QPSea Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A series of arrows points in directions that follow a clockwise rotation through N, NE, E, SE, S, SW, W, NW. Starting at N, what direction does the 10th arrow point?

NE (Correct answer)
S
E
SE

Correct answer: NE

The cycle has 8 directions; 10 mod 8 = 2, so the 10th arrow is the 2nd direction in the cycle, which is NE.

Question 2: A table shows response times (minutes) for 6 incidents: 4, 7, 3, 9, 5, 8. What is the median response time?

6.5
7
5
6 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 6

Ordered: 3,4,5,7,8,9 — median = (5+7)/2 = 6 minutes.

Question 3: Read the passage: 'Racial profiling is the practice of targeting individuals for suspicion of crime based on their race or ethnicity rather than observed behaviour. It is both unlawful and counterproductive to effective policing.' What does the passage indicate about racial profiling?

It is an accepted tactic in high-crime areas
It is illegal and undermines effective policing (Correct answer)
It is discouraged but not prohibited by law
It is permissible when supported by statistical data

Correct answer: It is illegal and undermines effective policing

The passage explicitly labels racial profiling as both unlawful and counterproductive.

Question 4: Select the sentence that uses 'affect' and 'effect' correctly.

The ruling will have an affect on the officer's career.
The ruling will affect the officer's career significantly. (Correct answer)
The affect of the ruling on the officer's career was harsh.
The ruling will effect the officer's career significantly.

Correct answer: The ruling will affect the officer's career significantly.

'Affect' is typically a verb meaning to influence, while 'effect' is typically a noun meaning a result.

Question 5: Which of these is the BEST reason to mentally categorise observed details into groups (e.g., clothing, physical features, vehicle) during a QPSea observation task?

Organised categories make it easier to retrieve specific details under exam pressure (Correct answer)
It speeds up reading time
It reduces the total number of details you need to remember
Examiners award extra marks for categorised answers

Correct answer: Organised categories make it easier to retrieve specific details under exam pressure

Grouping details into categories creates a structured memory framework that makes retrieval faster and more reliable under pressure.

Question 6: Which factor MOST impairs an officer's ability to accurately recall details from an observed scene?

Having too much time to observe the scene
Being over-rested before the shift
High levels of stress or distraction during observation (Correct answer)
Reading the description too quickly

Correct answer: High levels of stress or distraction during observation

Stress and distraction impair encoding of details into memory, reducing the accuracy of later recall.

Question 7: You stop a person for jaywalking. During the interaction, the person becomes verbally abusive. You have no grounds to arrest them. What should you do?

Walk away immediately to avoid the confrontation altogether
Issue a move-on notice and threaten arrest if they do not comply
Arrest them for public nuisance to end the confrontation
Remain calm, complete the interaction professionally, and disengage if the situation does not escalate further (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Remain calm, complete the interaction professionally, and disengage if the situation does not escalate further

Maintaining professionalism under verbal abuse and de-escalating without unlawful action is the correct response.

Question 8: A figure alternates between having an even number of elements and an odd number. The sequence is: 2, 5, 4, 7, 6, 9, __. What comes next?

11
10
8 (Correct answer)
12

Correct answer: 8

Even terms increase by 2 (2, 4, 6, 8) and odd terms increase by 2 (5, 7, 9), so the next even term is 8.

Question 9: How are the results of the test communicated to the candidates?

SMS
Phone call
Postal mail
Email (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Email

The results of the test are typically communicated to candidates via email. This method provides a formal, written record of the outcome and allows for efficient and timely delivery of information. Candidates should regularly check their registered email address, including spam folders, for updates regarding their assessment performance.

Question 10: An officer earns $1,250 per week. After a 4% pay rise, what is the new weekly wage?

$1,300 (Correct answer)
$1,290
$1,295
$1,310

Correct answer: $1,300

4% of $1,250 is $50, so the new wage is $1,250 + $50 = $1,300.

Question 11: A sequence of figures shows: 1 black shape, 2 white shapes, 3 black shapes, 4 white shapes. How many shapes and of what colour appear in the sixth group?

