RN Practice Test: Video 1 Answers (25 Questions) — Questions and Answers
Question 1: When donning PPE before entering a contact isolation room, which item should be put on first?
- Gloves
- Gown (Correct answer)
- Surgical mask
- Eye protection
Correct answer: Gown
The gown is donned first because it covers the largest body surface area; gloves are applied last and pulled over the gown cuffs.
Question 2: What is the single most effective method for preventing the spread of healthcare-associated infections?
- Placing all patients in isolation rooms
- Using gloves for all patient contact
- Hand hygiene with soap and water or alcohol-based hand rub (Correct answer)
- Wearing a mask during all patient interactions
Correct answer: Hand hygiene with soap and water or alcohol-based hand rub
Hand hygiene is the single most effective measure for preventing transmission of pathogens in healthcare settings, as recommended by the CDC and WHO.
Question 3: When removing PPE after caring for a patient on contact precautions, what is the correct sequence?
- Goggles, gown, gloves, mask
- Gown, gloves, mask, goggles
- Mask, goggles, gown, gloves
- Gloves, goggles or face shield, gown, mask or respirator (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Gloves, goggles or face shield, gown, mask or respirator
Per CDC guidelines, gloves (most contaminated) are removed first, followed by eye protection, then gown, with the mask removed last to minimize self-contamination.
Question 4: During a sterile dressing change, which action would break sterile technique?
- Opening sterile packages away from the sterile field
- Using sterile gloves to handle sterile supplies
- Reaching over the sterile field to arrange supplies (Correct answer)
- Maintaining sterile items above waist level
Correct answer: Reaching over the sterile field to arrange supplies
Reaching over a sterile field contaminates it because unsterile clothing or arms pass directly above the field, allowing microorganism fallout.
Question 5: A patient is admitted with a Clostridium difficile (C. diff) infection. Which precautions should be initiated in addition to standard precautions?
- Airborne precautions
- Droplet precautions
- Contact precautions (Correct answer)
- Protective environment precautions
Correct answer: Contact precautions
C. difficile spreads via the fecal-oral route through contact with spore-contaminated surfaces or hands, requiring contact precautions.
Question 6: A nurse is using therapeutic communication with a grieving patient. Which response demonstrates active listening?
- 'Tell me more about what you're experiencing right now.' (Correct answer)
- 'You will feel better in time.'
- 'Everything happens for a reason.'
- 'I understand exactly how you feel.'
Correct answer: 'Tell me more about what you're experiencing right now.'
Open-ended statements invite the patient to elaborate and demonstrate genuine interest in their experience, which is the hallmark of active listening.
Question 7: A patient with major depressive disorder says, 'I've been giving my belongings away and I feel at peace now.' The nurse's priority action is:
- Document the finding and continue monitoring
- Praise the patient for achieving inner peace
- Conduct an immediate suicide risk assessment (Correct answer)
- Notify social work for discharge planning
Correct answer: Conduct an immediate suicide risk assessment
Giving away possessions and sudden calmness in a depressed patient are high-risk warning signs of suicidal intent requiring immediate safety assessment.
Question 8: A patient with anorexia nervosa is admitted with a BMI of 14. Which nursing action takes priority?
- Monitor electrolytes and cardiac rhythm (Correct answer)
- Arrange family counseling
- Provide education about healthy body image
- Encourage the patient to eat three large meals per day
Correct answer: Monitor electrolytes and cardiac rhythm
Severe malnutrition in anorexia nervosa causes electrolyte imbalances (especially hypokalemia and hypophosphatemia) and refeeding syndrome risk, making cardiac monitoring the physiological priority.
Question 9: A patient is in an awkward position in her bed when the nurse enters the room to inject insulin. What should the nurse start by doing?
- Reposition the patient (Correct answer)
- Administer the insulin
- Check the patient's ID band
- Verify the patient's name
Correct answer: Reposition the patient
Before administering any medication, especially an injection, patient safety and comfort are paramount. If the patient is in an awkward position, the nurse should first reposition them to ensure proper body alignment, comfort, and accessibility to the injection site. This step helps prevent injury to both the patient and the nurse during the procedure.
Question 10: Which of the following assessment results is in line with a volume deficit of extracellular fluid?
- Bradycardia
- Hypertension
- Oliguria (Correct answer)
- Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: Oliguria
Extracellular fluid volume deficit, or hypovolemia, signifies a reduction in the body's circulating fluid volume. The kidneys respond to this decreased volume by conserving water, leading to reduced urine output, known as oliguria. Other common signs of fluid volume deficit include tachycardia, hypotension, and dry mucous membranes, not bradycardia or hypertension.
Question 11: Which positioning is ideal for the client before to a soap suds enema?
- Prone
- Lithotomy
- Sims (Correct answer)
- Supine
Correct answer: Sims
The Sims position, where the patient lies on their left side with the right knee and thigh drawn up, is the ideal positioning for a soap suds enema. This position allows gravity to assist the flow of the enema solution into the descending colon and rectum. It also helps to relax the anal sphincter, making the procedure more comfortable and effective for the client.
Question 12: A nurse is caring for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which position is most appropriate?
- Prone position
- Trendelenburg position
- Head of bed elevated 30 degrees with head midline (Correct answer)
- Head of bed flat
Correct answer: Head of bed elevated 30 degrees with head midline
Elevating the head of the bed 30 degrees with the head in midline promotes venous drainage from the brain, reducing ICP.
Question 13: A patient with chronic kidney disease has a serum potassium of 6.8 mEq/L. The nurse's priority intervention is to:
- Encourage increased dietary potassium
- Administer oral potassium supplements
- Prepare for cardiac monitoring (Correct answer)
- Administer a potassium-sparing diuretic
Correct answer: Prepare for cardiac monitoring
Hyperkalemia at 6.8 mEq/L poses a life-threatening cardiac risk; continuous cardiac monitoring must be initiated immediately.
