited at all times. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: It is prohibited at all times.
San Diego Municipal Code §56.54 establishes a 24-hour ban on the consumption of alcoholic beverages in many public places, including all city coastal beaches and major parks like Mission Bay Park. The type of container or the time of day does not override this complete prohibition in specified areas.
Question 38: Officer Newberry, who works for Corvallis Police Department, earns a salary of $42,980. <br>If his salary is set to increase 10% per annum over the next three years, what will his salary be after this 3-year period has elapsed
- $53,922
- $59,684
- 57,206 (Correct answer)
- $55,874
Correct answer: 57,206
Many candidates make the mistake of taking 10% of the original salary, multiplying that value by three, and adding it on. <br>However, this fails to take into account that the salary is different each year because we need to add each 10% on separately.
Question 39: An officer is the first to arrive at a residential burglary scene. After confirming no suspects are present and no medical attention is needed, what is the officer's most immediate priority?
- Collect obvious evidence, such as broken glass, into evidence bags.
- Secure the scene by establishing a perimeter and controlling access. (Correct answer)
- Begin dusting for fingerprints around the point of entry.
- Conduct a detailed interview with the homeowner about what was stolen.
Correct answer: Secure the scene by establishing a perimeter and controlling access.
The first and most critical responsibility of the initial responding officer, after ensuring the scene is safe, is to secure the area to prevent the contamination or destruction of potential evidence. [6, 7] All other actions, such as interviewing and evidence collection, follow after the scene's integrity has been established.
Question 40: When treating an open chest wound (sucking chest wound), what type of dressing should be applied?
- A vented (three-sided) chest seal or commercial chest seal (Correct answer)
- A wet saline dressing to keep tissue moist
- A standard gauze pad held in place by hand
- A thick pressure dressing taped on all four sides
Correct answer: A vented (three-sided) chest seal or commercial chest seal
A vented or three-sided seal allows air to escape on exhalation while preventing air from entering on inhalation, preventing tension pneumothorax.
Question 41: What is the first step in a criminal investigation conducted by the San Diego Police Department?
- Arresting a suspect
- Conducting an interrogation
- Filing charges
- Securing the crime scene (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Securing the crime scene
Securing the crime scene is the first step to preserve evidence and maintain the integrity of the investigation.
Question 42: What is the primary indicator that CPR is being performed effectively?
- The victim's skin color returns to normal immediately
- Visible chest rise with each compression (Correct answer)
- The victim begins breathing spontaneously
- A pulse is felt between compressions
Correct answer: Visible chest rise with each compression
Visible chest rise with each compression indicates adequate depth and correct hand placement, confirming effective CPR technique.
Question 43: ________ are too many members of the local gang.
- There (Correct answer)
- Their
- They’re
- There’re
Correct answer: There
Similarly, there’re is also a contraction, referring to “there are” which, again, cannot be correct given that “are” is already included in the question (otherwise it would be 'there are are' when you remove the apostrophe).
Question 44: How does the San Diego Police Department ensure the chain of custody for evidence?
- Limiting access to evidence to the lead investigator
- Documenting each transfer of evidence (Correct answer)
- Storing evidence in a public location
- Allowing only detectives to handle evidence
Correct answer: Documenting each transfer of evidence
The chain of custody is maintained by documenting each transfer of evidence to ensure its integrity.
Question 45: An officer encounters a subject displaying signs of opioid overdose: pinpoint pupils, slow breathing, and unconsciousness. What medication can officers administer under SDPD protocol?
- Glucose gel
- Naloxone (Narcan) (Correct answer)
- Aspirin
- Epinephrine (EpiPen)
Correct answer: Naloxone (Narcan)
Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist that rapidly reverses opioid overdose and is authorized for law enforcement use under California law.
Question 46: An SDPD officer is dispatched to a noise complaint at 8:30 PM on a Tuesday in a residential neighborhood. The source is a construction crew using power saws and nail guns. According to San Diego Municipal Code §59.5.0404, what is the most accurate description of this situation?
- The crew is only in violation if their noise level exceeds 75 decibels.
- The crew is in violation for operating construction equipment after 7:00 p.m. (Correct answer)
- The crew is only in violation if they do not possess a valid building permit.
- The crew is not in violation, as construction noise is permitted until 10:00 p.m.
Correct answer: The crew is in violation for operating construction equipment after 7:00 p.m.
San Diego Municipal Code §59.5.0404(a) explicitly makes it unlawful for any person to conduct construction activities between the hours of 7:00 p.m. and 7:00 a.m. in a manner that creates offensive noise, unless a special permit has been granted. The time of the incident (8:30 PM) falls squarely within the prohibited period.
Question 47: An officer arrives on scene and finds an unconscious adult who is not breathing normally. After calling for EMS, what is the immediate next step?
