Psychology Board Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: What concept in Baltes' lifespan developmental theory refers to the idea that development involves both gains and losses at every age?

Plasticity
Historical embeddedness
Multidirectionality (Correct answer)
Contextualism

Correct answer: Multidirectionality

Multidirectionality is Baltes' principle that development is not purely growth or decline but involves simultaneous gains and losses throughout life.

Question 2: According to Baddeley's model of working memory, which component is responsible for integrating information from the phonological loop, visuospatial sketchpad, and long-term memory?

Inner scribe
Central executive
Phonological store
Episodic buffer (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Episodic buffer

The episodic buffer, added in 2000, serves as a temporary multidimensional store that integrates information across subsystems and links to long-term memory.

Question 3: What does the sympathetic nervous system primarily prepare the body to do?

Process sensory input from the environment
Regulate voluntary skeletal muscle movements
Conserve energy during periods of rest
Respond to perceived threats with fight-or-flight reactions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Respond to perceived threats with fight-or-flight reactions

The sympathetic nervous system mobilizes the body's resources for emergency situations by increasing heart rate, dilating pupils, and redirecting blood flow.

Question 4: Which term describes the cognitive process of grouping individual pieces of information into larger, meaningful units to expand effective working memory capacity?

Elaboration
Chunking (Correct answer)
Consolidation
Priming

Correct answer: Chunking

Chunking recodes multiple items into a single meaningful unit, effectively increasing the amount of information held in working memory.

Question 5: The phi phenomenon, in which stationary lights flashing in sequence create the perception of movement, is an example of:

Apparent motion and Gestalt principles (Correct answer)
Gestalt figure-ground principle
Bottom-up processing
Perceptual constancy

Correct answer: Apparent motion and Gestalt principles

The phi phenomenon, demonstrated by Wertheimer, shows how the brain (Gestalt) constructs the perception of continuous motion from discrete stimuli.

Question 6: What is the term for the tendency to recall information better when the emotional state at encoding matches the state at retrieval?

Mood-congruent memory (Correct answer)
Transfer-appropriate processing
Encoding specificity
State-dependent learning

Correct answer: Mood-congruent memory

Mood-congruent memory refers to the finding that people are more likely to recall memories that match their current emotional state.

Question 7: Which research method allows psychologists to establish cause-and-effect relationships?

Experiment (Correct answer)
Survey
Case study
Naturalistic observation

Correct answer: Experiment

Experiments manipulate an independent variable and control confounds, enabling causal conclusions.

Question 8: Which principle of Baltes' lifespan perspective holds that development can be modified through learning, practice, and environmental changes?

Plasticity (Correct answer)
Contextual influences
Multidimensionality
Lifelong development

Correct answer: Plasticity

Plasticity refers to the capacity for change and the idea that development is not fixed but can be altered through intervention, training, and new experiences.

Question 9: In Mary Ainsworth's "Strange Situation" experiment, an infant shows little distress when their mother leaves the room and actively avoids her upon her return, preferring to play with toys instead. This behavior is indicative of which attachment style?

Secure attachment
Insecure-avoidant attachment (Correct answer)
Insecure-resistant/ambivalent attachment
Disorganized attachment

Correct answer: Insecure-avoidant attachment

Insecure-avoidant attachment is characterized by an infant's apparent indifference to the caregiver's presence or absence. They show little distress when the caregiver leaves and do not seek comfort or contact upon their return, often because they have learned that attempts to signal needs are frequently ignored.

Question 10: Which of the following best describes 'expressed emotion' (EE) as a predictor of relapse in schizophrenia?

A patient's insight into their emotional dysregulation
The intensity of hallucinations and emotional content within delusions
The level of criticism, hostility, and emotional overinvolvement in family interactions (Correct answer)
The patient's ability to express their emotional experiences to the treatment team

Correct answer: The level of criticism, hostility, and emotional overinvolvement in family interactions

High expressed emotion—characterized by family members' critical comments, hostility, and emotional overinvolvement—is a robust predictor of relapse in schizophrenia and other disorders.

Question 11: Which stage of Erik Erikson's psychosocial development involves the conflict of identity versus role confusion?

Early adulthood
Late adulthood
Adolescence (Correct answer)
Middle childhood

Correct answer: Adolescence

Erikson identified adolescence as the stage where individuals struggle to establish a personal identity or risk experiencing role confusion.

Question 12: According to the DSM-5, which condition was reclassified from the anxiety disorders chapter to the obsessive-compulsive and related disorders chapter?

Social anxiety disorder
Body dysmorphic disorder (Correct answer)
Separation anxiety disorder
Illness anxiety disorder

Correct answer: Body dysmorphic disorder

Body dysmorphic disorder was moved to the obsessive-compulsive and related disorders chapter in the DSM-5 due to its phenomenological similarities with OCD.

Question 13: Which ethical principle requires that research participants understand the nature of a study and voluntarily agree to participate before the study begins?

Informed consent (Correct answer)
Deception justification
Debriefing
Confidentiality

Correct answer: Informed consent

Informed consent ensures participants know what they are agreeing to, protecting their autonomy before any research procedures begin.

Question 14: George Miller's famous '7 ± 2' finding refers to the capacity limit of which memory system?

