RHIT Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield RHIT facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. What is the standard length of time an adult acute care hospital must retain medical records according to most state regulations? → Varies by state but commonly 10 years after last encounter
2. Which federal regulation protects the confidentiality of substance abuse treatment records? → 42 CFR Part 2
3. In a frequency distribution of patient ages, the most frequently occurring age is 45. What statistical term describes this? → Mode
4. Which document notifies patients about how their PHI may be used and disclosed? → Notice of Privacy Practices (NPP)
5. In the absence of a more stringent state law, the CMS Conditions of Participation require hospitals to retain medical records for a minimum of how many years? → 5 years
6. Which documentation is required to code a surgical complication in an inpatient record? → Physician documentation linking the condition to the surgical procedure
7. Under HIPAA, what is a Business Associate Agreement (BAA)? → A written contract ensuring vendors who access PHI protect it in accordance with HIPAA
8. What is the purpose of role-based access control (RBAC) in an EHR system? → To restrict system access based on a user's job function
9. A hospital employee looks up a celebrity patient's record out of curiosity. What type of HIPAA violation is this? → An impermissible access/use of PHI that violates the minimum necessary standard
10. Which of the following activities is considered a healthcare 'operation' under HIPAA, allowing for the use and disclosure of PHI without patient authorization? → Conducting internal quality assessment and improvement activities
11. What is the purpose of a record reconciliation process after a patient's discharge? → To ensure all records generated during the stay are accounted for and properly filed
12. Which of the following is an example of a TECHNICAL safeguard required by the HIPAA Security Rule? → Using unique user IDs and automatic log-off procedures for computer systems.
13. What does a hospital's bed occupancy rate measure? → The percentage of available beds occupied during a given time period
14. What constitutes a 'breach' under the HIPAA Breach Notification Rule? → An impermissible use or disclosure of PHI that compromises security or privacy
15. The account's guarantor is the? → the person who is responsible for paying bills not paid for by insurance.
16. What technology standard does the ONC promote for modern health data exchange through APIs? → HL7 FHIR (Fast Healthcare Interoperability Resources)
17. Which statistical tool is BEST used to monitor whether a process is in statistical control over time? → Control chart
18. The principle of data integrity that ensures data is recorded at the time of the event or observation is known as: → Contemporaneousness
19. What is the purpose of the Medicare Severity Diagnosis Related Group (MS-DRG) system? → To classify inpatient stays into groups for prospective payment purposes
20. Which performance improvement model follows the sequence of Plan, Do, Check, and Act? → PDCA Cycle
21. What fees may a covered entity charge for releasing records to a patient? → Only a reasonable, cost-based fee including labor, supplies, and postage
22. An outpatient facility's size is decided by its? → visits/encounters per day.
23. Which quality management tool displays the frequency of problems in descending order to help prioritize improvement efforts? → Pareto chart
24. In healthcare quality management, 'utilization review' primarily focuses on: → Evaluating the medical necessity and appropriateness of services
25. What is the difference between 'excision' and 'resection' in ICD-10-PCS? → Excision removes a PORTION while resection removes ALL of a body part without replacement
26. What type of audit examines health records while the patient is still receiving care in the facility? → Concurrent review
27. What is the first step in the healthcare revenue cycle? → Patient pre-registration and scheduling including insurance verification
28. A RHIT is reviewing records and notices a physician documented 'CHF' without further specification. What action should the CDI specialist take? → Query the physician for the type and acuity of heart failure
29. Which organization is responsible for the Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set (HEDIS), used to measure health plan performance? → NCQA
30. A quantitative analysis of a health record focuses on: → The presence or absence of required reports or signatures.