- Check for a pulse for at least 30 seconds
- Administer naloxone if available
- Begin chest compressions (Correct answer)
- Place the victim in the recovery position
Correct answer: Begin chest compressions
After confirming unresponsiveness and calling EMS, the immediate next step is to begin chest compressions to maintain circulation.
Question 48: Which of the following radio transmissions best demonstrates proper radio discipline, often summarized as the 'ABCs' of communication?
- "1-Adam-12... Control... uh... standby... Control, we have a... never mind, it's nothing."
- "Yeah, Control, we're over here by the donut shop, looks like it's all good."
- "Hey dispatch, this is me, can you tell 1-Adam-13 to meet me? It's about that thing we discussed earlier."
- "Control, 1-Adam-12, show us Code 4 at the corner of 5th and Broadway. The RP is GOA." (Correct answer)
Correct answer: "Control, 1-Adam-12, show us Code 4 at the corner of 5th and Broadway. The RP is GOA."
This transmission is accurate (provides unit ID and clear status), brief (uses standard 'Code 4' and 'GOA' - Gone On Arrival), and clear (states location and disposition concisely). The other options are unprofessional, lack clarity, use ambiguous language, or demonstrate poor planning before transmitting, all of which violate proper radio discipline.
Question 49: An SDPD officer determines there is probable cause to arrest a suspect for a misdemeanor domestic battery (PC 243(e)(1)) that did not occur in the officer's presence. Which of the following is true regarding the officer's authority to make a warrantless arrest?
- The officer can only detain the suspect until a warrant is issued by a judge.
- The officer must obtain a warrant as the misdemeanor was not committed in their presence.
- The officer must have the victim perform a private person's arrest.
- The officer may make a warrantless arrest under the authority of PC § 836(d). (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The officer may make a warrantless arrest under the authority of PC § 836(d).
California Penal Code § 836(d) provides a specific exception to the in-presence requirement for a misdemeanor arrest. It allows a peace officer to make a warrantless arrest for a misdemeanor assault or battery on a spouse, cohabitant, or person with whom they have a qualifying domestic relationship, even if the officer did not witness the offense, as long as the arrest is made as soon as probable cause arises.
Question 50: What is the recommended compression depth for adult CPR?
- At least 2 inches but no more than 2.4 inches (Correct answer)
- As deep as possible without limit
- 3 to 4 inches
- 1 to 1.5 inches
Correct answer: At least 2 inches but no more than 2.4 inches
AHA guidelines specify a compression depth of at least 2 inches but no more than 2.4 inches to ensure effective cardiac output without causing injury.
Question 51: An SDPD officer makes a lawful arrest of a suspect for burglary. The suspect is handcuffed and secured in the back of the patrol car. Which of the following describes the lawful scope of a search incident to that arrest?
- Only a pat-down of the suspect's outer clothing for weapons.
- A full search of the suspect's cellphone found in their pocket.
- The suspect's person and the area within the suspect's immediate control at the time of the arrest. (Correct answer)
- The suspect's entire home and vehicle.
Correct answer: The suspect's person and the area within the suspect's immediate control at the time of the arrest.
The U.S. Supreme Court case *Chimel v. California* established the scope for a search incident to a lawful arrest. Officers may search the arrestee's person and the area 'within his immediate control'—the area from which the person might gain possession of a weapon or destructible evidence. Once the suspect is secured in a patrol car, the justification to search the passenger compartment of their vehicle under this exception is diminished, as established in *Arizona v. Gant*.
Question 52: An SDPD officer is pursuing a suspect who just committed a felony involving the threatened use of a firearm. The suspect is fleeing on foot and the officer reasonably believes the suspect is still armed. According to state law (incorporated into SDPD policy), when is the officer justified in using deadly force?
- As soon as the suspect begins to flee, regardless of other factors.
- Anytime a suspect is fleeing from a felony crime.
- When the officer believes it is necessary to defend against an imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury to the officer or others. (Correct answer)
- Only after firing a warning shot and giving a verbal warning.
Correct answer: When the officer believes it is necessary to defend against an imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury to the officer or others.
Reflecting Assembly Bill 392, SDPD policy states that deadly force is justified only when an officer reasonably believes it's necessary to defend against an 'imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury' to the officer or another person, or to apprehend a fleeing felon who the officer believes will cause death or serious injury to another unless immediately apprehended.
Question 53: How does the San Diego Police Department ensure the integrity of its investigations?
- Through oversight by external agencies
- All of the above (Correct answer)
- By conducting internal audits
- Implementing strict policies and procedures
Correct answer: All of the above
The department ensures investigation integrity through internal audits, external oversight, and strict policies and procedures.
Question 54: When treating a victim for shock, which position is generally recommended if no spinal injury is suspected?
- Supine with legs elevated approximately 12 inches (Correct answer)
- Left lateral recovery position
- Prone with head turned to the side
- Seated upright at 90 degrees
Correct answer: Supine with legs elevated approximately 12 inches
Elevating the legs of a shock victim (Trendelenburg-modified position) helps return blood to the core organs, provided no spinal injury is suspected.
