PSTAR - Pre-Solo Test of Air Regulations — Questions and Answers

Question 1: What is the significance of a temperature-dewpoint spread of 2°C or less?

Thunderstorm development imminent
High probability of fog or low clouds forming (Correct answer)
Severe turbulence likely
Good flying conditions with high visibility

Correct answer: High probability of fog or low clouds forming

When temperature and dewpoint are within 2°C of each other, the air is near saturation and fog or low cloud formation is likely.

Question 2: Prior to starting each maneuver, pilot should?

Visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance. (Correct answer)
Which altitude, airspeed and heading indications.
Announce their intension on the nearest CTAF.

Correct answer: Visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.

Pilots should visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance before starting each maneuver. This is important to ensure that there are no other aircraft or obstacles in the vicinity that could pose a risk a collision. Checking altitude, airspeed and heading indications is also important, but the primary focus should be on visually scanning the area to maintain situational awareness and prevent potential collisions. Announcing intensions on the nearest CTAF is not directly related to collision avoidance and is more relevant for communication with other pilots in the vicinity.

Question 3: What is a Military Operations Area (MOA)?

Designated airspace for military training activities — VFR flight allowed but with caution (Correct answer)
Prohibited airspace where no civilian aircraft may enter
Restricted airspace requiring ATC clearance
An area with special weather reporting requirements

Correct answer: Designated airspace for military training activities — VFR flight allowed but with caution

MOAs are designated for military training — VFR flight is legal but pilots should be aware of high-speed military aircraft in the area.

Question 4: Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include?

A study of arrival procedures at airports/heliports of intended use.
The designation of an alternate airport
An alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: An alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

Preflight action for all flights, particularly those that move away from the vicinity of the initial airport, requires comprehensive planning that includes developing alternate courses of action in case the flight cannot proceed as initially planned. This includes considerations for unexpected weather, mechanical issues or airspace restrictions that might necessitate changes during the flight. Such preparedness ensures safety and flexibility in responding to in-flight contingencies.

Question 5: What minimum pilot certificate is required to operate within Class B airspace?

Private pilot certificate (or student with specific endorsement) (Correct answer)
Recreational pilot certificate
Student pilot certificate with endorsement
Sport pilot certificate

Correct answer: Private pilot certificate (or student with specific endorsement)

Class B airspace requires at least a private pilot certificate, except student pilots with a specific logbook endorsement for the specific Class B area.

Question 6: On a sectional chart, what does a number in a box with a 'T' symbol indicate?

Tower height above MSL (Correct answer)
Terrain elevation
True airspeed at that point
Temporary restricted area

Correct answer: Tower height above MSL

A tower symbol on a sectional chart with a number above the T-icon shows the tower's height above mean sea level (MSL) with AGL height in parentheses.

Question 7: What squawk code should be entered when ATC assigns no specific code and the flight is VFR?

7600
7500
1200 (Correct answer)
0000

Correct answer: 1200

Squawk 1200 is the standard VFR code in the US — it tells ATC the aircraft is flying VFR without a specific ATC assignment.

Question 8: What are Warning Areas in relation to US airspace?

Areas near nuclear power plants
Airspace offshore the US coast with military activities that may be hazardous to civilian aircraft (Correct answer)
Domestic restricted areas near military bases
Areas with frequent bird strikes

Correct answer: Airspace offshore the US coast with military activities that may be hazardous to civilian aircraft

Warning Areas extend from 3 NM offshore and contain military activities that may pose hazards, but unlike restricted areas, the US has no authority to prohibit civilian flight there.

Question 9: What does it mean when an aircraft is 'cleared' into Class B airspace?

The transponder is coded for Class B
The pilot has confirmed the weather is VFR
The pilot has checked for NOTAMs
ATC has specifically authorized that aircraft to enter and operate in the Class B area (Correct answer)

Correct answer: ATC has specifically authorized that aircraft to enter and operate in the Class B area

A Class B clearance is an explicit ATC authorization specific to that aircraft — without hearing your call sign and the word 'cleared,' you may not enter.

Question 10: An airplane said to be inherently stable will?

Requires less effort to control
Be difficult to stall.
Not spin. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Not spin.

An airplane that is inherently stable means that it naturally tends to maintain its desired flight path without much input from the pilot. This stability reduces the need for constant adjustments and corrections, resulting in the airplane requiring less effort to control.

Question 11: Which class of medical certificate is the minimum required for a student pilot to exercise solo flight privileges in a powered airplane?

Second-Class medical certificate
First-Class medical certificate
No medical certificate is required
Third-Class medical certificate (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Third-Class medical certificate

Per FAR 61.23, a Third-Class medical certificate is the minimum required for student pilot operations in a powered airplane.

Question 12: What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?

Permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed.
Provides a smoother operation with stable RPM and eliminates vibrations.
Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.

A consultant the-speed propeller allows the to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance. This means that he pilot can adjust the propeller to optimize the engine's power output and fuel efficiency based on the current flight conditions. By selecting the most appropriate blade angle, the pilot can ensure that the propeller is operating at its most efficient level, resulting in better overall performance of the aircraft.

Question 13: What type of airspace surrounds most major US airline hub airports?

Class B (Correct answer)
Class D
Class C
Class E

Correct answer: Class B

Class B airspace surrounds the nation's busiest commercial airports, designed as an upside-down wedding cake of controlled airspace.

Question 14: What type of fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?

Unleaded automotive gas of the same octane rating
The next lower octane aviation gas.
The next higher-octane aviation gas. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The next higher-octane aviation gas.

