PSB Aptitude for Practical Nursing Examination (PSB-PN) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A practical nurse is preparing to take a patient's blood pressure. Which site is the standard first-choice location for this measurement?

Popliteal artery behind the knee
Radial artery at the wrist
Femoral artery in the groin
Brachial artery in the upper arm (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Brachial artery in the upper arm

The brachial artery in the upper arm is the standard site for blood pressure measurement because it is at heart level and easily accessible.

Question 2: What should be the first action when a new regulation is enacted that affects your practice?

Review the regulation, assess its impact, and develop an implementation plan (Correct answer)
Delegate review to the newest team member
Wait for enforcement before making changes
Assume existing procedures already comply

Correct answer: Review the regulation, assess its impact, and develop an implementation plan

When new regulations are enacted, professionals should promptly review them, assess their impact on current practices, and develop a structured implementation plan.

Question 3: What is the first step in the risk management process?

Risk identification — recognizing potential threats and vulnerabilities (Correct answer)
Risk acceptance — deciding to live with all risks
Risk avoidance — canceling all activities
Risk transfer — purchasing insurance immediately

Correct answer: Risk identification — recognizing potential threats and vulnerabilities

Risk identification is the critical first step in risk management, involving systematic recognition and documentation of potential threats and vulnerabilities.

Question 4: Insulin, which regulates blood glucose levels, is secreted by which organ?

Adrenal gland
Thyroid gland
Pancreas (Correct answer)
Liver

Correct answer: Pancreas

Insulin is produced by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans within the pancreas and facilitates cellular uptake of glucose to lower blood sugar.

Question 5: What does SWOT analysis evaluate?

Standards, Warranties, Objectives, and Targets
Systems, Workflows, Operations, and Technology
Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats (Correct answer)
Sales, Workers, Outputs, and Timelines

Correct answer: Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats

SWOT analysis is a strategic planning framework that evaluates internal Strengths and Weaknesses and external Opportunities and Threats.

Question 6: A practical nurse is about to administer insulin. Which type of insulin appears cloudy and requires mixing by gently rolling the vial?

NPH insulin (intermediate-acting) (Correct answer)
Insulin lispro (rapid-acting)
Regular insulin (short-acting)
Insulin glargine (long-acting)

Correct answer: NPH insulin (intermediate-acting)

NPH (isophane) insulin is an intermediate-acting suspension that appears cloudy and must be gently rolled to resuspend the particles before drawing up the dose.

Question 7: What does "informed consent" require in professional practice?

Verbal agreement without explanation
Implied agreement through participation
Providing complete, understandable information so individuals can make voluntary decisions (Correct answer)
Getting a signature on any available form

Correct answer: Providing complete, understandable information so individuals can make voluntary decisions

Informed consent requires that individuals receive complete, understandable information about procedures, risks, and alternatives to make truly voluntary decisions.

Question 8: A patient is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. The practical nurse should notify the RN if the patient is scheduled for:

A routine chest X-ray
A fasting lipid panel blood draw
An iodine contrast dye procedure (CT scan with contrast) (Correct answer)
A non-contrast MRI

Correct answer: An iodine contrast dye procedure (CT scan with contrast)

Iodine contrast dye combined with metformin increases the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy and lactic acidosis; metformin is typically held before and after such procedures.

Question 9: What role does continuing education play in maintaining certification?

It ensures professionals stay current with evolving standards and practices (Correct answer)
It is purely optional with no impact on certification
It only applies to entry-level professionals
It is required only for international practice

Correct answer: It ensures professionals stay current with evolving standards and practices

Continuing education is essential to maintaining certification as it ensures professionals remain current with industry developments and evolving standards.

Question 10: When should established methodologies be reconsidered?

When evidence shows better alternatives exist or when outcomes decline (Correct answer)
Whenever a new employee joins the organization
Never, once established they should remain permanent
Only during annual reviews regardless of performance

Correct answer: When evidence shows better alternatives exist or when outcomes decline

Established methodologies should be reconsidered when new evidence suggests better alternatives, when outcomes decline, or when the operating context changes significantly.

Question 11: Which type of analysis examines data to identify patterns and trends over time?