Question 55: An SDPD officer on patrol observes a vehicle approaching an intersection with an inoperative traffic signal. All four directions have stop signs. Two vehicles arrive at the intersection at the same time from different highways. According to the California Vehicle Code, which vehicle has the right-of-way?
- The vehicle on the right. (Correct answer)
- The vehicle on the left.
- The vehicle that signals its intention first.
- The vehicle that is traveling straight.
Correct answer: The vehicle on the right.
CVC 21800(c) states that when two vehicles enter an intersection from different highways at the same time and the intersection is controlled by stop signs in all directions, the driver of the vehicle on the left shall yield the right-of-way to the vehicle on his or her immediate right.
Question 56: An officer writes in their report: "The suspect was placed under arrest and transported to the Central Jail by Officer Smith." Which of the following is the most effective way to rewrite this statement using the preferred active voice?
- Having been placed under arrest, the suspect was then transported to the Central Jail.
- The transport of the suspect to the Central Jail was done by Officer Smith after the arrest.
- The suspect's arrest and transport to the Central Jail were completed by Officer Smith.
- Officer Smith placed the suspect under arrest and transported him to the Central Jail. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Officer Smith placed the suspect under arrest and transported him to the Central Jail.
Active voice is preferred in police reports because it clearly identifies who performed the action. [3, 9] The sentence "Officer Smith placed... and transported..." is in the active voice, making it clear and direct. The other options use passive voice, which can be wordy and obscure who performed the action. [23, 24]
Question 57: A victim's arm has been caught in machinery and is partially amputated. After controlling life-threatening hemorrhage, how should the amputated part be transported?
- Wrapped in a dry sterile dressing, placed in a plastic bag, and kept cool on ice without direct contact (Correct answer)
- Discarded as it cannot be reattached
- Submerged in saline solution
- Placed directly on ice to freeze it
Correct answer: Wrapped in a dry sterile dressing, placed in a plastic bag, and kept cool on ice without direct contact
The amputated part should be wrapped in sterile dressing, sealed in a plastic bag, and placed on (not in direct contact with) ice to preserve viability for potential reattachment.
Question 58: How does the San Diego Police Department involve the community in solving crimes?
- By offering rewards for information
- Conducting community policing initiatives
- All of the above (Correct answer)
- Through social media campaigns
Correct answer: All of the above
The department uses social media, offers rewards, and conducts community policing initiatives to involve the community in solving crimes.
Question 59: An SDPD officer assigned to a specific beat uses the SARA model to address a recurring issue of vandalism in a local park. After Scanning for problems and Analyzing data to understand when and why the vandalism occurs, what is the officer's critical next step?
- Immediately arrest all suspected vandals based on preliminary information.
- Develop a tailored Response, such as partnering with the community to host events or improve lighting. (Correct answer)
- Assess the impact by measuring if vandalism reports have decreased.
- Conclude that the problem is a low priority and resume random patrols.
Correct answer: Develop a tailored Response, such as partnering with the community to host events or improve lighting.
The SARA model is a sequential problem-solving framework: Scanning, Analysis, Response, and Assessment. After analyzing the problem, the officer must develop and implement a specific strategy (Response) designed to address the root causes identified in the analysis. Assessment is the final step, which measures the effectiveness of the response.
Question 60: An SDPD officer stops a driver for a traffic violation. The driver is polite and cooperative, but the officer has a 'gut feeling' that something is wrong. The officer has no specific, articulable facts to suspect any other crime has occurred. The principle of bias-free policing requires the officer to:
- Ask for consent to search the vehicle based on their intuition.
- Question the driver about their origin and destination to try and develop reasonable suspicion. (Correct answer)
- Base all actions solely on the observed traffic violation and not on the unsubstantiated feeling.
- Prolong the traffic stop to wait for a K-9 unit to arrive.
Correct answer: Question the driver about their origin and destination to try and develop reasonable suspicion.
Bias-free policing mandates that enforcement decisions are based on observable, articulable facts, and not on intuition, hunches, or stereotypes. An officer's authority during a routine traffic stop is limited to actions related to the purpose of the stop. Without additional facts to establish reasonable suspicion of another crime, the officer must not prolong the detention or engage in investigatory activities unrelated to the initial violation. Acting on a 'gut feeling' without facts is the antithesis of bias-free policing.
Question 61: While securing an outdoor assault scene, an officer notices a distinct footwear impression in a patch of dirt. Dark clouds are gathering, and it looks like it is about to rain. What is the officer's best course of action?
- Take a close-up photograph with a measuring scale next to it.
- Use their foot to create a deeper impression so it will not wash away as easily.
- Immediately attempt to create a plaster cast of the impression before it gets wet.
- Find a cardboard box or other object to cover the impression and protect it from the elements. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Find a cardboard box or other object to cover the impression and protect it from the elements.