Sensory (iconic) memory
Procedural memory
Long-term memory
Short-term (working) memory (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Short-term (working) memory

Miller (1956) showed that short-term memory can hold approximately 7 (±2) chunks of information at one time.

Question 15: A psychologist surveys 500 college students about their study habits and GPA. Which correlation coefficient indicates the strongest relationship?

r = 0.65
r = -0.42
r = -0.87 (Correct answer)
r = 0.15

Correct answer: r = -0.87

The strength of a correlation is determined by its absolute value, and 0.87 is the largest regardless of direction.

Question 16: Erik Erikson's theory of psychosocial development proposes that personality unfolds through how many stages across the lifespan?

Eight (Correct answer)
Six
Seven
Five

Correct answer: Eight

Erikson proposed eight psychosocial stages, each presenting a crisis (e.g., Trust vs. Mistrust) whose resolution shapes personality development from infancy through late adulthood.

Question 17: In cultural formulation, the DSM-5 concept of 'idioms of distress' refers to:

Culturally shared ways of expressing suffering that may not map onto DSM categories (Correct answer)
Culture-specific disorders that have no Western equivalent
The linguistic barriers that prevent accurate diagnosis across cultures
Protective cultural factors that reduce vulnerability to psychopathology

Correct answer: Culturally shared ways of expressing suffering that may not map onto DSM categories

Idioms of distress are culturally patterned expressions of suffering (e.g., 'nerves,' 'heart distress') that communicate distress within a cultural framework, which may overlap with but not correspond directly to DSM diagnoses.

Question 18: The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI-2) is primarily designed to assess which domain?

Psychopathology and personality disorders (Correct answer)
Career aptitude and vocational interests
Intelligence and cognitive ability
Emotional intelligence

Correct answer: Psychopathology and personality disorders

The MMPI-2 is one of the most widely used clinical tools for assessing psychopathology, personality disorders, and psychological distress.

Question 19: A Type II error in hypothesis testing occurs when a researcher:

Rejects a true null hypothesis
Collects too large a sample
Sets alpha too high
Fails to reject a false null hypothesis (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Fails to reject a false null hypothesis

A Type II error (false negative) means failing to detect a real effect — the null hypothesis is false but the researcher does not reject it.

Question 20: The 'bystander effect' is best explained by which two processes?

Deindividuation and reactance
Diffusion of responsibility and pluralistic ignorance (Correct answer)
Social loafing and group polarization
Conformity and obedience

Correct answer: Diffusion of responsibility and pluralistic ignorance

Bystanders fail to help because they assume others will act (diffusion) and look to others who also appear unconcerned (pluralistic ignorance).

Question 21: According to Craik and Lockhart's Levels of Processing theory, which of the following study methods would lead to the most durable memory trace for a list of vocabulary words?

Repeating the words and their definitions aloud multiple times.
Counting the number of vowels in each word.
Noting whether each word is written in uppercase or lowercase letters.
Generating a unique sentence for each word that uses it in a meaningful context. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Generating a unique sentence for each word that uses it in a meaningful context.

The Levels of Processing theory suggests that memory retention is a function of the depth of processing. Generating a sentence requires semantic processing (thinking about the word's meaning), which is a deep level of processing. This leads to a more robust and lasting memory compared to shallow processing methods like focusing on physical features (structural processing, e.g., letter case) or sound (phonemic processing, e.g., repetition).

Question 22: Self-determination theory identifies three basic psychological needs. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

Status (Correct answer)
Autonomy
Relatedness
Competence

Correct answer: Status

Deci and Ryan's self-determination theory identifies autonomy, competence, and relatedness as the three core psychological needs — not status.

Question 23: According to Urie Bronfenbrenner's ecological systems theory, which system represents the broader cultural values and laws that indirectly influence a child's development?

Mesosystem
Microsystem
Exosystem
Macrosystem (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Macrosystem

The macrosystem encompasses the overarching cultural values, customs, and laws that shape all other environmental systems in a child's development.

Question 24: What is the purpose of a manipulation check in an experimental study?

To assess whether participants liked the study
To test whether randomization worked
To verify the dependent variable was measured reliably
To confirm that the independent variable was successfully operationalized (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To confirm that the independent variable was successfully operationalized

A manipulation check is a separate measure confirming that the IV actually induced the intended psychological state or condition.

Question 25: The Belmont Report established three core ethical principles for research with human subjects. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

Justice
Replicability (Correct answer)
Respect for persons
Beneficence

Correct answer: Replicability

The Belmont Report's three principles are respect for persons, beneficence, and justice; replicability is a methodological standard, not an ethical principle.

Question 26: Which research design is most appropriate for studying whether childhood trauma causes adult anxiety disorders?

Meta-analysis
Cross-sectional survey
Prospective longitudinal study (Correct answer)
Case study

Correct answer: Prospective longitudinal study

A prospective longitudinal study follows participants over time, allowing researchers to track trauma exposure and later anxiety outcomes.

Question 27: In meta-analysis, what is publication bias?

The tendency to publish only studies with positive or significant results (Correct answer)
Preferring newer studies over older ones
Bias introduced by the lead author's theoretical orientation
Errors in how studies are coded for inclusion

Correct answer: The tendency to publish only studies with positive or significant results

Publication bias occurs because journals favor statistically significant results, causing the literature to overrepresent positive findings.

