PSTAR - Pre-Solo Test of Air Regulations — Questions and Answers

Question 1: What does the term 'ROGER' mean in aviation radio communications?

I understand your message
I have received all of your last transmission (Correct answer)
Affirmative
I will comply with your instructions

Correct answer: I have received all of your last transmission

ROGER means the pilot has received all of the last transmission — it does not mean agreement or compliance.

Question 2: What does a dashed magenta circle on a sectional chart indicate?

Class E airspace starting at the surface (Correct answer)
Class D airspace
Restricted area
Military operations area

Correct answer: Class E airspace starting at the surface

A dashed magenta circle on a sectional chart indicates Class E airspace that extends to the surface at that airport.

Question 3: What are the VFR cruising altitude rules for flights above 3,000 feet AGL on magnetic courses 0–179 degrees?

Odd thousands
Even thousands plus 500 feet
Even thousands
Odd thousands plus 500 feet (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Odd thousands plus 500 feet

On eastbound courses (0–179°), VFR aircraft must fly at odd thousands plus 500 feet (e.g., 3,500, 5,500).

Question 4: What does 'dead reckoning' mean in navigation?

Using GPS as the primary navigation tool
Using radar vectors from ATC
Calculating position based on known speed, heading, and time from a known starting point (Correct answer)
Following ground references visually

Correct answer: Calculating position based on known speed, heading, and time from a known starting point

Dead reckoning calculates current position by starting from a known point and applying heading, airspeed, and elapsed time with wind correction.

Question 5: What wind condition is associated with a mountain wave?

Strong winds blowing perpendicular to a mountain ridge (Correct answer)
Winds parallel to mountain ranges
Light variable winds
Calm winds at all altitudes

Correct answer: Strong winds blowing perpendicular to a mountain ridge

Mountain waves form when strong winds blow perpendicular (across) a mountain ridge, creating wave oscillations on the leeward side.

Question 6: What is the dewpoint?

The temperature at which air becomes saturated and condensation begins (Correct answer)
The temperature at which water freezes
The temperature of the ground surface
The maximum temperature reached during the day

Correct answer: The temperature at which air becomes saturated and condensation begins

The dewpoint is the temperature at which air becomes saturated (100% relative humidity), causing condensation or fog to form.

Question 7: What are the standard VFR weather minimums in Class E airspace above 10,000 feet MSL?

5 miles, 1000-1000-2000 clearance (Correct answer)
3 miles, 500-1000-2000 clearance
1 mile, clear of clouds
3 miles, clear of clouds

Correct answer: 5 miles, 1000-1000-2000 clearance

Above 10,000 feet MSL in Class E airspace, VFR requires 5 miles visibility and 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, 1 mile horizontally from clouds.

Question 8: What equipment is required to operate in Class B airspace?

Only a transponder
Two-way radio, transponder with Mode C, and ATC clearance (Correct answer)
Only a radio
No special equipment required

Correct answer: Two-way radio, transponder with Mode C, and ATC clearance

Class B airspace requires a two-way radio, an ATC clearance to enter, and a transponder with altitude encoding (Mode C).

Question 9: What is the primary cause of wind shear near the ground?

High cloud cover
Low barometric pressure
Temperature inversion (Correct answer)
High humidity

Correct answer: Temperature inversion

A temperature inversion traps cold air near the ground and creates a sharp boundary where wind speed and direction can change dramatically.

Question 10: A student pilot begins flying a solo flight but encounters flight conditions not specified in the CFI's endorsement. What does this situation legally constitute?

An emergency that triggers different FAR protections
An acceptable deviation if the student uses good judgment
A violation of FAR 61.87 by operating outside authorized conditions (Correct answer)
A training opportunity that requires only a logbook notation

Correct answer: A violation of FAR 61.87 by operating outside authorized conditions

Operating outside the conditions specified in a CFI's endorsement violates FAR 61.87, as endorsements are authorization-specific to stated conditions.

Question 11: What is the recommended procedure for an engine failure immediately after takeoff?

Apply full power and climb steeply
Climb to 1,000 feet then turn back
Land straight ahead or with minimal turns within the available field (Correct answer)
Attempt to turn back to the runway at any altitude

Correct answer: Land straight ahead or with minimal turns within the available field

Engine failure after takeoff is best handled by landing straight ahead or with shallow turns — attempting to return to the runway at low altitude is typically fatal.

Question 12: Which leg of the traffic pattern is flown parallel to the runway in the direction of landing?

Base leg
Crosswind leg
Final leg
Downwind leg (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Downwind leg

The downwind leg is flown parallel to the runway in the opposite direction of landing at pattern altitude.

Question 13: What is a TFR in aviation?

Traffic Flow Regulation
Terminal Frequency Reservation
Terminal Flight Route
Temporary Flight Restriction (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Temporary Flight Restriction

A TFR (Temporary Flight Restriction) restricts all aircraft from operating in a defined airspace area for reasons such as VIP movements, disasters, or special events.

Question 14: What is the upper limit of Class G airspace in the contiguous US when no other designation applies?

1,200 feet AGL (Correct answer)
10,000 feet MSL
700 feet AGL
18,000 feet MSL

Correct answer: 1,200 feet AGL

In most areas, Class G airspace extends from the surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL, where Class E airspace typically begins.

Question 15: Which direction should the traffic pattern be flown unless otherwise specified?

