PSTAR - Pre-Solo Test of Air Regulations — Questions and Answers

Question 1: An airplane said to be inherently stable will?

Requires less effort to control
Not spin. (Correct answer)
Be difficult to stall.

Correct answer: Not spin.

An airplane that is inherently stable means that it naturally tends to maintain its desired flight path without much input from the pilot. This stability reduces the need for constant adjustments and corrections, resulting in the airplane requiring less effort to control.

Question 2: When must aircraft position lights be illuminated?

Only in Class B airspace
Sunset to sunrise (Correct answer)
Only during IFR conditions
Only when other aircraft are in the vicinity

Correct answer: Sunset to sunrise

FAR 91.209 requires aircraft to display position lights from sunset to sunrise.

Question 3: Which direction should the traffic pattern be flown unless otherwise specified?

Counter-clockwise (left turns) (Correct answer)
Straight-in only
Either direction
Clockwise (right turns)

Correct answer: Counter-clockwise (left turns)

Standard traffic patterns use left turns unless a right-hand traffic pattern is specifically published.

Question 4: Under current FAA regulations, when does a student pilot certificate issued after April 1, 2016 expire?

It does not expire unless surrendered, suspended, or revoked (Correct answer)
24 calendar months from the month of issue
36 calendar months from the month of issue
Upon the holder's 40th birthday

Correct answer: It does not expire unless surrendered, suspended, or revoked

Following the 2016 regulatory change to FAR 61.83, student pilot certificates no longer have a fixed expiration date and remain valid until surrendered, suspended, revoked, or superseded by a higher-level certificate.

Question 5: What does the term 'NORDO' refer to in aviation?

No radar contact
No radio communication capability (Correct answer)
No departure clearance
No instrument flight rules

Correct answer: No radio communication capability

NORDO means an aircraft has no radio communication capability or its radio has failed.

Question 6: What does squawk code 7700 indicate?

Radio failure
Military intercept
General emergency (Correct answer)
Hijacking emergency

Correct answer: General emergency

Squawk 7700 is the emergency transponder code that alerts ATC to a general emergency aboard the aircraft.

Question 7: What is required to operate within Class C airspace?

ATC clearance, Mode C transponder, and two-way radio
Only ATC clearance
Two-way radio communication established and Mode C transponder (Correct answer)
Only a Mode C transponder

Correct answer: Two-way radio communication established and Mode C transponder

Class C requires two-way radio communication with approach control and a Mode C transponder — no explicit clearance needed, just communication.

Question 8: If the pilot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?

The altimeter, airspeed indicator and vertical speed (Correct answer)
The altimeter, attitude indicator and turn and slip indicator.
The altimeter, airspeed and turn-and slip

Correct answer: The altimeter, airspeed indicator and vertical speed

If the pilot tube and outside static vents become clogged, it would affect the altimeter, airspeed indicator and vertical speed indicator. The pilot tube measures the dynamic pressure of the air to determine the airspeed, while the static vents measure the static pressure of the air to determine the altitude and vertical speed. If these instruments are unable to receive accurate pressure readings due to clogging, their readings would be affected.

Question 9: What is the minimum age requirement to fly solo as a student pilot in the United States?

16 years old (Correct answer)
14 years old
17 years old
18 years old

Correct answer: 16 years old

FAA regulations require a student pilot to be at least 16 years old to fly solo in a powered aircraft.

Question 10: What type of chart is most commonly used for VFR cross-country navigation in the United States?

Sectional Aeronautical Chart (Correct answer)
IFR En Route Low Altitude chart
World Aeronautical Chart
Terminal Area Chart

Correct answer: Sectional Aeronautical Chart

Sectional Aeronautical Charts at a scale of 1:500,000 are the standard chart for VFR navigation, showing terrain, airspace, and navigation aids.

Question 11: What is the freezing level?