If the recommended octane fuel is not available for an aircraft, the next higher-octane aviation gas can used as a substitute. This is because higher octane fuel has a higher resistance to detonation, which is important for aircraft engines to prevent engine knocking or pinging. Using a lower-octane fuel could potentially cause engine damage or performance issues. Therefore, using the next higher-octane aviation gas ensures the proper functioning and safety of the aircraft.

Question 15: When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable):

After one-half the battery's useful life. (Correct answer)
Every 24 calendar months
During each annual and 100-hour inspection

Correct answer: After one-half the battery's useful life.

The correct answer is after one-half the battery's useful life. The battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) must be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable) after it has reached half of its useful life. This ensures that the ELT remains operational and reliable in case of an aging battery. It is important to regularly maintain and replace the ELT battery to ensure its effectiveness and compliance with safety regulations.

Question 16: How long is a Third-Class medical certificate valid for a pilot who was under 40 years of age on the date of the medical examination?

12 calendar months
36 calendar months
60 calendar months (Correct answer)
24 calendar months

Correct answer: 60 calendar months

Per FAR 61.23, a Third-Class medical certificate is valid for 60 calendar months for holders who were under age 40 on the date of their exam.

Question 17: How many total flight hours does FAR 61.109 require an applicant to log before being eligible for a private pilot certificate in an airplane?

20 hours
40 hours (Correct answer)
35 hours
50 hours

Correct answer: 40 hours

FAR 61.109 requires a minimum of 40 flight hours for a private pilot certificate in an airplane, including at least 20 hours of flight training and 10 hours of solo flight.

Question 18: What is the minimum age required to obtain a student pilot certificate for powered aircraft under FAR 61.83?

15 years of age
16 years of age (Correct answer)
17 years of age
14 years of age

Correct answer: 16 years of age

FAR 61.83 requires an applicant for a student pilot certificate in powered aircraft to be at least 16 years of age.

Question 19: What are the standard VFR weather minimums in Class E airspace above 10,000 feet MSL?

3 miles, clear of clouds
5 miles, 1000-1000-2000 clearance (Correct answer)
3 miles, 500-1000-2000 clearance
1 mile, clear of clouds

Correct answer: 5 miles, 1000-1000-2000 clearance

Above 10,000 feet MSL in Class E airspace, VFR requires 5 miles visibility and 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, 1 mile horizontally from clouds.

Question 20: What is a TFR in aviation?

Terminal Flight Route
Temporary Flight Restriction (Correct answer)
Terminal Frequency Reservation
Traffic Flow Regulation

Correct answer: Temporary Flight Restriction

A TFR (Temporary Flight Restriction) restricts all aircraft from operating in a defined airspace area for reasons such as VIP movements, disasters, or special events.

Question 21: What does 'PAN-PAN' signal in a radio transmission?

A routine position report
A life-threatening emergency
An urgent situation that requires assistance but is not immediately life-threatening (Correct answer)
A request for weather information

Correct answer: An urgent situation that requires assistance but is not immediately life-threatening

PAN-PAN (repeated three times) indicates an urgent situation requiring assistance, less critical than a MAYDAY but needing priority handling.

Question 22: Which leg of the traffic pattern is flown parallel to the runway in the direction of landing?

Crosswind leg
Base leg
Downwind leg (Correct answer)
Final leg

Correct answer: Downwind leg

The downwind leg is flown parallel to the runway in the opposite direction of landing at pattern altitude.

Question 23: Under what general weather conditions is a student pilot permitted to conduct solo flights?

Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC), and night VMC with a specific night endorsement (Correct answer)
Student pilots are restricted to daytime VFR only, never night
Any conditions approved verbally by the CFI before the flight
Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) only

Correct answer: Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC), and night VMC with a specific night endorsement

Student pilots may fly solo at night if they receive a specific night endorsement from their CFI, but are always restricted to VFR/VMC conditions.

Question 24: What ceiling and visibility are required for Special VFR (SVFR) in the lateral boundaries of a Class D airport?

Ceiling 1,000 feet, visibility 1 mile
Ceiling 500 feet, visibility 1 mile
Ceiling 3,000 feet, visibility 3 miles
At least 1 mile visibility, clear of clouds (Correct answer)

Correct answer: At least 1 mile visibility, clear of clouds

Special VFR allows flight within Class D airspace with 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds — below standard VFR minimums with ATC clearance.

Question 25: What is the minimum age requirement to fly solo as a student pilot in the United States?

14 years old
17 years old
16 years old (Correct answer)
18 years old

Correct answer: 16 years old

FAA regulations require a student pilot to be at least 16 years old to fly solo in a powered aircraft.

Question 26: What does a NOTAM stand for and what is its purpose?

Notice of Temporary Airspace Modification
National Operations Terminal Air Memorandum
Notice to Airmen — informing of changes or hazards affecting aviation (Correct answer)
National Operational Terminal Advisory Manual

Correct answer: Notice to Airmen — informing of changes or hazards affecting aviation

NOTAM (Notice to Airmen) is an official notice distributed to pilots about changes in airspace, navigation aids, procedures, or hazards.

PSTAR - Pre-Solo Test of Air Regulations

The PSTAR is a Transport Canada written exam required for Canadian student pilots before their first solo flight, testing knowledge of aviation regulations, airspace classification, air traffic rules, and pilot responsibilities. Candidates must score 90% (45/50) to pass.

Questions

45 min

Time Limit

90%

To Pass

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