ARRT Radiography Certification Examination — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which patient condition requires the greatest caution and individualized risk-benefit assessment before administering iodinated IV contrast?

Chronic kidney disease with eGFR 20 mL/min/1.73m² (Correct answer)
History of previous mild urticaria from shellfish
Mild controlled asthma
Seasonal allergic rhinitis

Correct answer: Chronic kidney disease with eGFR 20 mL/min/1.73m²

An eGFR of 20 mL/min/1.73m² represents severe chronic kidney disease, placing the patient at significant risk for contrast-induced acute kidney injury and requiring careful risk-benefit evaluation.

Question 2: Which of the following drug delivery systems falls under the definition of "parenteral"?

oral
sublingual
mucosal
other, except alimentary (Correct answer)

Correct answer: other, except alimentary

Parenteral drug administration refers to routes that bypass the gastrointestinal (alimentary) tract. This includes various methods such as injections (intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous), as well as other non-oral routes like topical, transdermal, or inhaled. Therefore, 'other, except alimentary' accurately encompasses the diverse drug delivery systems defined as parenteral.

Question 3: What is the correct SID (source-to-image distance) for routine chest radiography?

72 inches (180 cm) (Correct answer)
56 inches (140 cm)
48 inches (120 cm)
40 inches (100 cm)

Correct answer: 72 inches (180 cm)

A 72-inch (180 cm) SID is standard for chest radiography to minimize cardiac magnification and improve image sharpness.

Question 4: During a quality control assessment, kVp accuracy is typically evaluated using a:

Densitometer
Penetrometer
Digital kVp meter (non-invasive kVp meter) (Correct answer)
Sensitometer

Correct answer: Digital kVp meter (non-invasive kVp meter)

Non-invasive digital kVp meters measure the actual peak kilovoltage output of the x-ray unit and are used to verify kVp accuracy during quality control.

Question 5: Which radiographic positioning term describes the patient lying face down?

Trendelenburg
Lateral decubitus
Prone (Correct answer)
Supine

Correct answer: Prone

Prone describes the patient positioned face down on the table, opposite to the supine (face up) position.

Question 6: Which artifact in CT appears as alternating bright and dark bands radiating from high-density structures and is caused by insufficient sampling?

Partial volume artifact
Streak artifact (Correct answer)
Beam hardening artifact
Ring artifact

Correct answer: Streak artifact

Streak artifacts appear as bright and dark bands radiating from high-density objects (e.g., metal implants, dense bone) and result from insufficient projection data or beam hardening at those locations.

Question 7: Which QC test is performed to evaluate the accuracy of the radiographic timer?

Step wedge test
Sensitometry
Spinning top test (Correct answer)
Half-value layer measurement

Correct answer: Spinning top test

The spinning top test evaluates timer accuracy in single-phase or three-phase generators by counting the number of dots or arc produced during a timed exposure. Digital systems require a synchronous spinning top or electronic timer test.

Question 8: Window width (WW) and window level (WL) in CT imaging refer to:

The slice thickness and reconstruction interval
The matrix size and pixel size of the image
The range and center of HU values displayed as the visible gray scale (Correct answer)
The tube voltage and tube current used for the scan

Correct answer: The range and center of HU values displayed as the visible gray scale

Window width sets the range of Hounsfield units mapped to the visible gray scale; window level sets the center HU of that range — together they optimize tissue contrast display.

Question 9: A pediatric patient is brought in for a femur X-ray. Multiple healed fractures in various stages of healing are noted on the image. The radiographer should:

Inform the radiologist of the findings immediately (Correct answer)
Discharge the patient and family
Repeat the images for better quality
Proceed with the exam and say nothing

Correct answer: Inform the radiologist of the findings immediately

Multiple fractures in various stages of healing in a pediatric patient are a classic radiographic sign of non-accidental trauma (child abuse). The radiographer has an ethical and legal duty to report this finding immediately to the radiologist and follow institutional protocol.

Question 10: The PA chest radiograph is preferred over the AP projection primarily because it:

Improves lung field visualization
Reduces patient dose significantly
Decreases magnification of the heart (Correct answer)
Eliminates scatter radiation

Correct answer: Decreases magnification of the heart

With the patient facing the detector (PA), the heart is closer to the image receptor, reducing its geometric magnification.

Question 11: The modulation transfer function (MTF) in digital radiography is a measure of:

Signal-to-noise ratio
Detector quantum efficiency
Spatial resolution — how faithfully the system reproduces fine detail (Correct answer)
Dynamic range of the detector

Correct answer: Spatial resolution — how faithfully the system reproduces fine detail

MTF quantifies the system's ability to reproduce spatial detail. An MTF of 1.0 means perfect reproduction; values below 1.0 indicate blurring. MTF decreases at higher spatial frequencies (finer detail), and is plotted as a curve to characterize detector resolution performance.