The most urgent priority when fragile evidence is threatened by environmental conditions is to preserve it. [27, 28] Covering the impression protects it from being destroyed by the rain. [29] While photography is important, protecting the evidence itself comes first, and casting is a specialized task that should be done after the evidence is shielded.
Question 62: An officer encounters a subject with a severe arterial bleed from the thigh. What is the preferred initial intervention?
- Elevate the leg and apply pressure
- Pack the wound with gauze and apply direct pressure
- Apply ice to reduce blood flow
- Apply a tourniquet 2–3 inches above the wound (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Apply a tourniquet 2–3 inches above the wound
For severe arterial bleeding on a limb, a tourniquet applied 2–3 inches above the wound is the preferred life-saving intervention.
Question 63: An SDPD officer responds to a loud party complaint. At the front door of the residence, the officer observes through the open doorway several individuals using what appears to be illegal narcotics in the living room. What legal principle justifies the officer's entry into the residence to seize the contraband and address the illegal activity?
- A routine safety check of the premises.
- Consent implied by the door being open.
- The concept of 'hot pursuit'.
- The Plain View Doctrine, coupled with exigent circumstances. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The Plain View Doctrine, coupled with exigent circumstances.
The Plain View Doctrine allows an officer to seize evidence without a warrant if the officer is lawfully in a position to observe the item, and its incriminating character is immediately apparent. When this occurs at the threshold of a home, the potential for evidence destruction (the drugs being consumed or disposed of) creates an exigent circumstance, justifying a warrantless entry to prevent it.
Question 64: An SDPD officer is writing a report about a residential burglary. Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for the report because it is objective and factual?
- The suspect appeared nervous and was probably looking for an escape route.
- The witness was uncooperative and didn't seem to care about the crime.
- The victim was hysterical and couldn't provide a coherent statement at first.
- I observed the south window was shattered, and the window frame was damaged. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: I observed the south window was shattered, and the window frame was damaged.
Police reports must be objective, stating only observable facts. [4, 5] Describing the window as shattered and damaged is a factual observation. The other options describe subjective opinions, assumptions, or emotional states ('appeared nervous', 'uncooperative', 'hysterical'), which are inappropriate for a factual narrative. [5]
Question 65: During a call involving a subject experiencing a seizure, what should the officer do while the seizure is in progress?
- Immediately administer CPR
- Clear the area of hazards and protect the head without restraining (Correct answer)
- Restrain the subject to prevent injury from violent movements
- Insert a bite stick or wallet between the teeth
Correct answer: Clear the area of hazards and protect the head without restraining
Officers should protect the seizing person from environmental hazards and cushion the head without restraining them, as restraint can cause injury.
Question 66: An officer initiates a traffic stop and needs to run the driver's license. The primary dispatch channel is busy with a high-priority call. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the officer to take?
- Use the Mobile Data Computer (MDC) to run the information. (Correct answer)
- Switch to a tactical channel and ask another unit to run the license for them.
- Wait for a complete break in all radio traffic, even if it takes several minutes, before keying the mic.
- Interrupt the priority traffic to run the license, as it is an officer safety issue.
Correct answer: Use the Mobile Data Computer (MDC) to run the information.
The Mobile Data Computer (MDC) is the primary tool for running routine checks like licenses and plates. Using the MDC avoids congesting the voice radio channel, which is especially important when it is occupied with a priority incident. This allows dispatch and other units to focus on the active call while the officer can still obtain the necessary information efficiently.
Question 67: Officer Miller worked for Miami Police Department from 1962 -1991 and transferred to Boise Police Department, where he worked from 1999 - 2016. <br>Then, he retired. For how many years did Officer Miller work as a police officer
- 43 years
- 37 years
- 46years (Correct answer)
- 39 years
Correct answer: 46years
Between 1962 and 1991, he worked for 29 years. From 1999 to 2016, he worked for 17 years.<br> In total, then, Officer Miller worked 29 + 17 = 46 years of service.
Question 68: An officer is drafting a report and needs to include all the essential elements of information. The report details the date, time, and location of the incident, describes the suspect and victim, and explains the actions taken. Which of the following fundamental questions is MOST likely to be answered in the 'Modus Operandi' (MO) or narrative section?
- When?
- Who?
- How? (Correct answer)
- Where?
Correct answer: How?
The 'How' addresses the specific actions and methods the suspect used to commit the crime (the Modus Operandi). [5] While Who, When, and Where are critical and included in the report, the detailed narrative of the event, explaining the sequence and method of the crime, specifically answers the 'How' question. [5, 20]
Question 69: An officer needs to broadcast a California license plate of '9CWX123' over the radio. Using the internationally recognized NATO phonetic alphabet, which of the following is the correct transmission?