Question 28: Which sleep stage is most strongly associated with vivid dreaming and muscle atonia?

REM sleep (Correct answer)
Stage 2 NREM
Stage 1 NREM
Stage 3 (slow-wave) NREM

Correct answer: REM sleep

REM (rapid eye movement) sleep features vivid dreams and temporary paralysis of voluntary muscles, likely to prevent acting out dreams.

Question 29: What is the main advantage of using a double-blind procedure in an experiment?

It eliminates the need for informed consent
It reduces both experimenter bias and participant expectancy effects (Correct answer)
It ensures the study can be replicated
It increases the sample size

Correct answer: It reduces both experimenter bias and participant expectancy effects

In a double-blind procedure, neither the researcher nor the participant knows group assignment, minimizing bias from both parties.

Question 30: In the DSM-5, which disorder requires the presence of recurrent, unexpected panic attacks plus at least one month of persistent concern or behavioral change related to the attacks?

Generalized Anxiety Disorder
Panic Disorder (Correct answer)
Agoraphobia
Acute Stress Disorder

Correct answer: Panic Disorder

Panic Disorder is diagnosed when unexpected panic attacks are followed by at least one month of concern about future attacks or maladaptive behavior changes.

Question 31: Which sampling method is most likely to yield a representative sample of U.S. adults?

Convenience sampling from a university campus
Simple random sampling from a national registry (Correct answer)
Purposive sampling of clinical populations
Snowball sampling through social networks

Correct answer: Simple random sampling from a national registry

Simple random sampling gives every member of the target population an equal chance of selection, minimizing systematic bias.

Question 32: A student finds that they perform better on their final exam when they study in the same classroom where the lectures were held. This phenomenon is best explained by which of the following principles?

Ebbinghaus's Forgetting Curve
The Atkinson-Shiffrin Model
The Levels of Processing Theory
The Encoding Specificity Principle (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The Encoding Specificity Principle

The Encoding Specificity Principle, proposed by Tulving, states that memory retrieval is most effective when the conditions at the time of retrieval match the conditions at the time of encoding. In this scenario, the classroom environment serves as a contextual cue that was present during encoding (learning) and is now present during retrieval (the exam), thereby enhancing recall.

Question 33: Which of the following describes the ecological validity of a study?

Whether the sample adequately represents the population
Whether measures are consistent over time
Whether findings apply to real-world settings and behaviors (Correct answer)
Whether the study measures what it claims to measure

Correct answer: Whether findings apply to real-world settings and behaviors

Ecological validity concerns how well a study's conditions reflect real-world environments so that findings translate meaningfully to everyday life.

Question 34: Which brain structure plays a critical role in the consolidation of declarative memories?

Hippocampus (Correct answer)
Amygdala
Prefrontal cortex
Cerebellum

Correct answer: Hippocampus

The hippocampus is essential for converting short-term declarative memories into long-term storage, as damage to this structure severely impairs new memory formation.

Question 35: Which statistical test would be most appropriate for comparing the mean test scores of three different teaching methods?

Pearson correlation
Independent samples t-test
One-way ANOVA (Correct answer)
Chi-square test

Correct answer: One-way ANOVA

A one-way ANOVA is designed to compare means across three or more independent groups simultaneously.

Question 36: Which defense mechanism involves attributing one's own unacceptable feelings to another person?

Projection (Correct answer)
Rationalization
Displacement
Sublimation

Correct answer: Projection

Projection involves unconsciously attributing one's own threatening impulses or feelings to someone else.

Question 37: In information-processing theory applied to lifespan development, what happens to processing speed during late adulthood?

It generally declines, affecting reaction time and cognitive tasks (Correct answer)
It significantly increases due to accumulated experience
It remains stable throughout the entire lifespan
It fluctuates randomly with no predictable pattern

Correct answer: It generally declines, affecting reaction time and cognitive tasks

Research consistently shows that cognitive processing speed declines in late adulthood, which can slow performance on timed tasks and complex problem-solving.

Question 38: Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is primarily responsible for processing visual information?

Parietal lobe
Occipital lobe (Correct answer)
Temporal lobe
Frontal lobe

Correct answer: Occipital lobe

The occipital lobe, located at the back of the brain, contains the primary visual cortex and is the main center for processing visual information.

Question 39: Which of the following is the best example of a confounding variable?

A mediating variable in a causal chain
The dependent variable measured at posttest
A variable that varies systematically with the IV and also affects the DV (Correct answer)
Random error in measurement instruments

Correct answer: A variable that varies systematically with the IV and also affects the DV

A confound co-varies with the independent variable and independently influences the dependent variable, threatening internal validity.

Question 40: Which component of Baddeley and Hitch's working memory model is responsible for coordinating the activity of the other slave systems and allocating attentional resources?

Visuo-Spatial Sketchpad
Phonological Loop
Episodic Buffer
Central Executive (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Central Executive

The Central Executive is the primary component of the working memory model. It functions as a supervisory system that controls and coordinates the other components (the phonological loop, visuo-spatial sketchpad, and episodic buffer). It is responsible for focusing attention, switching between tasks, and interfacing with long-term memory.

Question 41: Which term describes the unconscious influence of prior experience on current task performance, without intentional recollection?