Trend analysis (Correct answer)
Root cause analysis
Gap analysis
Cost-benefit analysis

Correct answer: Trend analysis

Trend analysis examines data points collected over time to identify patterns, directions, and changes that can inform forecasting and strategic decisions.

Question 12: Which risk response strategy involves reducing the likelihood or impact of a risk?

Risk acceptance
Risk mitigation (Correct answer)
Risk transfer
Risk escalation

Correct answer: Risk mitigation

Risk mitigation involves taking proactive steps to reduce either the probability of a risk occurring or its potential impact if it does occur.

Question 13: How many chambers does the human heart have?

Four (Correct answer)
Six
Two
Three

Correct answer: Four

The heart has four chambers: the right atrium and right ventricle (pulmonary circuit) and the left atrium and left ventricle (systemic circuit).

Question 14: What is the primary goal of quality assurance in professional practice?

To reduce costs by eliminating all testing
To increase production speed regardless of outcomes
To satisfy regulatory requirements with minimum effort
To ensure consistent delivery of products or services that meet established standards (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To ensure consistent delivery of products or services that meet established standards

Quality assurance focuses on ensuring that products, services, and processes consistently meet or exceed established standards and stakeholder expectations.

Question 15: A patient who is taking warfarin reports starting a daily aspirin supplement. The practical nurse should notify the RN because this combination may:

Increase bleeding risk significantly (Correct answer)
Decrease the anticoagulant effect of warfarin
Reduce gastrointestinal side effects
Have no significant interaction

Correct answer: Increase bleeding risk significantly

Both warfarin and aspirin inhibit clotting mechanisms via different pathways; combined use significantly increases the risk of serious bleeding.

Question 16: The trachea is a component of which body system?

Nervous system
Circulatory system
Respiratory system (Correct answer)
Digestive system

Correct answer: Respiratory system

The trachea (windpipe) is a cartilaginous tube in the respiratory system that conducts air from the larynx to the bronchi and into the lungs.

Question 17: When performing a bed bath for a patient, the practical nurse should wash in which order to prevent cross-contamination?

Feet first, then move upward toward the face
Face first, then move downward toward the feet (Correct answer)
Genitals first to reduce infection risk
Chest first, then arms, then legs

Correct answer: Face first, then move downward toward the feet

Clean-to-dirty technique requires washing the face first and progressing downward to the perineal area to prevent spreading microorganisms.

Question 18: A practical nurse is administering an intramuscular injection to an adult patient. The preferred site for most IM injections in adults is the:

Vastus lateralis (outer thigh)
Ventrogluteal (hip) (Correct answer)
Deltoid (upper arm) for volumes >2 mL
Dorsogluteal (upper outer buttock)

Correct answer: Ventrogluteal (hip)

The ventrogluteal site is currently the preferred IM injection site in adults because it is free of major nerves and blood vessels and has a large muscle mass.

Question 19: What is a key performance indicator (KPI) in quality management?

A theoretical ideal that can never be measured
A measurable value that demonstrates how effectively objectives are being achieved (Correct answer)
A financial budget line item
A subjective opinion from management

Correct answer: A measurable value that demonstrates how effectively objectives are being achieved

KPIs are quantifiable measurements that demonstrate how effectively an organization or process is achieving its key quality objectives.

Question 20: Which finding when assessing a wound dressing requires the practical nurse to notify the supervising RN immediately?

The dressing is dry and intact
There is a small amount of serosanguineous drainage
The dressing shows bright red, rapidly spreading drainage (Correct answer)
The wound edges appear slightly pink

Correct answer: The dressing shows bright red, rapidly spreading drainage

Bright red, rapidly spreading drainage indicates active arterial bleeding, which requires immediate escalation and intervention.

Question 21: Which action is the MOST important step a practical nurse should take before any patient-care procedure?

Check the room temperature
Verify the patient's diet order
Perform hand hygiene (Correct answer)
Don sterile gloves

Correct answer: Perform hand hygiene

Hand hygiene is the single most effective action to prevent healthcare-associated infections and must occur before every patient-care procedure.

Question 22: What is the normal pH range of human arterial blood?

