Psychology Degree Psychological Disorders and Diagnosis Questions and Answers — Questions and Answers
Question 1: A 28-year-old client reports persistent, intrusive thoughts about contamination and feels compelled to wash their hands over 50 times a day. These rituals consume several hours daily and cause significant distress, making it difficult to maintain a job. Based on the DSM-5-TR, which diagnosis best fits this clinical presentation?
- Generalized Anxiety Disorder
- Specific Phobia, situational type
- Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (Correct answer)
- Body Dysmorphic Disorder
Correct answer: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
The correct diagnosis is Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD). The client's symptoms perfectly match the core criteria for OCD, which include the presence of obsessions (persistent, intrusive thoughts about contamination) and compulsions (repetitive hand-washing rituals). The DSM-5-TR specifies that these symptoms must be time-consuming (taking more than one hour a day) or cause clinically significant distress or impairment, both of which are present in this case.
Question 2: A major change from the DSM-IV-TR to the DSM-5 was the removal of the multiaxial system. What was a primary rationale for this change?
- To create a simpler diagnostic system that aligns more closely with the World Health Organization's International Classification of Diseases (ICD). (Correct answer)
- To reduce the influence of pharmaceutical companies on diagnostic criteria for personality disorders.
- To introduce a new, separate dimensional approach for all childhood developmental disorders.
- To simplify the diagnostic process primarily for insurance reimbursement and billing code purposes.
Correct answer: To create a simpler diagnostic system that aligns more closely with the World Health Organization's International Classification of Diseases (ICD).
The primary rationale for removing the multiaxial system was to harmonize the DSM with the World Health Organization's ICD, which does not use axes. This change aimed to create a more unified, global system for diagnosis and data collection. The DSM-5 combined the former Axes I, II, and III into a single list of diagnoses, while psychosocial and environmental factors (formerly Axis IV) and disability (formerly Axis V) are now noted separately using a nonaxial format.
Question 3: Which of the following is considered a 'negative' symptom of schizophrenia?
- Auditory hallucinations
- Delusional beliefs
- Disorganized speech
- Avolition (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Avolition
Avolition, a decrease in motivated, self-initiated, purposeful activities, is a negative symptom of schizophrenia. 'Negative' symptoms refer to the absence or reduction of normal functions. In contrast, auditory hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized speech are all 'positive' symptoms, which refer to the presence of abnormal thoughts or behaviors.
Question 4: A client describes experiencing sudden, intense episodes of overwhelming fear that peak within minutes. During these episodes, they experience a pounding heart, shortness of breath, and a fear of dying or losing control. They have begun to avoid places where they fear an episode might occur, such as crowded malls. The client's symptoms are most indicative of which disorder?
- Social Anxiety Disorder
- Panic Disorder (Correct answer)
- Generalized Anxiety Disorder
- Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
Correct answer: Panic Disorder
These symptoms are characteristic of Panic Disorder. According to the DSM-5-TR, Panic Disorder is diagnosed based on recurrent, unexpected panic attacks—abrupt surges of intense fear with multiple physical and cognitive symptoms—followed by at least one month of persistent concern about having another attack or significant maladaptive changes in behavior (like avoidance) related to the attacks.
Question 5: The diathesis-stress model is a widely used framework for understanding the etiology of psychological disorders. According to this model, a psychological disorder develops as a result of:
- A purely environmental or sociocultural influence with no biological component.
- The interaction between a pre-existing vulnerability and a significant life stressor. (Correct answer)
- A specific, identifiable genetic mutation that directly and solely causes the disorder's symptoms.
- A learned association between a neutral stimulus and a maladaptive response through conditioning.
Correct answer: The interaction between a pre-existing vulnerability and a significant life stressor.
The diathesis-stress model posits that individuals may have a 'diathesis,' or a predisposing vulnerability (which can be genetic, biological, or psychological), that remains latent until it is triggered by a 'stressor' from life experiences. The combination of the vulnerability and the stress leads to the manifestation of the disorder.
Question 6: Which of the following personality disorders is classified within Cluster B, a group often characterized by dramatic, emotional, or erratic behaviors?
- Paranoid Personality Disorder
- Avoidant Personality Disorder
- Narcissistic Personality Disorder (Correct answer)
- Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder
Correct answer: Narcissistic Personality Disorder
Narcissistic Personality Disorder is classified in Cluster B. The DSM-5-TR groups personality disorders into three clusters. Cluster B includes Antisocial, Borderline, Histrionic, and Narcissistic personality disorders, all characterized by dramatic, emotional, or erratic behavior. Paranoid PD is in Cluster A (odd, eccentric), while Avoidant PD and Obsessive-Compulsive PD are in Cluster C (anxious, fearful).
Psychology Degree Psychological Disorders and Diagnosis Questions and Answers
A 28-year-old client reports persistent, intrusive thoughts about contamination and feels compelled to wash their hands over 50 times a day.
These rituals consume several hours daily and cause significant distress, making it difficult to maintain a job.
Based on the DSM-5-TR, which diagnosis best fits this clinical presentation?