- "Niner Charlie Whiskey X-ray One Two Three" (Correct answer)
- "Niner Charlie William X-ray One Two Three"
- "Nine Charles William X-ray One Two Three"
- "Nine Company Walter X-ray One Two Three"
Correct answer: "Niner Charlie Whiskey X-ray One Two Three"
The correct NATO phonetic alphabet words are 'Charlie' for C and 'Whiskey' for W. Additionally, it is standard practice to say 'Niner' for the number 9 to avoid confusion with the number 5 over a potentially distorted radio transmission. While some agencies historically used different phonetic alphabets (like the APCO/LAPD version), the NATO alphabet is the widely accepted standard for clarity.
Question 70: To find innocent or free from wrongdoing.
- Attenuate
- Moratorium
- Exonerate (Correct answer)
- Apprehend
Correct answer: Exonerate
New evidence was made available to the court. It was then determined that the suspect could not possibly have committed the crime. <br>Therefore, he was found not guilty and exonerated of all charges
Question 71: To leave hurriedly to avoid arrest.
- Abscond (Correct answer)
- Suborn
- Expropriate
- Detain
Correct answer: Abscond
To abscond is to leave hurriedly to avoid arrest. For instance, illegal workers are found by immigration officials.
Question 72: What is the correct hand placement for performing chest compressions on an adult?
- Two fingers above the navel
- Upper left chest over the heart
- Center of the chest on the lower half of the sternum (Correct answer)
- Just below the xiphoid process
Correct answer: Center of the chest on the lower half of the sternum
Compressions should be delivered to the center of the chest on the lower half of the sternum to effectively compress the heart.
Question 73: When writing the narrative for an arrest report, the information must be articulated with enough factual detail to clearly establish what legal standard?
- Reasonable suspicion
- Probable cause (Correct answer)
- Proof beyond a reasonable doubt
- Preponderance of the evidence
Correct answer: Probable cause
An arrest report, particularly the probable cause affidavit or statement, must contain sufficient facts to show that a crime was committed and the person arrested is the one who committed it. [14, 18] This legal standard is known as probable cause, which is necessary to justify the warrantless arrest to a judge. [14, 22]
Question 74: During a consensual encounter at a park, an individual gives an SDPD officer voluntary consent to search their backpack. Inside, the officer finds a locked metal box. Which of the following actions is legally permissible for the officer to take next?
- Stop the search of the box and seek separate consent to search it or obtain a warrant. (Correct answer)
- Seize the box and hold it indefinitely until the owner decides to open it.
- Immediately pry open the locked box because general consent to search the backpack extends to all containers within it.
- Arrest the individual for possessing a locked container, assuming it must contain contraband.
Correct answer: Stop the search of the box and seek separate consent to search it or obtain a warrant.
General consent to search a larger area, like a backpack, does not automatically extend to locked containers found within it. The scope of a consent search is limited by what a reasonable person would have understood the consent to include. To search the locked box, the officer needs separate, specific consent or must develop probable cause and obtain a warrant.
Question 75: What is a key responsibility of the Special Victims Unit (SVU) in the San Diego Police Department?
- Managing community outreach programs
- Investigating property crimes
- Investigating traffic accidents
- Handling cases of domestic violence and sexual assault (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Handling cases of domestic violence and sexual assault
The SVU specializes in cases involving domestic violence, sexual assault, and other crimes against vulnerable populations.
Question 76: An off-duty SDPD officer is at a grocery store and observes an individual shoplifting a low-value item. The suspect does not appear to be armed and is exiting the store. The officer is with their family and is not carrying their firearm or department radio. What is the most prudent and ethical course of action for the officer?
- Draw attention to the theft by yelling, 'Stop that shoplifter!' to alert store security.
- Confront the store manager and demand they take action to stop the suspect.
- Immediately use their 'police voice' to command the suspect to stop and attempt a physical arrest.
- Act as a good witness: observe the suspect's appearance and direction of travel, and contact 911 to report the crime. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Act as a good witness: observe the suspect's appearance and direction of travel, and contact 911 to report the crime.
While police officers are technically on duty 24/7, their primary responsibility in an off-duty situation is to act safely and prudently. Without proper equipment and backup, attempting a physical arrest for a minor property crime creates unnecessary risk for the officer, their family, and the public. The best course of action is to be an excellent witness, gathering key information that can be relayed to on-duty officers who can respond with the appropriate resources.
Question 77: An officer is frustrated after a long pursuit and uses profane and derogatory language towards a suspect who is already handcuffed and compliant. The officer's partner observes this behavior. What is the partner officer's primary ethical and procedural obligation in this situation?
- Advise the suspect that they can file a citizen's complaint at a later time.
- Privately counsel the officer later to avoid undermining their authority on scene.
- Ignore the language as it was not physical and was the result of a stressful situation.
- Intervene immediately to stop the unprofessional conduct and report the incident to a supervisor. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Intervene immediately to stop the unprofessional conduct and report the incident to a supervisor.
Law enforcement agencies, including the SDPD, have a 'duty to intervene' policy. This duty is not limited to excessive force but extends to any misconduct, including verbal abuse. The partner officer has an immediate obligation to stop the unprofessional behavior and a mandatory duty to report it through the chain of command to ensure accountability and maintain public trust.