7.00–7.20
7.35–7.45 (Correct answer)
6.80–7.00
7.50–7.80

Correct answer: 7.35–7.45

Normal arterial blood pH is 7.35–7.45; values below 7.35 indicate acidosis and values above 7.45 indicate alkalosis, both of which are life-threatening if severe.

Question 23: How should best practices be adapted when applied to new situations?

Use them only if specifically required by regulation
Abandon them entirely and create new methods each time
Apply them exactly as written regardless of circumstances
Evaluate the specific context and modify as needed while maintaining core principles (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Evaluate the specific context and modify as needed while maintaining core principles

Best practices should be adapted to specific contexts and situations while maintaining their core principles and evidence-based foundations.

Question 24: What is active listening in a professional context?

Simply waiting for your turn to speak
Fully concentrating, understanding, responding, and remembering what is being said (Correct answer)
Taking verbatim notes of everything said
Agreeing with everything the speaker says

Correct answer: Fully concentrating, understanding, responding, and remembering what is being said

Active listening involves fully concentrating on the speaker, understanding the message, providing appropriate responses, and retaining the information communicated.

Question 25: Which body system is primarily responsible for defending the body against pathogens and foreign substances?

Digestive system
Immune system (Correct answer)
Endocrine system
Nervous system

Correct answer: Immune system

The immune system, through white blood cells, antibodies, and lymphatic tissues, identifies and destroys pathogens, foreign cells, and abnormal cells.

Question 26: Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for coordinating balance and fine motor movements?

Cerebellum (Correct answer)
Medulla oblongata
Thalamus
Cerebrum

Correct answer: Cerebellum

The cerebellum, located at the posterior of the brain, integrates sensory input to fine-tune voluntary movements and maintain posture and balance.

Question 27: The practical nurse is preparing to apply a sequential compression device (SCD) to a post-operative patient. The PRIMARY purpose of SCDs is to:

Control post-operative edema only
Improve arterial circulation to the feet
Reduce post-operative pain
Prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

SCDs apply intermittent pneumatic compression to the lower extremities to prevent venous stasis and reduce the risk of deep vein thrombosis.

Question 28: How should negative or difficult information be communicated to stakeholders?

Honestly and promptly, with proposed solutions or mitigation steps (Correct answer)
Delayed until the situation has fully resolved
Buried within positive information to minimize impact
Only when specifically asked about it

Correct answer: Honestly and promptly, with proposed solutions or mitigation steps

Negative information should be communicated honestly and promptly, accompanied by proposed solutions or mitigation plans to maintain trust and enable timely action.

Question 29: What is an audit trail in the context of documentation?

A physical path through the filing room
A type of financial statement used during audits
A list of auditors who have reviewed the documents
A chronological record that allows tracing of changes and decisions back to their source (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A chronological record that allows tracing of changes and decisions back to their source

An audit trail is a chronological sequence of records that provides documentary evidence of activities, enabling any change or decision to be traced back to its source.

Question 30: Why is continuous improvement important in quality management?

Because employees need new tasks to stay busy
Because regulators demand changes every year
Because existing processes are always fundamentally flawed
Because standards evolve, competitors improve, and customer expectations change (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Because standards evolve, competitors improve, and customer expectations change

Continuous improvement is essential because the competitive landscape, customer expectations, and industry standards are constantly evolving, requiring ongoing adaptation.

Question 31: What is the most effective leadership approach in professional settings?

Delegating all decisions to the team without guidance
Using the same authoritative style for all situations
Adapting leadership style to the situation and team needs (Correct answer)
Avoiding all conflict and difficult conversations

Correct answer: Adapting leadership style to the situation and team needs

Effective leadership requires adapting your approach based on the situation, team capabilities, and organizational needs — known as situational leadership.

Question 32: How long should professional records typically be retained?

For exactly one calendar year
According to applicable laws, regulations, and organizational retention policies (Correct answer)
Only until the next audit is completed
Until the filing cabinet is full

Correct answer: According to applicable laws, regulations, and organizational retention policies

Record retention periods are determined by applicable laws, regulations, professional standards, and organizational policies, which vary by document type and jurisdiction.