Implicit memory (Correct answer)
Explicit memory
Prospective memory
Autobiographical memory

Correct answer: Implicit memory

Implicit memory influences behavior without conscious awareness, as seen in priming, procedural learning, and conditioned responses.

Question 42: A therapist uses systematic desensitization to treat a client's phobia. This technique is rooted in which learning principle?

Operant conditioning
Observational learning
Classical conditioning (Correct answer)
Latent learning

Correct answer: Classical conditioning

Systematic desensitization pairs relaxation (a conditioned response) with feared stimuli to gradually counter-condition the anxiety response.

Question 43: Interview following a research

Prediction
Theory
Debriefing (Correct answer)
Survey

Correct answer: Debriefing

Debriefing is an essential ethical procedure conducted after a research study, particularly when deception has been used or potential distress might have occurred. During debriefing, participants are fully informed about the true purpose of the study, any deceptions employed, and the hypotheses being tested. This process ensures participants leave the study with a clear understanding of their involvement and helps to alleviate any potential negative impacts.

Question 44: Albert Bandura's concept of self-efficacy refers to:

Emotional regulation through cognitive reappraisal
The tendency to attribute success only to internal factors
The drive to fulfill basic biological needs
One's belief in their capacity to execute behaviors necessary to produce specific outcomes (Correct answer)

Correct answer: One's belief in their capacity to execute behaviors necessary to produce specific outcomes

Self-efficacy is a person's confidence in their own ability to perform a specific task or achieve a particular goal, which directly influences motivation and persistence.

Question 45: According to social identity theory, what is the primary motivation behind in-group favoritism?

Maintaining positive self-esteem through group membership (Correct answer)
Economic competition for resources
Fear of out-group aggression
Obedience to group leaders

Correct answer: Maintaining positive self-esteem through group membership

Social identity theory posits that people favor their in-group because their group membership contributes to their self-concept and self-esteem.

Question 46: In classical conditioning, what is the term for a previously neutral stimulus that now elicits a conditioned response?

Unconditioned stimulus
Conditioned stimulus (Correct answer)
Unconditioned response
Conditioned response

Correct answer: Conditioned stimulus

A conditioned stimulus is a formerly neutral stimulus that, after being paired with an unconditioned stimulus, comes to trigger a conditioned response.

Question 47: Which type of neuron carries signals from the central nervous system to muscles and glands?

Sensory (afferent) neurons
Mirror neurons
Motor (efferent) neurons (Correct answer)
Interneurons

Correct answer: Motor (efferent) neurons

Motor neurons transmit impulses from the brain and spinal cord to effector organs such as muscles and glands to produce responses.

Question 48: Milgram's obedience studies found that a majority of participants were willing to administer what they believed were severe electric shocks primarily because of:

Personal aggression
Obedience to a legitimate authority figure (Correct answer)
Peer pressure from other participants
Financial incentives

Correct answer: Obedience to a legitimate authority figure

Milgram showed that situational authority — represented by a researcher in a lab coat — powerfully overrides personal moral judgment.

Question 49: An investigator observes children on a playground and records the frequency of aggressive behaviors. To prevent their own expectations from influencing how they interpret and record the behaviors, they use a detailed checklist of specific actions (e.g., 'pushes another child,' 'takes a toy without asking'). This strategy is primarily intended to minimize which type of bias?

The placebo effect
Observer bias (Correct answer)
Sampling bias
Demand characteristics

Correct answer: Observer bias

Observer bias occurs when a researcher's expectations or personal beliefs unintentionally influence their observations or recordings. Using a clear, objective checklist with operational definitions for behaviors helps to standardize the data collection process and reduces the potential for subjective interpretations to skew the results.

Question 50: Cognitive dissonance theory, proposed by Leon Festinger, states that people are motivated to reduce discomfort caused by:

Failure to achieve goals
Social rejection
Unmet biological needs
Holding contradictory beliefs or behaviors (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Holding contradictory beliefs or behaviors

Festinger showed that inconsistency between attitudes and behaviors creates psychological tension that people resolve by changing one element.

Question 51: Which theory proposes that forgetting occurs because memory traces fade over time without rehearsal, rather than because of interference from other memories?

Encoding failure theory
Interference theory
Motivated forgetting theory
Decay theory (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Decay theory

Decay theory attributes forgetting to the gradual fading of the memory trace (engram) due to the passage of time and disuse.

Question 52: A witness to a crime is having trouble remembering specific details. However, when the detective asks them to describe the weather and how they were feeling that day, the witness begins to recall more information. The detective is leveraging a concept related to:

Procedural memory
State-dependent memory (Correct answer)
Semantic memory
Flashbulb memory

Correct answer: State-dependent memory

State-dependent memory is a phenomenon where recall is improved when an individual is in the same internal state (e.g., emotional, physiological) as they were when the memory was formed. By prompting the witness to recall their feelings (internal state) and the weather (external context), the detective is helping to recreate the conditions of the original encoding, which can trigger recall.

Question 53: Which ethical principle requires that researchers treat all participants fairly and distribute research benefits and burdens equitably?

Justice (Correct answer)
Autonomy
Nonmaleficence
Beneficence

Correct answer: Justice

The principle of justice requires fair selection of participants and equitable distribution of research risks and benefits across groups.