6 white shapes (Correct answer)
5 white shapes
6 black shapes
5 black shapes

Correct answer: 6 white shapes

Odd-numbered groups are black and even-numbered groups are white; group 6 (even) has 6 white shapes.

Question 12: Read the passage: 'De-escalation techniques aim to reduce the tension and emotional intensity of a situation to avoid the use of force. These techniques include active listening, calm communication, and creating physical space.' Which of the following is listed as a de-escalation technique in the passage?

Requesting additional officers to the scene
Documenting the incident in real time
Active listening and calm communication (Correct answer)
Issuing a formal caution

Correct answer: Active listening and calm communication

The passage lists active listening, calm communication, and creating physical space as de-escalation techniques.

Question 13: In a pattern, each figure is the previous figure with one element removed. The first figure has 5 elements, the second has 4, and so on. Which figure is the first to have fewer than 2 elements?

Figure 3
Figure 5
Figure 6
Figure 4 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Figure 4

Starting at 5 and subtracting 1 each step: 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 — figure 4 has 2 elements, so figure 5 is first to have fewer, but figure 4 reaches exactly 2 and figure 5 reaches 1 which is fewer than 2, making figure 5 the answer — actually figure 5 has 1 element, which is the first below 2.

Question 14: Read the following internal memo and answer the question below. Memo: "Effective 1 August, all officers are reminded that the updated evidence handling procedure (Policy 4.7b) requires all electronic exhibits, such as mobile phones and laptops, to be sealed in anti-static bags before being lodged. This is a change from the previous procedure of using standard evidence bags. The goal is to prevent data corruption and maintain the integrity of digital evidence." What is the main purpose of the new evidence handling procedure?

To better protect electronic evidence from damage. (Correct answer)
To standardise procedures with other agencies.
To save money on standard evidence bags.
To make evidence logging faster for officers.

Correct answer: To better protect electronic evidence from damage.

The memo states the goal of the new procedure is 'to prevent data corruption and maintain the integrity of digital evidence'. This directly relates to protecting the electronic exhibits from potential damage.

Question 15: Scenario: It is raining lightly at the collision scene. Which statement is most appropriate for the report?

The weather was miserable, which made conditions dangerous.
The collision was likely caused by the poor weather.
Weather conditions at the scene were overcast with light rain, and the road surface was wet. (Correct answer)
It was raining at the time of the incident.

Correct answer: Weather conditions at the scene were overcast with light rain, and the road surface was wet.

The report should include relevant conditions that might have contributed to the incident. The best answer is factual, precise, and notes the effect of the weather (wet road surface) without drawing conclusions about causation.

Question 16: Which stage of the QPSea evaluation is specifically designed to determine whether a candidate meets the vision requirements for operational policing?

Psychological Assessment
Situational Judgment Test
Background Check
Medical Examination (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Medical Examination

The Medical Examination includes vision testing to ensure candidates can safely perform operational duties.

Question 17: Shapes grow by adding one side per step: triangle, square, pentagon, hexagon. Which rule also describes the number of diagonals in each successive shape?

Diagonals decrease
Diagonals increase by 1, then 2, then 3 (Correct answer)
Diagonals double each step
Diagonals stay the same

Correct answer: Diagonals increase by 1, then 2, then 3

A triangle has 0, square 2, pentagon 5, hexagon 9 diagonals — differences are 2, 3, 4, showing the increment itself increases by 1 each time.

Question 18: A report states: 'The victim appeared intoxicated.' What is the main issue with this phrasing?

It correctly describes the victim's condition
It is a subjective opinion rather than an observed fact (Correct answer)
It should be placed at the end of the report
It is too brief and needs more words

Correct answer: It is a subjective opinion rather than an observed fact

Reporting observable facts such as 'the victim smelled of alcohol and slurred speech' is more accurate than stating an opinion.

Question 19: A 2x2 grid is presented. The top-left square contains a circle. The top-right square contains a circle with a horizontal line through it. The bottom-left square contains a square. Following the established pattern, what should the bottom-right square contain?

A square.
A square with a vertical line through it.
A circle with a vertical line through it.
A square with a horizontal line through it. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A square with a horizontal line through it.

The pattern demonstrates a relationship across the rows. The shape in the right column is the same as the shape in the left column, but with a horizontal line added through its center. Therefore, the bottom-right square should contain a square with a horizontal line through it.