The altitude at which the temperature equals 0°C (Correct answer)
The altitude above which all water is frozen
The surface temperature at which ice forms
The altitude where precipitation freezes on the ground

Correct answer: The altitude at which the temperature equals 0°C

The freezing level is the altitude in the atmosphere where the temperature equals 0°C (32°F).

Question 12: Class A airspace in the US begins at what altitude?

18,000 feet MSL (Correct answer)
24,000 feet MSL
14,500 feet MSL
10,000 feet MSL

Correct answer: 18,000 feet MSL

Class A airspace begins at 18,000 feet MSL and extends to FL600, requiring IFR flight and ATC clearance.

Question 13: What is the maximum speed permitted below 10,000 feet MSL in the contiguous United States?

250 knots (Correct answer)
300 knots
200 knots
350 knots

Correct answer: 250 knots

FAR 91.117 limits all aircraft to 250 knots indicated airspeed below 10,000 feet MSL.

Question 14: What type of fog forms when warm, moist air moves over a cooler surface?

Advection fog (Correct answer)
Radiation fog
Upslope fog
Steam fog

Correct answer: Advection fog

Advection fog forms when warm, moist air is transported horizontally over a cooler surface, cooling the air to its dewpoint.

Question 15: What is the proper way to state the time 1435 UTC in a radio transmission?

Fourteen thirty-five
Fourteen hours, thirty-five minutes
Quarter to three
One-four-three-five (Correct answer)

Correct answer: One-four-three-five

Times in aviation radio communications are stated digit by digit: 'One-four-three-five' to avoid confusion with similar-sounding numbers.

Question 16: What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft:

Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current biennial flight review.
An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required. (Correct answer)
A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience.

Correct answer: An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.

The correct answer is an appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required. This is because as the pilot in command of an aircraft, it is necessary to have a valid pilot certificate that allows you to operate the specific type of aircraft. Additionally, if the pilot is required to have a medical certificate based on their age or the type of flight operation, they must also have a current medical certificate in their possession. These documents are essential for ensuring that the pilot is qualified and medically fit to operate the aircraft safely.

Question 17: What is the floor of Class E airspace associated with a magenta-shaded area on a sectional chart?

1,200 feet AGL
Surface
700 feet AGL (Correct answer)
3,000 feet MSL

Correct answer: 700 feet AGL

A magenta shaded area on a sectional chart indicates Class E airspace with a floor at 700 feet AGL, typically near airports with instrument approaches.

Question 18: What type of airspace is depicted by a blue or magenta cross-hatched area on a sectional chart?

Warning area
Restricted area
Military operations area
Alert area (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Alert area

Alert areas are depicted with magenta cross-hatching and indicate high volumes of pilot training or unusual aerial activity that requires pilot caution.

Question 19: A student pilot begins flying a solo flight but encounters flight conditions not specified in the CFI's endorsement. What does this situation legally constitute?

An emergency that triggers different FAR protections
A violation of FAR 61.87 by operating outside authorized conditions (Correct answer)
A training opportunity that requires only a logbook notation
An acceptable deviation if the student uses good judgment

Correct answer: A violation of FAR 61.87 by operating outside authorized conditions

Operating outside the conditions specified in a CFI's endorsement violates FAR 61.87, as endorsements are authorization-specific to stated conditions.

Question 20: What minimum pilot certificate is required to operate within Class B airspace?

Recreational pilot certificate
Sport pilot certificate
Student pilot certificate with endorsement
Private pilot certificate (or student with specific endorsement) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Private pilot certificate (or student with specific endorsement)

Class B airspace requires at least a private pilot certificate, except student pilots with a specific logbook endorsement for the specific Class B area.

Question 21: What are the VFR cruising altitude rules for flights above 3,000 feet AGL on magnetic courses 0–179 degrees?

Odd thousands
Odd thousands plus 500 feet (Correct answer)
Even thousands plus 500 feet
Even thousands

Correct answer: Odd thousands plus 500 feet

On eastbound courses (0–179°), VFR aircraft must fly at odd thousands plus 500 feet (e.g., 3,500, 5,500).