Question 54: Which brain structure is most closely associated with processing fear responses and emotional memories?

Hippocampus
Cerebellum
Prefrontal cortex
Amygdala (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Amygdala

The amygdala plays a central role in detecting threatening stimuli and generating fear responses, and is critical for emotional memory formation.

Question 55: Which of the following scenarios BEST illustrates Lev Vygotsky's concept of the Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD)?

A child learns to tie their shoelaces with the guidance and step-by-step instructions from a parent. (Correct answer)
A toddler learns to walk by imitating the actions of their older sibling without any direct help.
A student can solve complex algebra problems on their own after completing the prerequisite geometry course.
A child who has mastered basic addition begins to work on subtraction problems independently.

Correct answer: A child learns to tie their shoelaces with the guidance and step-by-step instructions from a parent.

The Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) refers to the difference between what a learner can do without help and what they can achieve with guidance and encouragement from a skilled partner. Learning to tie shoes with a parent's help is a perfect example of a task within the ZPD, as the child accomplishes it with the assistance of a 'more knowledgeable other'.

Question 56: In Tulving's distinction between episodic and semantic memory, which type stores general world knowledge independent of personal experience?

Autobiographical memory
Procedural memory
Episodic memory
Semantic memory (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Semantic memory

Semantic memory contains context-free factual knowledge (e.g., 'Paris is the capital of France') not tied to any specific personal episode of learning.

Question 57: A 16-year-old is struggling with defining their personal values, political beliefs, and career aspirations. They frequently change their style of dress and social groups, trying to figure out where they 'fit in.' According to Erik Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, which central conflict is this adolescent experiencing?

Industry vs. Inferiority
Identity vs. Role Confusion (Correct answer)
Initiative vs. Guilt
Intimacy vs. Isolation

Correct answer: Identity vs. Role Confusion

Erikson's fifth stage, Identity vs. Role Confusion, occurs during adolescence (ages 12-18). This stage is characterized by the exploration of personal identity, beliefs, and goals. Successfully navigating this conflict results in a strong sense of self, while failure leads to confusion about one's role in the world. The other options represent different stages in Erikson's theory.

Question 58: Which statistical measure indicates the strength and direction of a linear relationship between two variables?

Chi-square value
T-test statistic
Standard deviation
Correlation coefficient (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Correlation coefficient

The correlation coefficient (r) ranges from -1 to +1, indicating both the direction and magnitude of a linear relationship between variables.

Question 59: Which DSM-5 criterion requires that a psychological disorder cause significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning?

Criterion B
Criterion A
The functional impairment criterion (Correct answer)
The duration criterion

Correct answer: The functional impairment criterion

The functional impairment criterion is a core DSM-5 requirement ensuring that symptoms produce meaningful disruption in a person's daily life.

Question 60: The James-Lange theory of emotion proposes that:

Cognitive appraisal alone determines emotional experience
Physiological arousal precedes and causes the subjective feeling of emotion (Correct answer)
Emotions occur before physiological arousal
Emotions and physiological arousal occur simultaneously

Correct answer: Physiological arousal precedes and causes the subjective feeling of emotion

James-Lange theory holds that we first experience a physiological change (e.g., racing heart), and our interpretation of that change produces the subjective emotion.

Question 61: Carl Rogers' humanistic theory centers on which core therapeutic condition for healthy personality development?

Operant reinforcement
Cognitive restructuring
Systematic desensitization
Unconditional positive regard (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Unconditional positive regard

Rogers believed unconditional positive regard—accepting a person without judgment—is essential for healthy self-concept and personal growth.

Question 62: Which DSM-5 category includes Hoarding Disorder and Excoriation (Skin-Picking) Disorder?

Impulse-Control Disorders
Anxiety Disorders
Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders (Correct answer)
Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders

Correct answer: Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders

DSM-5 created a new chapter, Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders, which includes OCD, Body Dysmorphic Disorder, Hoarding Disorder, Trichotillomania, and Excoriation Disorder.

Question 63: What is the role of myelin in neural transmission?

It produces neurotransmitters at the synapse
It generates action potentials at the cell body
It removes excess neurotransmitters from the synaptic cleft
It speeds up the conduction of electrical impulses along the axon (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It speeds up the conduction of electrical impulses along the axon

Myelin is a fatty insulating sheath that enables saltatory conduction, significantly increasing the speed of nerve impulse transmission.

Question 64: Which cognitive bias causes people to believe they knew an outcome all along after learning the result?

Hindsight bias (Correct answer)
Confirmation bias
Availability heuristic
Anchoring bias

Correct answer: Hindsight bias

Hindsight bias is the tendency to perceive past events as having been more predictable than they actually were once the outcome is known.

Question 65: Spreading activation theory explains how:

Working memory allocates resources to multiple tasks
Emotional memories are prioritized over neutral ones
Activating one concept in semantic memory increases activation of related concepts (Correct answer)
Sleep consolidates declarative memory traces

Correct answer: Activating one concept in semantic memory increases activation of related concepts

In semantic network models, activating one node spreads activation along associative links to related nodes, facilitating retrieval of related concepts.

Question 66: Which research design is most appropriate for establishing the temporal precedence needed for causal inference?