Question 78: An SDPD officer responds to a domestic disturbance. Both parties have visible, minor injuries and claim the other started the physical altercation. Under California Penal Code § 13701(b), which of the following is the most critical factor for the officer to consider when determining whom to arrest?
- Which individual appears more upset and emotionally distressed.
- Which individual has a more significant history of domestic violence and presents a greater ongoing threat. (Correct answer)
- Which individual is willing to be transported from the scene for the night.
- Which individual initiated the first physical contact.
Correct answer: Which individual has a more significant history of domestic violence and presents a greater ongoing threat.
California Penal Code § 13701(b) requires officers to make reasonable efforts to identify the 'dominant aggressor,' who is defined as the most significant aggressor, not necessarily the first. Factors include the history of domestic violence, threats creating fear, and whether one party acted in self-defense, with the goal of protecting victims from continuing abuse.
Question 79: Which tool is commonly used by San Diego Police Department investigators to identify suspects?
- Polygraph tests
- Fingerprint analysis (Correct answer)
- GPS tracking devices
- Lie detectors
Correct answer: Fingerprint analysis
Fingerprint analysis is a commonly used tool for identifying suspects based on physical evidence.
Question 80: An officer uses a departmental AED on a cardiac arrest victim. After the AED delivers a shock, what should the officer do immediately?
- Wait for the AED to re-analyze before touching the patient
- Resume chest compressions immediately (Correct answer)
- Check for a pulse for 60 seconds before resuming CPR
- Deliver two rescue breaths before resuming compressions
Correct answer: Resume chest compressions immediately
Current guidelines direct rescuers to resume CPR immediately after AED shock delivery rather than pausing to check for a pulse.
Question 81: Which of these terms refers to “an unprincipled person”.
- Admonish
- Vagrant
- Reprobate (Correct answer)
- Lien
Correct answer: Reprobate
The neighbors reprobated what was being proposed for the local community
Question 82: Two-fifths of police officers at New York Police Department are female. <br>If there are 36,000 police officers, how many officers are male
- 14,400
- $20,400
- 18,900
- 21,600 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 21,600
If two-fifths (2/5) of the department are female, then three-fifths (3/5) are male First, then, <br>we need to learn how many people constitute one-fifth, then multiply that value by 3.36,000 / 5 = 7,200 This means there are 14,400 female police officers and 21,600 male officers.
Question 83: An SDPD officer, while on a meal break at a local diner they frequent, is told by the owner that their meal is 'on the house' as a thank you for their service. According to the SDPD's Code of Conduct and general ethical principles, what is the officer's most appropriate response?
- Report the owner's offer to a supervisor to see if it's an approved gratuity.
- Politely decline the offer and pay for the meal in full. (Correct answer)
- Accept the meal but leave a tip that is larger than the meal's value.
- Accept the meal, as it is a one-time offer from a grateful citizen.
Correct answer: Politely decline the offer and pay for the meal in full.
Accepting gratuities, even with good intentions, can create a public perception of favoritism or lead to an expectation of special treatment. The San Diego Police Department's manual, along with universal law enforcement ethics, strictly prohibits officers from accepting gifts or gratuities that could compromise their integrity or impartiality. The most ethical action is to politely decline and pay for the service like any other citizen.
Question 84: Which of the following best represents the three core components of the community policing philosophy adopted by agencies like the SDPD?
- Traffic Enforcement, Court Testimony, and Records Management
- Rapid Response, Tactical Deployment, and Crime Statistics
- Surveillance Technology, Undercover Operations, and Arrest Quotas
- Community Partnerships, Organizational Transformation, and Problem-Solving (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Community Partnerships, Organizational Transformation, and Problem-Solving
Community policing is a comprehensive philosophy that rests on three main pillars: building collaborative relationships with community members and groups (Community Partnerships), realigning agency structure and culture to support proactive efforts (Organizational Transformation), and moving beyond reactive responses to systematically address the root causes of crime and disorder (Problem-Solving).
Question 85: When evaluating an officer's use of force, the SDPD policy aligns with the U.S. Supreme Court standard in Graham v. Connor. Which of the following is a central inquiry in determining if the force was 'objectively reasonable'?
- The officer's subjective intent or motivation at the time.
- The outcome of the force application (e.g., severity of injury).
- The suspect's prior criminal history.
- Whether the officer's actions were reasonable based on the totality of the circumstances known to the officer at the scene. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Whether the officer's actions were reasonable based on the totality of the circumstances known to the officer at the scene.
The 'objectively reasonable' standard requires evaluating the officer's actions based on the totality of the circumstances from the perspective of a reasonable officer on the scene, without the benefit of hindsight. The officer's underlying intent or motivation is not the primary consideration.
Question 86: Which division within the San Diego Police Department handles cybercrime investigations?