Question 22: Under what general weather conditions is a student pilot permitted to conduct solo flights?

Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC), and night VMC with a specific night endorsement (Correct answer)
Student pilots are restricted to daytime VFR only, never night
Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) only
Any conditions approved verbally by the CFI before the flight

Correct answer: Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC), and night VMC with a specific night endorsement

Student pilots may fly solo at night if they receive a specific night endorsement from their CFI, but are always restricted to VFR/VMC conditions.

Question 23: What does it mean when an aircraft is 'cleared' into Class B airspace?

The pilot has checked for NOTAMs
ATC has specifically authorized that aircraft to enter and operate in the Class B area (Correct answer)
The transponder is coded for Class B
The pilot has confirmed the weather is VFR

Correct answer: ATC has specifically authorized that aircraft to enter and operate in the Class B area

A Class B clearance is an explicit ATC authorization specific to that aircraft — without hearing your call sign and the word 'cleared,' you may not enter.

Question 24: What equipment is required to operate in Class B airspace?

Only a radio
Two-way radio, transponder with Mode C, and ATC clearance (Correct answer)
Only a transponder
No special equipment required

Correct answer: Two-way radio, transponder with Mode C, and ATC clearance

Class B airspace requires a two-way radio, an ATC clearance to enter, and a transponder with altitude encoding (Mode C).

Question 25: What is the purpose of the compass deviation card in an aircraft?

It indicates the aircraft's heading limits
It tracks fuel consumption
It shows compass error corrections caused by aircraft magnetic fields (Correct answer)
It records the variation for the flight area

Correct answer: It shows compass error corrections caused by aircraft magnetic fields

The deviation card shows corrections for compass errors caused by magnetic fields within the aircraft itself, unique to each aircraft.

Question 26: What is the dewpoint?

The temperature at which air becomes saturated and condensation begins (Correct answer)
The maximum temperature reached during the day
The temperature of the ground surface
The temperature at which water freezes

Correct answer: The temperature at which air becomes saturated and condensation begins

The dewpoint is the temperature at which air becomes saturated (100% relative humidity), causing condensation or fog to form.

Question 27: What type of icing is most hazardous because it accumulates rapidly and is difficult to remove?

Mixed ice
Clear ice (Correct answer)
Frost
Rime ice

Correct answer: Clear ice

Clear ice (also called glaze ice) is most hazardous because large supercooled water droplets spread before freezing, creating a heavy, clear accumulation that disrupts airflow.

Question 28: What is a TFR in aviation?

Terminal Flight Route
Terminal Frequency Reservation
Temporary Flight Restriction (Correct answer)
Traffic Flow Regulation

Correct answer: Temporary Flight Restriction

A TFR (Temporary Flight Restriction) restricts all aircraft from operating in a defined airspace area for reasons such as VIP movements, disasters, or special events.

Question 29: What is the upper limit of Class G airspace in the contiguous US when no other designation applies?

10,000 feet MSL
700 feet AGL
1,200 feet AGL (Correct answer)
18,000 feet MSL

Correct answer: 1,200 feet AGL

In most areas, Class G airspace extends from the surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL, where Class E airspace typically begins.

Question 30: What does squawk code 7600 indicate?

Radio communication failure (Correct answer)
Emergency
Hijacking
Special VFR operation

Correct answer: Radio communication failure

Squawk 7600 indicates two-way radio communication failure — the aircraft's transponder shows this code to alert ATC.

Question 31: What are the VFR weather minimums in Class G airspace below 1,200 feet AGL during the day?

5 miles visibility, 1000-1000-2000
3 miles visibility, 500-1000-2000 cloud clearances
1 mile visibility, clear of clouds (Correct answer)
3 miles visibility, clear of clouds

Correct answer: 1 mile visibility, clear of clouds

In Class G airspace below 1,200 feet AGL during the day, the minimums are 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.

Question 32: When ATC issues a squawk code, what does the pilot do?

