PTCB Practice Test 5

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This is a timed quiz. You will be given 60 seconds per question. Are you ready?

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When a patient has more than one insurance, what must be done to determine who shall provide the maximum coverage for the patient?

Correct! Wrong!

A coordination of benefits determine the primary and secondary coverage type and then submits claim to insurance. Plan limitation is used to control drug use; Reject claim are reasons why a claim can’t be processed; Fee for service is a set fee paid for each type of service performed.

Which part of the computer is called the “brain”?

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The processor is the brain of the work station. Modem allows a computer to communicate over a network; Memory or random access memory provide temporary workspace; Interface are connections between two or more computers

Which of the following is a medication error deficit in knowledge?

Correct! Wrong!

Employee may not have been given the information is an example of a knowledge type deficit. Medication error sources may include a deficit in one of two area which are knowledge and performance.

If a hazardous substance comes in contact with skin, it must be washed immediately with soap and water for at least?

Correct! Wrong!

Skin must be washed for at least 5 minutes. If a substance comes in contact with eyes, they should be rinsed for 15 minutes.

Which of the following classification works to alter the levels of chemical known as neurotransmitters in the brain?

Correct! Wrong!

Antidepressant agents help increase the levels of serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain. These agents may take 4 to 6 weeks to become effective. Antianxiety binds benzodiazepine receptors leading to CNS depression; Antiepileptic prevents abnormal impulses in the CNS by inhibiting one or more ions; Sedative are used to bring about a calming effect.

Which of the following is not a type of unit dose package system?

Correct! Wrong!

Cubie systems are used to help reduce the risk of a nurse selecting the wrong medication. It restricts access to only one medication at a time during the removal from an automated dispensing system. Unit dose provides a medication in its final unit of use; Modified are blister packaged; Blended combine used dose with non-unit dose.

Which reference material is a compilation of medication package inserts?

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Physician Desk Reference contains information from package inserts. Drug Facts and Comparison contains monographs about individual drugs. Handbook on Injectable Drugs contains information on stability and compatibility of injectable drugs. American Drug Index contains more than 20,000 entries on drugs and drug products.

Which of the following programs contain information on adverse events that have been reported to the FDA?

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The FDA Adverse Event Reporting System is a database that contains information on adverse events and mediation errors reports that have been submitted to the FDA. DEA oversees controlled substances. The Vaccine Adverse Reporting System is a national vaccine safety and surveillance administered by the FDA. Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee develops formulary for pharmacies in institutional settings.

A beyond use date would be found on which type of label?

Correct! Wrong!

Beyond use date are given by the pharmacy, and are found on unit dose label because these medications are repacked from a bulk container unto a unit dose form.

Which auxiliary label would be best placed on a suspension?

Correct! Wrong!

Shake well should be placed on a suspension since the solid is suspended in a liquid and will require shaking to combine both substances together for proper dosing.

Calculate the flow rate in gtt/min for a 3 L bag of 0.9% sodium using a drop factor of 20 gtt/ml, infused over 24 hours?

Correct! Wrong!

using the formula Total volume multiple by drip factor divided by time in minutes. 3000ml x 20 = 60,000 divided by 1440 (24 x 60) = 41.6 or 42 gtt/min

Which of the following is a strategy to prevent patient harm that involves identifying the most up to date list of all medications a patient is currently taking?

Correct! Wrong!

Medication reconciliation needs to be performed in all pharmacy settings to ensure that the patient is receiving the proper medication at all points, this way errors can be identified promptly . Automated dispensing system store medications and supplies to be accessed by nurses; Computerized physician order entry is used in institution by physicians to enter medication orders; Risk evaluation and mitigation is used when risks are significant enough to require additional product labeling.

A 500ml solution containing 30% of drug has 100ml of solution added. What is the final percentage strength?

Correct! Wrong!

Using the method initial strength(IS) x initial volume (IV) = Final strength (FS) x Final volume (FV) --------Change 30% to a decimal - 0.3 X 500 = (x) X 600ml = 0.25 (Change decimal to a percent by multiplying by 100) 25%

This Act requires states to establish drug use review programs?

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OBRA 90 consist of three components on which drug use review is screening for potential drug therapy problems before the prescription is filled. OBRA 87 established extensive revisions of Medicare and Medicaid Conditions of Participation regarding long term care facilities. Prescription Drug Marketing Act prohibits the reimportation of a drug illegally, and prevent counterfeit drugs. Poison Prevention Packaging Act requires all medication to be placed in childproof containers.

Which of the following is not a type of formulary?

Correct! Wrong!

Perpetual is a term used for inventory that reflects exactly what is on hand at any particular time. Open formulary has no limitation; closed have a solid list of medication; restricted a hybrid of both.

Which of the following identifies medications that may cause problems if taken simultaneously?

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Drug to drug interaction identifies medications that may cause adverse effects if taken together. Drug to food identifies medications and food that may cause problems if taken together; Drug to allergy cross checks patient records to identify drug allergies; Drug to disease identifies drugs that may cause problems with patient’s medical conditions.

Which of the following medication is not used to treat glaucoma?

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Ciprofloxacin is used to treat bacterial conjunctivitis. Latanoprost, Timolol, and Betaxolol are used to treat glaucoma used to reduce intraocular pressure.

Which of the following medication is not used to treat glaucoma?

Correct! Wrong!

H2 receptors uses the stem of -tidine, (famidine). H1 receptors uses -tadine (loratadine); Bronchodilators uses -terol (albuterol); Beta antagonist uses -olol (betaxolol)

According to the Medication Error Reporting and Prevention Categories, which of the following categories describes an error occurred that may have contributed to or resulted in temporary harm to patient and patient required intervention?

Correct! Wrong!

Category E results in temporary harm and requires intervention. Intervention may include change is therapy or active medical/surgical treatment. Category A – Circumstance have the potential to cause an error; Category C – error reached the patient but did not cause harm; Category D – error reached the patient, did not cause harm, but needed monitoring or intervention.

Which of the following terms assumes the cost at the earliest purchase of goods is the first to be recognized as the cost of the goods sold?

Correct! Wrong!

First in, first out assumes the cost at the earliest purchase of goods. Turnover rate is a ratio that measures the number of times on average the inventory sold during a period; Lower of cost inventory is slated at the lower of cost or market; Last in, first out assumes that the cost of the latest unit purchased are the first to be allocated to cost of goods sold.

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