Archival research
Randomized controlled experiment (Correct answer)
Case study
Cross-sectional survey

Correct answer: Randomized controlled experiment

Randomized controlled experiments manipulate the independent variable before measuring the outcome, establishing temporal order and enabling stronger causal inference.

Question 67: A split-brain patient has an image flashed to the left visual field only. Which outcome is most likely?

The patient cannot verbally name the object but can pick it out with the left hand (Correct answer)
The patient will have no awareness of the image at all
The patient can write the name of the object with the right hand
The patient can verbally identify the object immediately

Correct answer: The patient cannot verbally name the object but can pick it out with the left hand

Information from the left visual field goes to the right hemisphere, which lacks language centers, so the patient cannot name it verbally but can identify it through touch with the left hand.

Question 68: Which personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affect, along with marked impulsivity?

Antisocial Personality Disorder
Histrionic Personality Disorder
Borderline Personality Disorder (Correct answer)
Narcissistic Personality Disorder

Correct answer: Borderline Personality Disorder

Borderline Personality Disorder features unstable relationships, identity disturbance, impulsivity, and intense emotional dysregulation.

Question 69: In a double-blind study, who is unaware of the treatment condition?

Only the participants
Both participants and the researchers interacting with them (Correct answer)
The IRB reviewing the study
Only the researchers

Correct answer: Both participants and the researchers interacting with them

Double-blind means neither the participants nor the researchers administering the treatment know who is in which condition.

Question 70: A client describes experiencing sudden, intense episodes of overwhelming fear that peak within minutes. During these episodes, they experience a pounding heart, shortness of breath, and a fear of dying or losing control. They have begun to avoid places where they fear an episode might occur, such as crowded malls. The client's symptoms are most indicative of which disorder?

Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
Panic Disorder (Correct answer)
Social Anxiety Disorder
Generalized Anxiety Disorder

Correct answer: Panic Disorder

These symptoms are characteristic of Panic Disorder. According to the DSM-5-TR, Panic Disorder is diagnosed based on recurrent, unexpected panic attacks—abrupt surges of intense fear with multiple physical and cognitive symptoms—followed by at least one month of persistent concern about having another attack or significant maladaptive changes in behavior (like avoidance) related to the attacks.

Question 71: Observer drift in behavioral research refers to:

Participants changing behavior when observed
Attrition of observers from the research team
Measurement error due to faulty equipment
Coders gradually shifting their application of coding criteria over time (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Coders gradually shifting their application of coding criteria over time

Observer drift occurs when raters unconsciously change their standards over the course of a study, reducing measurement consistency.

Question 72: In Latané and Darley's research on bystander intervention, which factor most directly explains why individuals fail to act in large groups?

Group polarization
Social loafing
Deindividuation
Diffusion of responsibility (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Diffusion of responsibility

Diffusion of responsibility occurs when individuals in a group each assume someone else will take action, reducing personal accountability.

Question 73: Which neurotransmitter system is most implicated in the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia?

Mesolimbic and mesocortical pathways show excess and deficit respectively (Correct answer)
GABAergic pathways are uniformly underactive
Serotonergic pathways are uniformly overactive
Noradrenergic pathways are dysregulated in prefrontal cortex

Correct answer: Mesolimbic and mesocortical pathways show excess and deficit respectively

The revised dopamine hypothesis posits excess dopaminergic activity in mesolimbic pathways (positive symptoms) and reduced activity in mesocortical pathways (negative/cognitive symptoms).

Question 74: The 'encoding specificity principle' (Tulving & Thomson, 1973) predicts that recall will be best when:

Retrieval cues match conditions present at encoding (Correct answer)
Items are presented in random order
Emotional arousal at retrieval is high
More time is spent on rehearsal

Correct answer: Retrieval cues match conditions present at encoding

Memory retrieval is maximized when the cues available at retrieval match the context present when the memory was originally encoded.

Question 75: Which psychologist proposed the psychosocial theory of development with eight stages spanning from infancy to late adulthood?

Sigmund Freud
Erik Erikson (Correct answer)
Jean Piaget
Lev Vygotsky

Correct answer: Erik Erikson

Erik Erikson developed the psychosocial theory consisting of eight stages, each centered on a specific conflict that must be resolved for healthy personality development.

Question 76: The motor symptoms of Parkinson's disease, such as tremors, rigidity, and difficulty initiating movement, are primarily caused by the death of neurons that produce which neurotransmitter?

GABA
Acetylcholine
Serotonin
Dopamine (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Dopamine

Parkinson's disease is characterized by the progressive loss of dopamine-producing neurons in a midbrain area called the substantia nigra. Dopamine is a key neurotransmitter for coordinating smooth, controlled movements, and its deficiency leads to the classic motor symptoms of the disease.

Question 77: Which of the following best describes the concept of neuroplasticity?

The brain can reorganize itself by forming new neural connections throughout life (Correct answer)
The brain stops developing after adolescence
Neural pathways are fixed at birth
Only damaged brains can form new connections

Correct answer: The brain can reorganize itself by forming new neural connections throughout life

Neuroplasticity refers to the brain's ability to reorganize its structure, functions, and connections in response to learning, experience, or injury throughout the entire lifespan.

Question 78: Which psychologist conducted the famous 'Little Albert' experiment demonstrating that fear could be classically conditioned in humans?