Question 20: A sequence shows: 2 dots, 4 dots, 8 dots, 16 dots. How many dots come next?

18
64
24
32 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 32

Each term doubles the previous, so 16 × 2 = 32.

Question 21: Read the passage: 'Bystander effect refers to the phenomenon where individuals are less likely to offer help in an emergency when other people are present. Each person assumes someone else will act, resulting in collective inaction.' What causes the bystander effect according to the passage?

Crowds make emergencies more difficult to manage
Bystanders are generally indifferent to emergencies
Bystanders fear becoming involved in legal proceedings
Each person assumes another will take responsibility (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Each person assumes another will take responsibility

The passage states each person assumes someone else will act, causing collective inaction.

Question 22: Which of the following best describes why different sections of the QPSea may be weighted differently in the overall score?

Sections attempted last receive lower weighting
Longer sections are always weighted more heavily
Weighting is applied randomly to prevent coaching
Weighting reflects the relative importance of each ability for policing effectiveness (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Weighting reflects the relative importance of each ability for policing effectiveness

Differential weighting ensures that abilities most critical to policing performance contribute more to the final composite score.

Question 23: In the QPSea Situational Judgment Test (SJT), candidates are typically asked to:

Choose the most and least effective responses to realistic work scenarios (Correct answer)
Complete arithmetic problems under time pressure
Identify grammatical errors in police reports
Recall specific legislation verbatim

Correct answer: Choose the most and least effective responses to realistic work scenarios

The SJT presents policing scenarios and asks candidates to evaluate response options, measuring judgment and values.

Question 24: A pie chart shows patrol hours: Traffic=30%, Community=25%, Investigations=35%, Admin=10%. If total hours = 800, how many hours are spent on Investigations?

280 (Correct answer)
320
200
240

Correct answer: 280

35% of 800 = 0.35 × 800 = 280 hours.

Question 25: Each row in a matrix contains one shape that is the 'odd one out' — it differs in both size AND orientation from the other two shapes. If two shapes are large and upright, what is the odd-one-out shape?

Medium and upright
Small and upright
Large and rotated
Small and rotated (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Small and rotated

The odd one out must differ in both size (small, not large) and orientation (rotated, not upright).

Question 26: Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of a 'synopsis' or 'summary' section in a police report?

To document the chain of custody for physical evidence
To record the officer's recommendations for prosecution
To provide a brief overview of the incident and key findings (Correct answer)
To list all evidence collected at the scene

Correct answer: To provide a brief overview of the incident and key findings

A synopsis gives readers a quick, high-level understanding of the incident before they read the full details.

Question 27: A matrix shows 3 rows and 3 columns. Each row has exactly one black cell, one grey cell, and one white cell. Each column also has exactly one of each shade. The top-left is black, top-middle is grey, middle-left is white. What shade is the bottom-right cell?

Cannot be determined
Grey (Correct answer)
Black
White

Correct answer: Grey

Column 3 needs black and grey (white is at middle-right); row 3 needs black and grey; the intersection must satisfy both — the bottom-right is grey.

Question 28: Which of the following citizenship or residency statuses makes a person eligible to apply to the QPS?

Bridging visa holder
Temporary skilled visa holder
Australian citizen or permanent resident (Correct answer)
Student visa holder

Correct answer: Australian citizen or permanent resident

Applicants must be Australian citizens or permanent residents to be eligible to join the Queensland Police Service.

Question 29: An officer is documenting injuries sustained by a victim. Which description is MOST appropriate for the report?

'The victim was injured, as any observer could see'
'The victim looked like she had been beaten up badly'
'The victim had bad injuries on her face'
'The victim sustained a 3 cm laceration above the left eyebrow and bruising to the right cheekbone' (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 'The victim sustained a 3 cm laceration above the left eyebrow and bruising to the right cheekbone'

Precise, anatomically specific descriptions of injuries provide accurate medical and legal documentation.

Question 30: You observe a person attempting to break into a parked car. As you approach, the person claims it is their own vehicle and they have locked their keys inside. What do you do?