Question 33: Why is providing regular feedback important for team performance?

It creates documentation for disciplinary actions
It helps team members understand expectations and improve their performance (Correct answer)
It gives leaders an opportunity to demonstrate authority
It satisfies HR policy requirements

Correct answer: It helps team members understand expectations and improve their performance

Regular feedback helps team members understand how their work aligns with expectations, identify areas for improvement, and build on their strengths, driving overall team performance.

Question 34: What is a dashboard in the context of data reporting?

A type of database for storing historical records
A software tool exclusively for financial reporting
A physical board in the office for posting announcements
A visual display that consolidates key metrics and indicators in real-time (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A visual display that consolidates key metrics and indicators in real-time

A dashboard is a visual interface that consolidates and displays key performance metrics, indicators, and data points, often in real-time, enabling quick assessment of status and performance.

Question 35: When applying core principles in practice, what should be the first consideration?

Cost reduction opportunities
Timeline acceleration
Safety and compliance with established standards (Correct answer)
Client entertainment preferences

Correct answer: Safety and compliance with established standards

Safety and compliance with established standards must always be the primary consideration when applying professional principles.

Question 36: What is the significance of user training in technology implementation?

It is only needed for senior management
It is an unnecessary expense that delays implementation
It maximizes the return on technology investment by ensuring effective utilization (Correct answer)
It should be limited to a one-page instruction sheet

Correct answer: It maximizes the return on technology investment by ensuring effective utilization

User training is critical to technology implementation success because it ensures staff can effectively utilize the technology, maximizing the return on investment and minimizing errors.

Question 37: A practical nurse is using a pulse oximeter. A reading of 94% SpO2 in an otherwise healthy adult is considered:

Normal — below 90% would be a concern
Normal — no action needed
Borderline low — monitor closely and notify the nurse (Correct answer)
Critically low — start CPR immediately

Correct answer: Borderline low — monitor closely and notify the nurse

Normal SpO2 is 95–100%; a reading of 94% is borderline low and warrants close monitoring and notification of the supervising nurse.

Question 38: Why is data security important when using professional technology tools?

To make systems run faster
Only to comply with specific regulations
To reduce the cost of technology infrastructure
To protect sensitive information from unauthorized access, breaches, and loss (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To protect sensitive information from unauthorized access, breaches, and loss

Data security protects sensitive professional, client, and organizational information from unauthorized access, breaches, theft, and loss, maintaining trust and compliance.

Question 39: How often should compliance procedures be reviewed and updated?

Once at initial certification and never again
Only when an audit is scheduled
Every ten years regardless of changes
Regularly, and whenever regulations change or new risks are identified (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Regularly, and whenever regulations change or new risks are identified

Compliance procedures should be reviewed regularly and updated whenever regulations change, new risks emerge, or organizational changes occur.

Question 40: What should an effective professional report include?

Clear objectives, methodology, findings, analysis, and actionable recommendations (Correct answer)
Only the data tables without interpretation
As much raw data as possible without summary
Personal opinions without supporting data

Correct answer: Clear objectives, methodology, findings, analysis, and actionable recommendations

An effective professional report includes clearly stated objectives, transparent methodology, organized findings, thorough analysis, and specific actionable recommendations.

Question 41: What is the purpose of setting SMART goals in strategic planning?

To create goals that are Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, and Time-bound (Correct answer)
To make goals Scale-able, Mobile, Accessible, Redundant, and Transparent
To define goals that are Strategic, Managed, Approved, Registered, and Tracked
To ensure goals are Simple, Mandatory, Automatic, Routine, and Traditional

Correct answer: To create goals that are Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, and Time-bound

SMART goals provide a framework for creating clear, actionable objectives that are Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, and Time-bound.

Question 42: What is the purpose of a feedback mechanism in professional communication?

To ensure messages are received, understood, and to identify areas for improvement (Correct answer)
To generate metrics for annual reports
To document complaints for legal purposes only
To evaluate employee performance

Correct answer: To ensure messages are received, understood, and to identify areas for improvement

Feedback mechanisms verify that communication is effective by confirming messages are received and understood, while also identifying opportunities to improve communication processes.