Enter the four-digit code into the aircraft's transponder (Correct answer)
Transmit the code on the radio
Write the code in the flight log
Display the code on the aircraft exterior

Correct answer: Enter the four-digit code into the aircraft's transponder

A squawk code is entered into the aircraft's transponder, allowing radar to identify and track the specific aircraft.

Question 33: What does a NOTAM stand for and what is its purpose?

Notice of Temporary Airspace Modification
National Operational Terminal Advisory Manual
National Operations Terminal Air Memorandum
Notice to Airmen — informing of changes or hazards affecting aviation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Notice to Airmen — informing of changes or hazards affecting aviation

NOTAM (Notice to Airmen) is an official notice distributed to pilots about changes in airspace, navigation aids, procedures, or hazards.

Question 34: What type of fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?

The next higher-octane aviation gas. (Correct answer)
The next lower octane aviation gas.
Unleaded automotive gas of the same octane rating

Correct answer: The next higher-octane aviation gas.

If the recommended octane fuel is not available for an aircraft, the next higher-octane aviation gas can used as a substitute. This is because higher octane fuel has a higher resistance to detonation, which is important for aircraft engines to prevent engine knocking or pinging. Using a lower-octane fuel could potentially cause engine damage or performance issues. Therefore, using the next higher-octane aviation gas ensures the proper functioning and safety of the aircraft.

Question 35: What are Prohibited Areas?

Temporary restricted areas near wildfires
Airspace where no aircraft may fly for national security or safety reasons (Correct answer)
Airspace where flight is not recommended
Airspace that requires ATC clearance

Correct answer: Airspace where no aircraft may fly for national security or safety reasons

Prohibited Areas are designated airspace where flight is not permitted under any circumstances, typically for national security (e.g., over the White House).

Question 36: What does the acronym 'ARROW' stand for as required aircraft documents?

Annual, Radio, Registration, Operations, Winds
Airworthiness, Registration, Radio license, Operating handbook, Weight and balance
Airworthiness certificate, Registration, Radio station license, Operating limitations, Weight and balance (Correct answer)
Annual inspection, Registration, Radio, Operating limits, Weight data

Correct answer: Airworthiness certificate, Registration, Radio station license, Operating limitations, Weight and balance

ARROW stands for Airworthiness certificate, Registration certificate, Radio station license (international flights), Operating limitations, and Weight and balance data.

Question 37: Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include?

The designation of an alternate airport
A study of arrival procedures at airports/heliports of intended use.
An alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: An alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

Preflight action for all flights, particularly those that move away from the vicinity of the initial airport, requires comprehensive planning that includes developing alternate courses of action in case the flight cannot proceed as initially planned. This includes considerations for unexpected weather, mechanical issues or airspace restrictions that might necessitate changes during the flight. Such preparedness ensures safety and flexibility in responding to in-flight contingencies.

Question 38: What is the maximum speed allowed within 4 nautical miles of a Class C or D airport below 2,500 feet AGL?

150 knots
300 knots
200 knots (Correct answer)
250 knots

Correct answer: 200 knots

FAR 91.117 limits aircraft to 200 knots when within 4 NM of a Class C or D airport below 2,500 feet AGL.

Question 39: Which of the following is a student pilot absolutely prohibited from doing during a solo flight under FAR 61.89?

Landing at an airport other than the departure airport
Practicing touch-and-go landings
Requesting flight following from ATC
Carrying a passenger in the aircraft (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Carrying a passenger in the aircraft

FAR 61.89 explicitly prohibits student pilots from carrying passengers under any circumstances, regardless of endorsements.

Question 40: What type of airspace surrounds most major US airline hub airports?

Class D
Class B (Correct answer)
Class E
Class C

Correct answer: Class B

Class B airspace surrounds the nation's busiest commercial airports, designed as an upside-down wedding cake of controlled airspace.

Question 41: How many total flight hours does FAR 61.109 require an applicant to log before being eligible for a private pilot certificate in an airplane?