Arrest them immediately for attempted vehicle theft
Call a tow truck to resolve the situation without further investigation
Ask for identification and proof of ownership before deciding on any further action (Correct answer)
Accept the explanation and help them access the vehicle

Correct answer: Ask for identification and proof of ownership before deciding on any further action

Seeking identification and proof of ownership is a proportionate and procedurally correct response before drawing conclusions.

Question 31: Which of the following would most likely disqualify an applicant from the QPS on character grounds?

A minor traffic infringement five years ago
An unpaid parking fine
A domestic violence order taken out against the applicant (Correct answer)
A single speeding fine within the last two years

Correct answer: A domestic violence order taken out against the applicant

A domestic violence order against an applicant is a serious character concern that would likely result in disqualification.

Question 32: A pattern alternates between two transformations: reflection then rotation by 90°. If the starting figure points right, what direction does it point after four transformations?

Down
Left
Up
Right (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Right

Two full cycles (reflection + 90° rotation × 2) return the figure to its original orientation.

Question 33: A shape contains internal lines that increase by 2 each step: 0, 2, 4, 6. The outer shape also changes: circle, square, circle, square. What is the 7th figure?

Square with 10 lines
Circle with 12 lines (Correct answer)
Circle with 10 lines
Square with 12 lines

Correct answer: Circle with 12 lines

Step 7 is odd so the outer shape is a circle, and 6+(2×3)=12 internal lines (continuing the +2 pattern from step 4).

Question 34: Identify the sentence that uses a semicolon correctly.

The scene was secured, the perimeter; was established.
The scene was secured; and the perimeter established.
The scene was secured; the perimeter was established. (Correct answer)
The scene; was secured and the perimeter established.

Correct answer: The scene was secured; the perimeter was established.

A semicolon joins two independent clauses without a coordinating conjunction.

Question 35: When reviewing a written communication sample from a QPSea candidate, assessors would be MOST concerned by:

Slightly shorter length than the recommended word count
Accurate spelling but informal tone
Use of bullet points in a structured summary
Factual inaccuracies, illogical structure, or failure to address the task (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Factual inaccuracies, illogical structure, or failure to address the task

Inaccurate, illogical, or off-task writing directly undermines the core purpose of police documentation.

Question 36: In a pattern, odd-positioned figures face left and even-positioned figures face right. All figures are arrows. The 7th figure in the series faces which direction?

Left (Correct answer)
Up
Down
Right

Correct answer: Left

7 is odd, so the 7th figure follows the odd-position rule and faces left.

Question 37: You are about to go off duty when a community member approaches you in the street with a non-urgent matter. You have 10 minutes until your shift ends. What should you do?

Listen briefly, take their details if needed, and ensure the matter is directed to the appropriate resource (Correct answer)
Refer them to your partner who is still on duty
Handle the matter fully regardless of how long it takes
Tell the person your shift is ending and they should call the police station

Correct answer: Listen briefly, take their details if needed, and ensure the matter is directed to the appropriate resource

Officers should acknowledge community members courteously and direct their concerns appropriately rather than dismissing them.

Question 38: Which physical fitness test component specifically measures a candidate's ability to apply force relevant to use-of-force scenarios in policing?

Grip strength or push/pull tests (Correct answer)
Flexibility sit-and-reach test
2.4 km run
20-metre shuttle run

Correct answer: Grip strength or push/pull tests

Grip strength and push/pull tests assess the muscular force needed in restraint and use-of-force situations.

Question 39: A candidate who passes the QPSea but declines the subsequent offer of a position will most likely:

Automatically move to the top of the next intake list
Retain their rank on the merit list for the remaining validity period (Correct answer)
Be permanently barred from future applications
Have their score recalculated

Correct answer: Retain their rank on the merit list for the remaining validity period

Candidates who decline an offer generally retain their place on the merit list until their result expires, though policies can vary.

Question 40: Which sentence is in the passive voice?

Forensic officers worked through the night.
The forensic team collected the evidence.
They secured the scene before dawn.
The evidence was collected by the forensic team. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The evidence was collected by the forensic team.

Passive voice features the subject receiving the action; 'evidence was collected' shows the evidence as the subject being acted upon.

Question 41: A figure series alternates: solid border, dashed border, solid border, dashed border. The fill also alternates: filled, empty, filled, empty. What does figure 7 look like?

Solid border, empty
Dashed border, empty
Dashed border, filled
Solid border, filled (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Solid border, filled

Figure 7 is odd-numbered, so it has a solid border (odd=solid) and is filled (odd=filled).

Question 42: A report states that 45 out of 180 incidents involved traffic offences. What percentage of incidents were traffic-related?

30%
25% (Correct answer)
20%
35%

Correct answer: 25%

Dividing 45 by 180 and multiplying by 100 gives 25%.

Question 43: A report contains the sentence: 'He said she took the bag.' What is the key problem with this statement?

The sentence is too short for a police report
It is written in active voice, which is inappropriate
The pronouns 'he' and 'she' are ambiguous without prior identification (Correct answer)
The word 'took' should be replaced with 'stole'

Correct answer: The pronouns 'he' and 'she' are ambiguous without prior identification

Ambiguous pronouns prevent readers from identifying who performed or experienced the action without additional context.

Question 44: The table shows police response times for Priority 2 calls on a single day. What was the average response time in minutes? Table Data (in minutes): - Call 1: 12 - Call 2: 15 - Call 3: 9 - Call 4: 10

12 minutes
11.5 minutes (Correct answer)
10.5 minutes
46 minutes

Correct answer: 11.5 minutes

To find the average, you sum the values and divide by the number of values. The sum is 12 + 15 + 9 + 10 = 46. The number of calls is 4. Therefore, the average is 46 / 4 = 11.5 minutes.

Question 45: A stacked bar shows two districts' call types per week. District A: Emergency=40, Non-emergency=60. District B: Emergency=55, Non-emergency=45. What percentage of ALL calls are emergencies?

50.0%
47.5% (Correct answer)
52.5%
45.0%

Correct answer: 47.5%

Total emergency = 40+55 = 95; total calls = 200; 95/200 = 47.5%.

Question 46: A pattern alternates: shaded pentagon, unshaded hexagon, shaded pentagon, unshaded hexagon. The number of sides increases by 1 each pair. Which figure follows a shaded heptagon?

Shaded hexagon
Unshaded octagon (Correct answer)
Shaded octagon
Unshaded heptagon

Correct answer: Unshaded octagon

After a shaded heptagon (7 sides), the pattern requires an unshaded shape with 8 sides (octagon).

Question 47: A series of figures shows a clock face. The first figure shows the time 3:00. The second figure shows 3:15. The third figure shows 3:30. What time should the fourth figure in the sequence show?

4:15
3:00
3:45 (Correct answer)
4:00

Correct answer: 3:45

The pattern shows the time on the clock advancing by 15-minute increments with each step in the series. Starting from 3:00, the sequence is 3:15, then 3:30. The next 15-minute increment would be 3:45.

Question 48: Which of the following is a valid reason for an officer to write a supplementary report?

To replace the original report if it was poorly written
To rewrite the original report in better language
To add new information discovered after the original report was submitted (Correct answer)
To correct spelling errors in the first report

Correct answer: To add new information discovered after the original report was submitted

Supplementary reports document new evidence or facts that emerge after the original report was completed, without altering the original.

Question 49: A sequence of letters corresponds to shapes: A=circle, B=square, C=triangle, D=hexagon. The pattern is ABCDABCD. What shape does the 11th letter represent?

Circle
Square
Hexagon
Triangle (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Triangle

The cycle length is 4; 11 ÷ 4 = 2 remainder 3, so the 11th term is the 3rd in the cycle, which is C = triangle.

Question 50: Which sentence is the BEST example of clear, concise police report writing?

Basically, the guy just took off and left
The male individual proceeded to vacate the premises in a hasty manner
The man ran out of the building (Correct answer)
Subject was observed to be running and leaving the building quickly

Correct answer: The man ran out of the building

Direct, plain language communicates facts efficiently without unnecessary words or informal phrasing.

Question 51: A sequence of numbers follows this rule: each term = sum of the two digits of the previous term squared. Starting at 49, what is the next term?

169 (Correct answer)
144
81
121

Correct answer: 169

Digits of 49 are 4 and 9; (4+9)² = 13² = 169.