Counter-clockwise (left turns) (Correct answer)
Clockwise (right turns)
Either direction
Straight-in only

Correct answer: Counter-clockwise (left turns)

Standard traffic patterns use left turns unless a right-hand traffic pattern is specifically published.

Question 16: What are Warning Areas in relation to US airspace?

Airspace offshore the US coast with military activities that may be hazardous to civilian aircraft (Correct answer)
Areas near nuclear power plants
Domestic restricted areas near military bases
Areas with frequent bird strikes

Correct answer: Airspace offshore the US coast with military activities that may be hazardous to civilian aircraft

Warning Areas extend from 3 NM offshore and contain military activities that may pose hazards, but unlike restricted areas, the US has no authority to prohibit civilian flight there.

Question 17: What is a VOR?

A type of airport beacon
A GPS-based navigation system
A VHF Omnidirectional Range ground station used for navigation (Correct answer)
A visual reference for approaches

Correct answer: A VHF Omnidirectional Range ground station used for navigation

A VOR (VHF Omnidirectional Range) is a ground-based radio navigation station that transmits 360 radials for aircraft navigation.

Question 18: What minimum pilot certificate is required to operate within Class B airspace?

Recreational pilot certificate
Sport pilot certificate
Student pilot certificate with endorsement
Private pilot certificate (or student with specific endorsement) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Private pilot certificate (or student with specific endorsement)

Class B airspace requires at least a private pilot certificate, except student pilots with a specific logbook endorsement for the specific Class B area.

Question 19: What are the VFR weather minimums in Class G airspace below 1,200 feet AGL during the day?

3 miles visibility, clear of clouds
3 miles visibility, 500-1000-2000 cloud clearances
1 mile visibility, clear of clouds (Correct answer)
5 miles visibility, 1000-1000-2000

Correct answer: 1 mile visibility, clear of clouds

In Class G airspace below 1,200 feet AGL during the day, the minimums are 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.

Question 20: Before authorizing a student's first solo flight, the certificated flight instructor must certify in the student's logbook that the student:

Is proficient to make a safe solo flight (Correct answer)
Has logged at least 10 hours of dual flight time
Has passed the FAA private pilot written knowledge test
Holds a valid instrument rating waiver

Correct answer: Is proficient to make a safe solo flight

Per FAR 61.87, the CFI must certify in the student's logbook that the student is proficient to make a safe solo flight before issuing the endorsement.

Question 21: What is a SIGMET?

A routine weather observation
A forecast for significant meteorological conditions hazardous to all aircraft (Correct answer)
A pilot weather report
A surface analysis chart

Correct answer: A forecast for significant meteorological conditions hazardous to all aircraft

A SIGMET (Significant Meteorological Information) warns of weather conditions that are hazardous to all aircraft, such as severe turbulence or icing.

Question 22: What ceiling and visibility are required for Special VFR (SVFR) in the lateral boundaries of a Class D airport?

Ceiling 500 feet, visibility 1 mile
At least 1 mile visibility, clear of clouds (Correct answer)
Ceiling 3,000 feet, visibility 3 miles
Ceiling 1,000 feet, visibility 1 mile

Correct answer: At least 1 mile visibility, clear of clouds

Special VFR allows flight within Class D airspace with 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds — below standard VFR minimums with ATC clearance.

Question 23: What are Prohibited Areas?

Temporary restricted areas near wildfires
Airspace where flight is not recommended
Airspace where no aircraft may fly for national security or safety reasons (Correct answer)
Airspace that requires ATC clearance

Correct answer: Airspace where no aircraft may fly for national security or safety reasons

Prohibited Areas are designated airspace where flight is not permitted under any circumstances, typically for national security (e.g., over the White House).

Question 24: What does 'PAN-PAN' signal in a radio transmission?

A routine position report
An urgent situation that requires assistance but is not immediately life-threatening (Correct answer)
A request for weather information
A life-threatening emergency

Correct answer: An urgent situation that requires assistance but is not immediately life-threatening

PAN-PAN (repeated three times) indicates an urgent situation requiring assistance, less critical than a MAYDAY but needing priority handling.

Question 25: What does the term 'say again' mean in aviation radio communications?

Repeat your last transmission (Correct answer)
Confirm your intentions
Acknowledge the last message
Proceed with the last clearance

Correct answer: Repeat your last transmission

SAY AGAIN is the standard aviation phrase requesting that the previous transmission be repeated.

Question 26: What is a 'near mid-air collision' and when must it be reported?

Any traffic conflict — report to ATC immediately
Only collisions that result in damage — report to NTSB
Any flight within 1 mile of another aircraft — report within 24 hours to the FAA
Any incident where collision avoidance was necessary and risk of mid-air collision existed — file a NMAC report (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Any incident where collision avoidance was necessary and risk of mid-air collision existed — file a NMAC report

A NMAC (Near Mid-Air Collision) is any incident where evasive action was required or a risk of collision existed — filed voluntarily via FAA Form 8020-9.

PSTAR - Pre-Solo Test of Air Regulations

The PSTAR is a Transport Canada written exam required for Canadian student pilots before their first solo flight, testing knowledge of aviation regulations, airspace classification, air traffic rules, and pilot responsibilities. Candidates must score 90% (45/50) to pass.

Questions

45 min

Time Limit

90%

To Pass

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