B.F. Skinner
Ivan Pavlov
Edward Thorndike
John B. Watson (Correct answer)

Correct answer: John B. Watson

John B. Watson and Rosalie Rayner conditioned infant Albert to fear a white rat by pairing it with a loud noise.

Question 79: Which theory of motivation proposes that behavior is driven by the need to reduce internal states of tension caused by biological needs?

Self-determination theory
Incentive theory
Drive reduction theory (Correct answer)
Expectancy theory

Correct answer: Drive reduction theory

Drive reduction theory, proposed by Clark Hull, suggests that biological needs create drives (tension states) that motivate behavior to restore homeostasis.

Question 80: The finest definition of psychology is the study of?

the mind and behavior. (Correct answer)
mental health.
consciousness and intuition.
learning and developmental delay.

Correct answer: the mind and behavior.

Psychology is scientifically defined as the study of behavior and mental processes. 'Behavior' refers to any observable action, while 'mental processes' encompass internal experiences such as thoughts, feelings, perceptions, and memories, which collectively constitute the 'mind.' This comprehensive definition highlights psychology's dual focus on both outward actions and internal cognitive states.

Question 81: Which concept explains why minority group members are sometimes judged more harshly for the same behavior exhibited by majority group members?

The social double standard
The black sheep effect
The ultimate attribution error (Correct answer)
The contrast effect

Correct answer: The ultimate attribution error

The ultimate attribution error describes the tendency to make dispositional attributions for minority group members' negative behavior while attributing their positive behavior to luck or special circumstances.

Question 82: The DSM-5 diagnostic criterion requiring that symptoms cause significant distress or impairment is called the:

Clinical significance criterion (Correct answer)
Duration threshold
Exclusion criterion
Etiology criterion

Correct answer: Clinical significance criterion

The clinical significance criterion ensures symptoms rise to the level of functional impairment before a diagnosis is made.

Question 83: In the diathesis-stress model, 'diathesis' refers to:

A biological or psychological predisposition to a disorder (Correct answer)
The severity of symptoms at onset
An environmental stressor that triggers a disorder
The genetic heritability of a condition

Correct answer: A biological or psychological predisposition to a disorder

Diathesis is a pre-existing vulnerability (genetic, biological, or psychological) that, combined with environmental stress, can lead to the development of a disorder.

Question 84: Which memory model proposes that information is processed at different levels ranging from shallow to deep?

Atkinson-Shiffrin model
Levels of processing framework (Correct answer)
Working memory model
Parallel distributed processing model

Correct answer: Levels of processing framework

Craik and Lockhart's levels of processing framework suggests that deeper semantic processing leads to stronger memory traces than shallow structural processing.

Question 85: A researcher finds that as ice cream sales increase, drowning rates also increase. This most likely reflects:

Drowning causes ice cream sales
A third variable (hot weather) causes both (Correct answer)
Random sampling error
Ice cream causes drowning

Correct answer: A third variable (hot weather) causes both

This classic example illustrates spurious correlation — hot weather drives both ice cream consumption and swimming (drowning risk), making them correlated without causation.

Question 86: The facial feedback hypothesis proposes that:

Cultural rules determine which emotions are recognized
Emotions are determined solely by environmental cues
Facial expressions can influence the subjective experience of emotion (Correct answer)
Physiological arousal always precedes emotional awareness

Correct answer: Facial expressions can influence the subjective experience of emotion

The facial feedback hypothesis suggests that feedback from facial muscles can shape emotional experience itself — for example, smiling can increase feelings of happiness.

Question 87: Which cognitive bias leads people to overweight information that easily comes to mind when making judgments?

Confirmation bias
Availability heuristic (Correct answer)
Anchoring bias
Representativeness heuristic

Correct answer: Availability heuristic

The availability heuristic causes people to judge likelihood based on how easily examples come to mind, often leading to errors in probability estimation.

Question 88: The 'two-factor theory' of fear acquisition (Mowrer, 1947) involves which two processes?

Observational learning and habituation
Sensitization and extinction
Classical conditioning and operant conditioning (Correct answer)
Operant conditioning and cognitive restructuring

Correct answer: Classical conditioning and operant conditioning

Mowrer's two-factor theory proposes that fear is acquired through classical conditioning (CS-US pairing) and maintained through operant conditioning (avoidance reduces fear, negatively reinforcing the avoidance behavior).

Question 89: The DSM-5 'with psychotic features' specifier can be applied to which mood disorder episodes?

Only hypomanic episodes in Bipolar II Disorder
Both Major Depressive Episodes and Manic/Mixed Episodes (Correct answer)
Only manic episodes in Bipolar I Disorder
Only Major Depressive Episodes

Correct answer: Both Major Depressive Episodes and Manic/Mixed Episodes

The 'with psychotic features' specifier can be applied to both Major Depressive Episodes and Manic Episodes (not hypomanic episodes, as hypomania by definition excludes psychosis).

Question 90: A patient presents with difficulty in producing fluent, articulate speech, though their ability to comprehend language remains intact. This condition, known as Broca's aphasia, is most likely caused by damage to which lobe of the cerebral cortex?

Parietal Lobe
Frontal Lobe (Correct answer)
Occipital Lobe
Temporal Lobe

Correct answer: Frontal Lobe

Broca's area, a crucial region for speech production, is located in the left frontal lobe. Damage to this area leads to expressive aphasia (Broca's aphasia), where an individual understands language but struggles to form and articulate words.