Question 12: Which test evaluates the reproducibility of x-ray output from an x-ray generator?

Beam quality (HVL) test
Focal spot resolution test
Exposure reproducibility test (Correct answer)
Grid alignment test

Correct answer: Exposure reproducibility test

The exposure reproducibility test measures the variation in radiation output across multiple identical exposures, verifying that the generator produces consistent output.

Question 13: The image matrix size in digital radiography refers to:

The physical size of the detector panel
The spatial frequency at which the image is acquired
The number of pixels arranged in rows and columns that make up the digital image (Correct answer)
The number of gray levels in the image

Correct answer: The number of pixels arranged in rows and columns that make up the digital image

The image matrix defines how many pixels are arranged in rows × columns to form the digital image — a larger matrix (more pixels) means higher spatial resolution.

Question 14: Primary radiation barriers must attenuate the useful beam to what level?

The primary barrier must reduce transmission to 5 mSv/week
The primary barrier must reduce transmission to 10 mSv/week
The primary barrier must reduce transmission to 0.1 mSv/week
The primary barrier must reduce transmission to 1 mSv/week (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The primary barrier must reduce transmission to 1 mSv/week

Primary barriers are designed to reduce the transmitted primary beam to an acceptable level, typically 1 mSv (0.1 rem) per week for controlled areas.

Question 15: Which protective measure is most effective in reducing patient dose during pediatric radiography?

Using a higher kVp and lower mAs
Tight collimation to the area of clinical interest (Correct answer)
Increasing the SID to 72 inches for all exams
Using the fastest film-screen combination available

Correct answer: Tight collimation to the area of clinical interest

Tight collimation limits the x-ray beam to only the area of interest, directly reducing the volume of tissue irradiated and thus the patient dose.

Question 16: Which principle of radiation protection is described as keeping radiation exposure As Low As Reasonably Achievable?

ALARA (Correct answer)
MPD
HVL
NCRP

Correct answer: ALARA

ALARA stands for As Low As Reasonably Achievable and is the foundational principle guiding all radiation protection practices.

Question 17: How should an Radiography Exam professional present complex information to non-experts?

Use full technical terminology
Skip complex topics entirely
Provide written reports only
Translate into accessible language, use visuals, and check for understanding (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Translate into accessible language, use visuals, and check for understanding

This is fundamental to Radiography Exam practice. Translate into accessible language, use visuals, and check for understanding represents the professional standard for communication in the Radiography Exam certification framework.

Question 18: Which type of artifact in CR imaging appears as a faint previous image superimposed on the current image?

Quantum noise artifact
Aliasing artifact
Grid cutoff artifact
Ghost artifact (residual image artifact) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ghost artifact (residual image artifact)

Ghost artifacts occur in CR when the PSP plate was not completely erased after the previous exposure — residual electrons release during the next scan, creating a faint superimposed image from the previous study.

Question 19: The major role of x-ray beam filtration is to:

reduce operator dose.
reduce scattered radiation.
reduce patient skin dose. (Correct answer)
reduce image noise.

Correct answer: reduce patient skin dose.

The primary role of x-ray beam filtration is to remove low-energy, long-wavelength photons from the beam. These 'soft' x-rays would otherwise be absorbed by the patient's skin without contributing to image formation. By removing them, filtration significantly reduces the patient's skin dose while maintaining diagnostic image quality.

Question 20: How do Radiography Exam professionals ensure compliance in daily practice?

By hiring a compliance officer
By integrating compliance requirements into standard operating procedures and regular audits (Correct answer)
Compliance is checked only annually
By memorizing all regulations

Correct answer: By integrating compliance requirements into standard operating procedures and regular audits

This is fundamental to Radiography Exam practice. By integrating compliance requirements into standard operating procedures and regular audits represents the professional standard for regulatory in the Radiography Exam certification framework.

Question 21: In computed radiography, what material is used in the imaging plate to store the latent image?

Silver halide crystals
Cesium iodide
Amorphous selenium
Photostimulable phosphor (PSP) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Photostimulable phosphor (PSP)

CR imaging plates use photostimulable phosphor (typically europium-doped barium fluorohalide) to trap energy from x-rays as a latent image.

Question 22: In digital radiography, what QC test is performed to detect dead pixels or detector non-uniformity?

Line pair resolution test
Flat-field uniformity test (Correct answer)
MTF measurement
Laser alignment test

Correct answer: Flat-field uniformity test

The flat-field uniformity test exposes the digital detector to a uniform radiation field and analyzes the resulting image for non-uniformity, dead pixels, or detector artifacts that could mimic pathology.