- Traffic Division
- Patrol Division
- Cyber Investigations Unit (Correct answer)
- Vice Unit
Correct answer: Cyber Investigations Unit
The Cyber Investigations Unit is tasked with investigating cybercrimes, including online fraud and computer-related offenses.
Question 87: An SDPD officer responds to a call about a person acting erratically in a park. The person is unarmed but shouting and not responding to verbal commands. According to SDPD's de-escalation policy (DP 1.55), which of the following actions should the officer prioritize, when safe and reasonable to do so?
- Ignoring the individual until they commit a specific crime.
- Immediately moving in to physically restrain the individual to prevent escalation.
- Using time, distance, and communication to try and gain voluntary compliance. (Correct answer)
- Drawing a firearm to ensure the subject remains stationary.
Correct answer: Using time, distance, and communication to try and gain voluntary compliance.
SDPD Procedure 1.55 on De-escalation emphasizes using 'time, distance, communications, and other available resources in an effort to de-escalate encounters and gain voluntary compliance' when it is safe and reasonable. This approach is intended to reduce the need for force.
Question 88: Which of the following describes the most critical function of a well-written police report within the judicial process?
- It is used to brief the media about significant incidents in the community.
- It serves as the foundation for the District Attorney's office to evaluate the case and determine if criminal charges should be filed. [6] (Correct answer)
- It provides the primary data used by the department for tracking city-wide crime statistics.
- It acts as a formal record for the officer's supervisor to evaluate their daily performance.
Correct answer: It serves as the foundation for the District Attorney's office to evaluate the case and determine if criminal charges should be filed. [6]
While a police report serves many functions, its most critical role in the judicial process is to provide the prosecutor with the facts of the case. [6, 13] The District Attorney relies almost entirely on the officer's report to make an initial determination of whether there is sufficient evidence to file charges and proceed with a prosecution. [32]
Question 89: An SDPD officer, at 11:00 PM, observes an individual sleeping in a lawfully parked RV on a public street. The RV is parked directly in front of a single-family home. Under the Vehicle Habitation Ordinance (SDMC §86.0137), this situation constitutes a violation because it occurs:
- between 9 p.m. and 6 a.m. and within 500 feet of a residence. (Correct answer)
- in a vehicle larger than a standard passenger car.
- after legal parking hours, which end at 10:00 p.m. city-wide.
- without a valid 'overnight stay' permit displayed on the dashboard.
Correct answer: between 9 p.m. and 6 a.m. and within 500 feet of a residence.
San Diego's Vehicle Habitation Ordinance (SDMC §86.0137) specifically prohibits using a vehicle for habitation between the hours of 9:00 p.m. and 6:00 a.m. OR at any time within 500 feet of a residence or school. This scenario violates the ordinance on both counts (time and proximity to a residence).
Question 90: An officer observes a driver weaving within their lane and initiates a traffic stop. The driver exhibits signs of impairment but a preliminary alcohol screening (PAS) test shows a Blood Alcohol Content (BAC) of 0.06%. Can the officer still arrest the driver for DUI?
- Yes, under CVC 23152(a), if the alcohol has impaired their ability to drive safely. (Correct answer)
- No, a BAC below 0.08% only allows for a citation for unsafe driving.
- Yes, but only if the driver is under 21 years old.
- No, the driver's BAC is below the 0.08% per se limit.
Correct answer: Yes, under CVC 23152(a), if the alcohol has impaired their ability to drive safely.
CVC 23152(a) makes it unlawful for a person who is under the influence of any alcoholic beverage to drive a vehicle. A conviction can occur even if the BAC is below 0.08%, as long as it can be proven that the alcohol impaired the person's ability to drive with the caution of a sober person.
Question 91: A suspect weighs 90 kilograms and 14 pounds. The police report states the weight must be in pounds only. How heavy is the suspect
- 198 pounds
- 241 pounds
- 234 pounds
- 212 pounds (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 212 pounds
There are 2.2 pounds in 1 kilogram. Therefore, 90 kilograms x 2.2lbs = 198 pounds.198 pounds + 14 pounds = 212 pounds. The suspect weighs 212 pounds.
Question 92: Which of the following is a key holding from the U.S. Supreme Court case *Riley v. California*, which originated from a San Diego case?
- Officers may conduct a full, warrantless search of a cellphone's contents incident to a lawful arrest to prevent the destruction of evidence.
- Cellphone data is not protected by the Fourth Amendment because it is voluntarily shared with third-party service providers.
- A warrant is never required to search a cellphone if the arresting officer has reasonable suspicion that it contains evidence of the crime of arrest.
- Police may not generally search the digital information on a cellphone seized from an individual who has been arrested without first obtaining a warrant. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Police may not generally search the digital information on a cellphone seized from an individual who has been arrested without first obtaining a warrant.
The landmark case of *Riley v. California* established that police must generally obtain a warrant before searching the digital contents of a cellphone seized from an arrested individual. The Court reasoned that modern cellphones contain vast amounts of private information, making a warrantless search a significant invasion of privacy not justified by the traditional search-incident-to-arrest exceptions.