Question 91: A researcher uses a matched-pairs design by pairing participants on IQ before assigning them to conditions. The primary goal is to:

Increase the overall sample size needed
Increase the study's ecological validity
Ensure all participants receive the same treatment
Reduce error variance by controlling a potential confound (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Reduce error variance by controlling a potential confound

Matching on a variable like IQ removes that variable's contribution to error variance, making it easier to detect the true effect of the independent variable.

Question 92: A child's development is negatively affected when their parent's employer eliminates flextime and paid parental leave. The child has no direct interaction with the workplace, but the stress and changes in the parent's schedule impact the child's home life. According to Urie Bronfenbrenner's ecological systems theory, which system does the parent's workplace represent?

Exosystem (Correct answer)
Macrosystem
Microsystem
Mesosystem

Correct answer: Exosystem

The exosystem consists of settings that do not directly involve the developing person but still affect their experiences in their immediate settings. The parent's workplace is a classic example because policies and stressors there can indirectly influence the child's development, even though the child is not present in that environment.

Question 93: Once the U.S. The "Doll Test," conducted by the University of Chicago Law School, had a significant impact on the Supreme Court's decision to overturn statutes allowing segregated schools while it was considering whether to mandate schools to integrate black and white students.

Kenneth Clark and Mamie Phipps Clark. (Correct answer)
Mary Cover Jones.
B. F. Skinner.
Francis Sumner.

Correct answer: Kenneth Clark and Mamie Phipps Clark.

Kenneth Clark and Mamie Phipps Clark were pioneering African American psychologists whose 'Doll Test' research demonstrated the psychological harm of segregation on Black children. Their findings, showing that Black children often preferred white dolls and associated positive traits with them, were cited in the landmark 1954 Supreme Court case Brown v. Board of Education, which declared state-sponsored segregation in public schools unconstitutional.

Question 94: Prospective memory refers to the ability to:

Recall the source of a remembered fact
Remember past emotional experiences with high accuracy
Project current knowledge backward to reconstruct past events
Remember to perform an intended action in the future (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Remember to perform an intended action in the future

Prospective memory involves forming an intention and later remembering to execute it at the appropriate time or in the appropriate context.

Question 95: Which brain structure plays the most critical role in the formation of new explicit long-term memories?

Prefrontal cortex
Amygdala
Cerebellum
Hippocampus (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hippocampus

The hippocampus is essential for consolidating new explicit memories from short-term to long-term storage, as demonstrated by the famous case of patient H.M. who lost this ability after bilateral hippocampal removal.

Question 96: According to Freud's psychosexual theory, unresolved conflict during the oral stage may result in adult behaviors such as:

Difficulty with authority figures
Excessive dependency or aggression involving the mouth (Correct answer)
Sexual identity confusion
Compulsive orderliness and stubbornness

Correct answer: Excessive dependency or aggression involving the mouth

Freud linked oral stage fixation to adult behaviors like smoking, overeating, or excessive dependency, all centering on oral gratification.

Question 97: A student studies for a final exam in a quiet, brightly lit library. According to the encoding specificity principle, under which of the following conditions is the student most likely to achieve the best recall of the material?

Taking the exam in a noisy cafeteria
Taking the exam at home while listening to music
Taking the exam in a dimly lit auditorium
Taking the exam in a quiet, brightly lit classroom (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Taking the exam in a quiet, brightly lit classroom

The encoding specificity principle states that memory recall is most effective when the conditions at the time of retrieval match the conditions at the time of encoding. Since the student encoded the information in a quiet, brightly lit environment, they are most likely to recall it best in a similar setting.

Question 98: When is deception ethically permissible in psychological research according to APA guidelines?

When the scientific value justifies it and a full debriefing follows (Correct answer)
Whenever it increases participant engagement
Only when the study has no risks whatsoever
Deception is never permissible under APA ethics

Correct answer: When the scientific value justifies it and a full debriefing follows

APA permits deception only when the research has significant scientific value, cannot be done otherwise, and participants are fully debriefed afterward.

Question 99: The research conducted by Loftus and Palmer (1974), in which participants' estimates of a car's speed were influenced by the verb used in the question (e.g., 'smashed' vs. 'contacted'), provided strong evidence for the:

Tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon
Misinformation effect (Correct answer)
Levels of processing theory
Decay theory of forgetting

Correct answer: Misinformation effect

Loftus and Palmer's classic study is a key demonstration of the misinformation effect, showing that post-event information (in this case, a leading question with a suggestive verb) can be incorporated into the memory of the event, thereby altering the recollection. Participants who heard the word 'smashed' not only gave higher speed estimates but were also more likely to falsely remember seeing broken glass.

Question 100: What is the primary purpose of counterbalancing in within-subjects designs?

To eliminate demand characteristics
To increase sample size
To ensure random assignment
To control for order and carryover effects (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To control for order and carryover effects

Counterbalancing varies the order of conditions across participants to prevent order and carryover effects from confounding results.

Psychology Board Exam

The Psychology Board Exam exam validates essential knowledge and skills required for certification or licensure in this field.

100

Questions

120 min

Time Limit

70%

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