Question 14: Which finding in a burn patient indicates adequate fluid resuscitation during the first 24 hours?
- Urine output of 0.1 mL/kg/hour
- Urine output of 0.5–1 mL/kg/hour (Correct answer)
- Serum sodium of 155 mEq/L
- Heart rate of 130 bpm
Correct answer: Urine output of 0.5–1 mL/kg/hour
The Parkland formula targets urine output of 0.5–1 mL/kg/hour as the primary indicator of adequate tissue perfusion during burn resuscitation.
Question 15: Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with prolonged vomiting?
- Hypernatremia
- Hypercalcemia
- Hyperkalemia
- Hypokalemia (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Hypokalemia
Prolonged vomiting causes loss of hydrochloric acid and potassium, leading to hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis.
Question 16: A patient with liver cirrhosis develops sudden onset confusion, asterixis, and fetor hepaticus. The nurse should prepare to administer:
- Lactulose (Correct answer)
- Furosemide
- Naloxone
- IV dextrose 50%
Correct answer: Lactulose
These signs indicate hepatic encephalopathy; lactulose is administered to reduce ammonia absorption by acidifying the colon and promoting bowel elimination.
Question 17: A nurse is counseling a patient who smokes about cessation. Which approach is most evidence-based?
- Advising the patient to switch to e-cigarettes
- Prescribing bupropion without counseling
- Recommending a combination of NRT and behavioral counseling (Correct answer)
- Telling the patient to quit 'cold turkey' without medication
Correct answer: Recommending a combination of NRT and behavioral counseling
Evidence consistently shows that combining pharmacotherapy (such as NRT, varenicline, or bupropion) with behavioral counseling yields the highest smoking cessation success rates.
Question 18: A nurse is assessing a 6-month-old during a well-baby visit. Which developmental milestone should the infant have achieved?
- Sitting with support and rolling over (Correct answer)
- Pincer grasp and pulling to stand
- Using two-word phrases
- Walking with support
Correct answer: Sitting with support and rolling over
By 6 months, infants typically sit with support, roll from front to back and back to front, babble, and reach for objects.
Question 19: A nurse is teaching a patient with type 2 diabetes about foot care. Which instruction is most important?
- Inspect feet daily and wear well-fitted shoes (Correct answer)
- Walk barefoot indoors to toughen the skin
- Use a heating pad for foot pain relief
- Soak feet in hot water for 30 minutes each day
Correct answer: Inspect feet daily and wear well-fitted shoes
Daily foot inspection and proper footwear prevent undetected injuries and pressure ulcers that can progress to serious infection or amputation in diabetic patients.
Question 20: A nurse is teaching a 55-year-old male patient about colorectal cancer screening. Which is the recommended screening for an average-risk adult?
- Colonoscopy every 10 years starting at age 45 (Correct answer)
- Annual digital rectal exam only
- Stool DNA test every 3 years starting at age 65
- Sigmoidoscopy every 5 years starting at age 60
Correct answer: Colonoscopy every 10 years starting at age 45
The American Cancer Society recommends colorectal cancer screening beginning at age 45 for average-risk adults; colonoscopy every 10 years is a standard option.
Question 21: A nurse is conducting a well-child visit for a 2-month-old. Which vaccines are due at this visit?
- MMR, varicella, hepatitis A
- DTaP, IPV, Hib, PCV13, rotavirus, hepatitis B (Correct answer)
- HPV and Tdap
- Influenza and meningococcal only
Correct answer: DTaP, IPV, Hib, PCV13, rotavirus, hepatitis B
The 2-month immunization schedule includes DTaP, IPV, Hib, PCV13, rotavirus, and hepatitis B as the standard CDC-recommended vaccines.
Question 22: When performing a focused assessment on a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which finding is most significant?
- Generalized leg fatigue after ambulation
- Intermittent bilateral calf cramping at night
- Unilateral calf warmth, redness, and tenderness (Correct answer)
- Bilateral lower extremity edema
Correct answer: Unilateral calf warmth, redness, and tenderness
Unilateral calf warmth, redness, and tenderness are classic signs of DVT, distinguishing it from bilateral or systemic causes.
Question 23: A nurse is assessing a patient who has been in a house fire. The patient's lips appear cherry-red. Which condition does the nurse suspect?
- Thermal airway burn
- Carbon monoxide poisoning (Correct answer)
- Methemoglobinemia
- Cyanide poisoning
Correct answer: Carbon monoxide poisoning
Cherry-red skin and mucous membranes are a classic sign of carbon monoxide poisoning because carboxyhemoglobin gives blood a bright red color.
Question 24: A nurse is preparing a patient for a colonoscopy. Which finding in the patient's history requires immediate communication to the provider?
- Daily aspirin use for cardiac prophylaxis (Correct answer)
- History of constipation
- Allergy to shellfish
- BMI of 32
Correct answer: Daily aspirin use for cardiac prophylaxis
Antiplatelet agents like aspirin increase bleeding risk during colonoscopy with potential polypectomy; the provider must decide whether to hold the medication.
Question 25: A patient is admitted with suspected meningitis. Which action should the nurse prioritize before antibiotics are administered?
- Obtain blood cultures and CSF specimen as ordered (Correct answer)
- Insert a urinary catheter to monitor output
- Administer acetaminophen for fever reduction
- Place the patient in a private room on droplet precautions
Correct answer: Obtain blood cultures and CSF specimen as ordered
Culture specimens must be collected before antibiotic administration to identify the causative organism; antibiotics can render cultures falsely negative.
RN Practice Test: Video 1 Answers (25 Questions)
When donning PPE before entering a contact isolation room, which item should be put on first?
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