Question 93: An SDPD officer conducts a lawful traffic stop for a moving violation. The officer develops probable cause to believe the vehicle contains evidence of a crime. Under the 'automobile exception' to the Fourth Amendment in California, what is the permissible scope of the officer's search?
- The entire vehicle, including the trunk and any closed containers within it that could reasonably contain the items being sought. (Correct answer)
- Only the passenger compartment of the vehicle and any containers within it.
- The 'grab zone' immediately around the driver and passengers.
- A cursory search of the vehicle for weapons only.
Correct answer: The entire vehicle, including the trunk and any closed containers within it that could reasonably contain the items being sought.
The automobile exception allows for a warrantless search of a vehicle if there is probable cause to believe it contains evidence of a crime. The scope of this search is as broad as a magistrate could authorize in a warrant, extending to any part of the vehicle, including the trunk and closed containers, where the evidence might reasonably be found.
Question 94: Which of the following activities is explicitly prohibited at all times in Balboa Park and at all City of San Diego beaches according to the Municipal Code?
- Operating a remote-controlled drone for recreational purposes.
- Smoking tobacco or any other plant. (Correct answer)
- Walking a leashed dog on a boardwalk.
- Playing amplified music without headphones.
Correct answer: Smoking tobacco or any other plant.
San Diego Municipal Code §43.1003 makes it unlawful to smoke in public parks and on public beaches. This ban is comprehensive for these locations to protect public health and safety.
Question 95: According to San Diego Police Department Procedure 1.04, what is the Department's highest priority in the performance of their duties?
- Apprehension of criminal suspects.
- The protection of property.
- The recognition and respect for the value of human life. (Correct answer)
- Enforcement of all city ordinances.
Correct answer: The recognition and respect for the value of human life.
SDPD Procedure 1.04 explicitly states, 'The San Diego Police Department recognizes and respects the value of human life, having this as its highest priority.' This principle guides all other actions, including the use of force.
Question 96: An officer observes significant graffiti on the side wall of a privately owned convenience store. Under the San Diego Municipal Code's graffiti abatement procedures, who holds the primary legal responsibility for ensuring the graffiti is removed?
- The owner of the property where the graffiti is located. (Correct answer)
- The person who applied the graffiti, and no action can be taken until they are identified and convicted.
- The City's Graffiti Control Program, which must clean all graffiti within five days.
- The SDPD, by citing the perpetrators and using asset forfeiture funds for cleanup.
Correct answer: The owner of the property where the graffiti is located.
The San Diego Municipal Code places the responsibility for graffiti removal on the owner of the property. While the City has programs to assist and enforce, the code requires property owners to abate graffiti on their property after being notified by a code compliance officer.
Question 97: A victim is experiencing anaphylactic shock after a bee sting, with hives, throat swelling, and difficulty breathing. What is the primary treatment?
- Place in recovery position and perform rescue breathing
- Administer oral antihistamines and monitor
- Administer epinephrine via auto-injector and call EMS (Correct answer)
- Apply ice to the sting site and call EMS
Correct answer: Administer epinephrine via auto-injector and call EMS
Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis; it counteracts the life-threatening systemic allergic reaction and EMS should be summoned immediately.
Question 98: A subject has an impaled object in the chest. What is the correct field treatment?
- Apply direct pressure around and over the object
- Stabilize the object in place and do not remove it (Correct answer)
- Remove the object and pack the wound
- Cover with an airtight seal on all four sides
Correct answer: Stabilize the object in place and do not remove it
Impaled objects should always be stabilized in place because removal can cause uncontrolled internal bleeding and further injury.
Question 99: Which of the following actions by an SDPD officer is the clearest example of building a 'community partnership'?
- Collaborating with a neighborhood watch and local business owners to develop a burglary prevention plan. (Correct answer)
- Testifying effectively in court to ensure a conviction.
- Conducting a high volume of traffic stops in a high-crime area.
- Completing a detailed and accurate report after a major incident.
Correct answer: Collaborating with a neighborhood watch and local business owners to develop a burglary prevention plan.
Community partnership, a core component of community policing, involves law enforcement and community members working together proactively to solve problems. Collaborating with neighborhood groups and businesses is a prime example of this partnership, whereas the other options describe standard, and often reactive, police duties.
Question 100: What is the role of the Crime Scene Investigations (CSI) team in the San Diego Police Department?
- Conducting suspect interviews
- Writing police reports
- Patrolling high-crime areas
- Collecting and analyzing physical evidence (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Collecting and analyzing physical evidence
The CSI team is responsible for collecting and analyzing physical evidence from crime scenes.
SDPD Police Recruit Written Test
The San Diego Police Department Written Test evaluates candidates for police recruit positions, assessing reading comprehension, attention to detail, decision-making ability, and written communication skills.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds