Mixed Deck — All QMAP Topics Flashcards

How many milliliters are in 3 teaspoons of medication?

Answer: 15 ml

Explanation: Since 1 teaspoon equals 5 ml, multiplying 5 ml by 3 teaspoons gives us 15 ml.

What does "PRN" stand for in medication administration?

Answer: As needed

Explanation: "PRN" is a medical abbreviation that stands for "pro re nata," which means "as needed" in Latin. It indicates that a medication should be administered only when necessary, based on the patient's condition or symptoms.

A QMAP receives a verbal medication order directly from a physician by phone. What should they do?

Answer: Do not accept verbal orders — only a licensed nurse can receive verbal physician orders; notify the nurse

QMAPs are not authorized to receive verbal physician orders; only licensed nurses can accept and transcribe verbal orders.

A QMAP is reviewing a new medication order. Which of the following administration routes is within their scope of practice?

Answer: Transdermal patch

QMAPs are trained and authorized to apply transdermal patches, which is a form of topical medication administration. QMAPs are explicitly prohibited from administering any form of injection (IV, subcutaneous, intramuscular), as this is outside their scope of practice.

Which of the following is a specific documentation requirement for administering a controlled substance that is different from documenting a non-controlled medication like an antibiotic?

Answer: Maintaining a perpetual inventory or running count on a separate controlled substance record sheet.

In addition to documenting on the MAR, every dose of a controlled substance must be logged on a separate, dedicated record sheet. This sheet maintains a running count (perpetual inventory) that is physically verified against the remaining medication at least at every shift change.

According to Colorado regulations for qualified facilities, what is the most fundamental requirement for storing all prescription and non-prescription medications?

Answer: They must be kept in a securely locked container, cart, or room.

To prevent unauthorized access, theft, or accidental ingestion by the wrong person, state regulations require all medications to be stored in a locked cabinet, cart, or storage area when not attended by qualified staff.

Which best describes a medication error?

Answer: Any preventable event that may cause or lead to inappropriate medication use or harm

A medication error is any preventable event that may cause or lead to inappropriate medication use or harm, regardless of whether harm occurred.

A resident develops a fever shortly after receiving a medication administered via a feeding tube. Which infection control question should the QMAP consider when reporting this event?

Answer: Was the feeding tube flushed with sterile or appropriate water, and was proper technique used during administration?

Fever after enteral medication administration may indicate infection introduced during the procedure; the QMAP should evaluate whether sterile flush water and aseptic technique were used.

If a QMAP witnesses another staff member administer a medication incorrectly, what is the appropriate response?

Answer: Report the incident to the supervising nurse and document observations according to facility policy

Witnessing a medication error or improper administration requires reporting to the supervising nurse and documenting per facility policy to protect resident safety.

A resident has an order for a liquid medication with a dose of 300 mg. The medication's label states the strength is '100 mg per 5 mL'. How many milliliters (mL) should the QMAP pour?

Answer: 15 mL

This is a ratio and proportion problem. You know that 5 mL contains 100 mg. You need to administer 300 mg. Set up the equation: (100 mg / 5 mL) = (300 mg / X mL). To find X, you can see that 300 mg is 3 times 100 mg, so you need 3 times the volume: 3 x 5 mL = 15 mL.

Which of the following statements best describes the primary therapeutic effect of an anticoagulant, such as Warfarin (Coumadin)?

Answer: It interferes with the blood clotting process to help prevent new clots from forming.

Anticoagulants, often called 'blood thinners,' work by disrupting the coagulation cascade, which is the process the body uses to form blood clots. Their main purpose is to prevent the formation or growth of dangerous clots.

Under which DEA schedule are medications with the highest abuse potential and no accepted medical use?

Answer: Schedule I

Schedule I substances have high abuse potential and no accepted medical use, such as heroin and LSD.

A QMAP witnesses another staff member taking a resident's medication. What is their obligation?

Answer: Report immediately to the supervisor as potential diversion

The QMAP has a legal and ethical obligation to report suspected diversion immediately.

A resident is prescribed a Schedule II controlled substance. What is the minimum security requirement for storing this type of medication in a qualified facility?

Answer: In a separately locked box that is stored inside another locked cabinet or room.

Controlled substances, especially Schedule II drugs, have a high potential for diversion and abuse. Colorado regulations mandate they be stored under a "double lock," which means they must be in a locked container that is itself kept within a second, separate locked area.

What is the primary therapeutic effect of a bronchodilator?

Answer: Opens airways by relaxing bronchial muscles

Bronchodilators relax airway smooth muscles, widening them to improve airflow to the lungs.

When is a QMAP permitted to prepare and administer a medication that another staff member has already drawn up or poured?

Answer: Generally never — QMAPs should only administer medications they personally prepared and verified

QMAPs should only administer medications they personally prepared and verified to prevent errors from unlabeled or incorrectly prepared doses.

A resident taking an ACE inhibitor develops a persistent dry cough. The QMAP should:

Answer: Document and report the cough to the nurse, as it is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors that may require a medication change

A persistent dry cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors and should be reported to the nurse so a medication change can be considered.

When a resident receives a PRN (as needed) medication for pain, which of the following documentation steps is required in addition to initialing the MAR?

Answer: Recording the time, dose, reason for administration, and the resident's response after a follow-up assessment.

For PRN medications, a QMAP must document not only that it was given but also the specific time, dose, and the reason for the administration. Crucially, the QMAP must also follow up with the resident (typically within 30-60 minutes) to assess the medication's effectiveness and document the resident's status or response.

A medication is ordered "PO." What route does this indicate?

Answer: By mouth (per os)

PO stands for "per os," Latin for "by mouth" - the most common administration route.

How should a QMAP correct a documentation error on the MAR?

Answer: Draw a single line through the error, write the correction, initial and date it

Draw a single line so the original remains legible, write the correction, then initial and date.