Question 23: Which artifact appears as a regular, wavy interference pattern when a stationary grid is used with an oscillating digital detector?

Lag artifact
Moiré pattern (Correct answer)
Ghosting artifact
Zebra artifact

Correct answer: Moiré pattern

The moiré pattern is an interference artifact caused by the interaction of the grid frequency with the sampling frequency of the digital detector.

Question 24: What is the recommended practice for wearing a radiation monitoring badge during fluoroscopy when wearing a lead apron?

Wear two badges: one outside at collar, one under apron at waist (Correct answer)
Wear one badge at collar level outside the apron
Wear the badge under the apron at waist level
Wear the badge on the wrist closest to the beam

Correct answer: Wear two badges: one outside at collar, one under apron at waist

During fluoroscopy, two badges are recommended: one at collar level outside the apron and one under the apron at waist level to accurately estimate effective dose.

Question 25: Which action best demonstrates a radiographer's commitment to professional development?

Reading new equipment manuals once and filing them away
Relying exclusively on on-the-job training
Maintaining ARRT registration and completing required continuing education credits (Correct answer)
Attending conferences only when required by the employer

Correct answer: Maintaining ARRT registration and completing required continuing education credits

Maintaining ARRT registration and fulfilling continuing education (CE) requirements demonstrates ongoing professional development and ensures competency with evolving technology and practice standards.

Question 26: How do continuing education requirements benefit Radiography Exam certified professionals?

They reduce practical skills
They only benefit training providers
They are unnecessary formalities
They ensure professionals stay current with evolving industry practices and knowledge (Correct answer)

Correct answer: They ensure professionals stay current with evolving industry practices and knowledge

This is fundamental to Radiography Exam practice. They ensure professionals stay current with evolving industry practices and knowledge represents the professional standard for professional standards in the Radiography Exam certification framework.

Question 27: The term 'contrast extravasation' refers to:

Leakage of IV contrast from the vein into surrounding soft tissue (Correct answer)
Allergic reaction to contrast media
Contrast entering the urinary collecting system
Contrast passing through the blood-brain barrier

Correct answer: Leakage of IV contrast from the vein into surrounding soft tissue

Contrast extravasation occurs when the IV needle or catheter is not properly positioned, allowing contrast to leak into the perivascular soft tissues rather than flowing into the vein.

Question 28: REM is a unit used to measure radiation. REM stands for what?

Radiation Equivalent Man (Correct answer)
Radioactive Early Management
Radiation Evolved Management
Roentgen Early Man

Correct answer: Radiation Equivalent Man

REM stands for 'Radiation Equivalent Man' (or Roentgen Equivalent Man). It is an older unit of equivalent dose, used to quantify the biological effect of radiation on human tissue. The REM accounts for the different biological effectiveness of various types of radiation, providing a measure of the potential harm to humans, with the SI unit equivalent being the Sievert (Sv).

Question 29: Which type of radiation interaction is primarily responsible for occupational radiation exposure during diagnostic radiography?

Coherent scattering
Photoelectric effect
Pair production
Compton scattering (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Compton scattering

Compton scattering is the primary source of scatter radiation that creates occupational exposure in diagnostic radiography, as it produces scattered photons that travel in all directions.

Question 30: Under 21 CFR 1020.31, the minimum source-to-skin distance (SSD) for a stationary fluoroscope is:

20 cm (8 inches)
30 cm (12 inches)
38 cm (15 inches) (Correct answer)
15 cm (6 inches)

Correct answer: 38 cm (15 inches)

21 CFR 1020.31 requires a minimum SSD of 38 cm (15 inches) for stationary fluoroscopes and 30 cm (12 inches) for mobile units. This minimum distance protects the patient's skin from high skin entrance doses.

Question 31: A patient receiving iodinated IV contrast suddenly develops generalized urticaria, bronchospasm, and hypotension. This reaction is classified as:

Vasovagal reaction
Anaphylactoid (anaphylaxis-like) reaction (Correct answer)
Chemotoxic reaction
Contrast-induced nephropathy

Correct answer: Anaphylactoid (anaphylaxis-like) reaction

Generalized urticaria combined with bronchospasm and hypotension constitutes a severe anaphylactoid reaction, which requires immediate emergency treatment with epinephrine.

ARRT Radiography Certification Examination

The ARRT Radiography Examination assesses the knowledge and cognitive skills of radiographers across patient care, radiation safety, image production, and imaging procedures. It is administered by the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT) and is required for radiography certification.

230

Questions

230 min

Time Limit

75%

To Pass

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These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

Sources & references

Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy

arrt.org — Score validity, retake policy, test delivery, eligibility, passing score, score release, fees, exam information · verified Oct 2026
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