50 hours
20 hours
35 hours
40 hours (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 40 hours

FAR 61.109 requires a minimum of 40 flight hours for a private pilot certificate in an airplane, including at least 20 hours of flight training and 10 hours of solo flight.

Question 42: What does METAR stand for?

Meteorological Aerodrome Report (Correct answer)
Monthly Environmental Terminal Air Report
Multi-Engine Terminal Airfield Report
Meteorological Evaluation Terminal and Review

Correct answer: Meteorological Aerodrome Report

METAR stands for Meteorological Aerodrome Report — it is the standard aviation surface weather observation format.

Question 43: Which class of airspace does NOT exist at the surface?

Class C
Class E when not designated to the surface (Correct answer)
Class B
Class D

Correct answer: Class E when not designated to the surface

Class E airspace in most areas begins at either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL — it exists at the surface only where specifically designated.

Question 44: What does FAR 91.107 require regarding safety belts?

Only the PIC must wear a safety belt
Safety belts are optional for all occupants
Safety belts required only during IFR flight
All occupants must wear safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: All occupants must wear safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing

FAR 91.107 requires all occupants to be briefed on seat belt use and to have them fastened during taxi, takeoff, and landing.

Question 45: What is a Military Operations Area (MOA)?

Designated airspace for military training activities — VFR flight allowed but with caution (Correct answer)
An area with special weather reporting requirements
Prohibited airspace where no civilian aircraft may enter
Restricted airspace requiring ATC clearance

Correct answer: Designated airspace for military training activities — VFR flight allowed but with caution

MOAs are designated for military training — VFR flight is legal but pilots should be aware of high-speed military aircraft in the area.

Question 46: On a sectional chart, what does a number in a box with a 'T' symbol indicate?

Temporary restricted area
True airspeed at that point
Tower height above MSL (Correct answer)
Terrain elevation

Correct answer: Tower height above MSL

A tower symbol on a sectional chart with a number above the T-icon shows the tower's height above mean sea level (MSL) with AGL height in parentheses.

Question 47: What ceiling and visibility are required for Special VFR (SVFR) in the lateral boundaries of a Class D airport?

At least 1 mile visibility, clear of clouds (Correct answer)
Ceiling 500 feet, visibility 1 mile
Ceiling 1,000 feet, visibility 1 mile
Ceiling 3,000 feet, visibility 3 miles

Correct answer: At least 1 mile visibility, clear of clouds

Special VFR allows flight within Class D airspace with 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds — below standard VFR minimums with ATC clearance.

Question 48: What are the standard VFR weather minimums in Class E airspace above 10,000 feet MSL?

3 miles, 500-1000-2000 clearance
3 miles, clear of clouds
5 miles, 1000-1000-2000 clearance (Correct answer)
1 mile, clear of clouds

Correct answer: 5 miles, 1000-1000-2000 clearance

Above 10,000 feet MSL in Class E airspace, VFR requires 5 miles visibility and 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, 1 mile horizontally from clouds.

Question 49: A steady red light signal from ATC to an aircraft in flight means:

Give way and continue circling
Cleared to land
Return to starting point on the airport
Airport unsafe — do not land (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Airport unsafe — do not land

A steady red light to an aircraft in flight means the airport is unsafe and the aircraft should not land.

Question 50: What does a pilot report (PIREP) provide?

Real-time weather conditions observed by pilots in flight (Correct answer)
Official weather forecasts from the NWS
Radar data from ground-based systems
Surface weather observations from airports

Correct answer: Real-time weather conditions observed by pilots in flight

A PIREP is a weather report made by a pilot in flight, providing real-time observations of actual conditions encountered.

PSTAR - Pre-Solo Test of Air Regulations

The PSTAR is a Transport Canada written exam required for Canadian student pilots before their first solo flight, testing knowledge of aviation regulations, airspace classification, air traffic rules, and pilot responsibilities. Candidates must score 90% (45/50) to pass.

Questions

90 min

Time Limit

90%

To Pass

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