Question 52: Read the passage: 'An inference is a conclusion drawn from evidence rather than directly stated. Good readers identify what a text implies, not just what it explicitly says.' Which skill does the passage describe?

Locating specific facts within a passage
Identifying the author's tone and purpose
Summarising the main argument of a text
Drawing conclusions beyond what is directly written (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Drawing conclusions beyond what is directly written

The passage defines inference as drawing conclusions from implied rather than explicit information.

Question 53: Which of the following figures is the 'odd one out' in the group? A) A pentagon with five dots inside. B) A square with four dots inside. C) A triangle with two dots inside. D) A hexagon with six dots inside.

A) A pentagon with five dots inside.
B) A square with four dots inside.
D) A hexagon with six dots inside.
C) A triangle with two dots inside. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: C) A triangle with two dots inside.

The rule governing the group of figures is that the number of dots inside the shape corresponds to the number of sides the shape has. A pentagon has 5 sides, a square has 4, and a hexagon has 6. The triangle has 3 sides, but the figure described has only two dots, making it the odd one out.

Question 54: What does 'good character' mean in the context of QPS eligibility assessment?

The applicant has never received any traffic infringement
The applicant demonstrates honesty, integrity, and behaviour consistent with policing values (Correct answer)
The applicant has no social media presence
The applicant has held a leadership position in their community

Correct answer: The applicant demonstrates honesty, integrity, and behaviour consistent with policing values

Good character in policing refers to a demonstrated history of honest, ethical conduct and values aligned with public service and law enforcement.

Question 55: Each figure in a set has a number of sides equal to twice its position number: figure 1 has 2 sides (line), figure 2 has 4 sides (square), figure 3 has 6 sides (hexagon). What shape is figure 4?

Pentagon
Heptagon
Octagon (Correct answer)
Nonagon

Correct answer: Octagon

Figure 4 has 4 × 2 = 8 sides, making it an octagon.

Question 56: Officer Kim finishes writing a report and discovers a factual error. What is the correct procedure?

Draw a single line through the error, write the correction, and initial it (Correct answer)
Use correction fluid to cover the error
Submit the report as-is and notify the supervisor verbally
Delete the error and replace it without noting the change

Correct answer: Draw a single line through the error, write the correction, and initial it

Corrections must be visible, traceable, and initialled to maintain the integrity and transparency of official records.

Question 57: A police officer witnesses a vehicle collision at an intersection. Which detail is MOST important to record first in the incident report?

The names of any witnesses present
The weather conditions at the time
The estimated repair cost of the vehicles
The exact time and location of the collision (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The exact time and location of the collision

Exact time and location are foundational facts that anchor all other details in an incident report.

Question 58: In a 3×3 matrix, each row contains shapes that rotate 45° from left to right. The first row begins with an upright arrow. What orientation does the arrow in row 1, column 3 have?

Upright (0°)
135° clockwise
90° clockwise (Correct answer)
45° clockwise

Correct answer: 90° clockwise

Column 1 is 0°, column 2 is 45°, column 3 is 90°, so the arrow in row 1, column 3 points 90° clockwise (right).

Question 59: What does 'alleged' mean when used in police reports and media?

Claimed or supposed but not yet proven (Correct answer)
Previously convicted of a similar offense
Confirmed by multiple witnesses
Officially charged in a court document

Correct answer: Claimed or supposed but not yet proven

'Alleged' is used to describe an act or person that is claimed to be involved but has not yet been proven in court.

Question 60: A QPSea candidate is advised that their numerical reasoning score was 'below the competitive benchmark.' This most likely means:

The score is irrelevant and another component will override it
They failed a mandatory pass/fail cut score and are disqualified
Their score was lower than most other applicants in that intake round (Correct answer)
They must retake only the numerical section the following day

Correct answer: Their score was lower than most other applicants in that intake round

Competitive benchmarks indicate performance relative to the applicant pool rather than a fixed pass/fail threshold.

QPSea Exam

The Queensland Police Service Entrance Assessment (QPSea) evaluates literacy, abstract reasoning, and writing skills for candidates seeking to join the Queensland Police Service.

Questions

105 min

Time Limit

50%

To Pass

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