Question 43: Which position is MOST appropriate for a patient experiencing difficulty breathing (dyspnea)?

High Fowler's (head of bed elevated 60–90°) (Correct answer)
Supine (flat on back)
Trendelenburg (head lower than feet)
Prone (face down)

Correct answer: High Fowler's (head of bed elevated 60–90°)

High Fowler's position uses gravity to lower the diaphragm and expand lung capacity, reducing the work of breathing.

Question 44: What does a risk matrix assess?

The timeline for risk resolution
Only the financial cost of risks
The probability and impact of identified risks (Correct answer)
The number of employees affected

Correct answer: The probability and impact of identified risks

A risk matrix evaluates risks based on two dimensions: the probability (likelihood) of occurrence and the potential impact (severity) if the risk materializes.

Question 45: What should be considered before implementing new technology?

Cost, compatibility with existing systems, training needs, and security implications (Correct answer)
Whether competitors are using it
The vendor's marketing materials exclusively
Only the purchase price of the technology

Correct answer: Cost, compatibility with existing systems, training needs, and security implications

Before implementing new technology, organizations should evaluate total cost, system compatibility, staff training requirements, security implications, and alignment with strategic goals.

Question 46: Why is stakeholder buy-in important for strategic implementation?

Because it eliminates the need for project management
Because it generates positive media coverage
Because successful implementation requires support and cooperation from those affected (Correct answer)
Because it is a legal requirement in all organizations

Correct answer: Because successful implementation requires support and cooperation from those affected

Stakeholder buy-in is critical because successful implementation depends on the active support, cooperation, and engagement of the people who will be affected by or involved in executing the strategy.

Question 47: Why is regular risk reassessment important?

Because regulators require it exactly once per year
Because it provides work for risk management teams
Because initial assessments are always wrong
Because the risk landscape changes as conditions, activities, and environments evolve (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Because the risk landscape changes as conditions, activities, and environments evolve

Regular risk reassessment is essential because risks are dynamic — new threats emerge, existing risks change in severity, and the effectiveness of controls may vary over time.

Question 48: A practical nurse is preparing to administer an oral medication to a patient who is having difficulty swallowing. The FIRST action should be to:

Contact the prescribing provider to request an alternative form (Correct answer)
Ask the patient to take a large sip of water first
Crush all tablets and mix with water
Divide the tablet and give half at a time

Correct answer: Contact the prescribing provider to request an alternative form

Crushing tablets or altering dosage forms can change absorption and is contraindicated for many medications; the provider must be contacted for a safe alternative form.

Question 49: A patient is ordered to receive a nasogastric tube feeding. Before administering the feeding, the nurse's PRIORITY action is to:

Verify tube placement and residual gastric volume (Correct answer)
Warm the formula to body temperature
Flush the tube with 500 mL of water
Position the patient in the supine position

Correct answer: Verify tube placement and residual gastric volume

Verifying tube placement and checking residual volume prevents aspiration by confirming the tube is in the stomach and the patient can tolerate the feeding.

Question 50: What is the importance of data validation in reporting?

It slows down the reporting process unnecessarily
It ensures accuracy and reliability of the information used for decisions (Correct answer)
It makes reports look more professional
It is only important for financial data

Correct answer: It ensures accuracy and reliability of the information used for decisions

Data validation ensures that the information used in reports and analysis is accurate, complete, and reliable, which is essential for sound decision-making.

Question 51: A practical nurse is performing tracheostomy care. How should the inner cannula be cleaned?

Soak in hydrogen peroxide, then rinse with normal saline (Correct answer)
Clean with betadine and allow to dry in air
Rinse with tap water and air dry
Wipe with a dry gauze pad only

Correct answer: Soak in hydrogen peroxide, then rinse with normal saline

Soaking the inner cannula in half-strength hydrogen peroxide loosens secretions, and rinsing with normal saline removes any residue before reinsertion.

Question 52: Which type of muscle tissue is found exclusively in the heart?

Skeletal muscle
Voluntary striated muscle
Cardiac muscle (Correct answer)
Smooth muscle

Correct answer: Cardiac muscle

Cardiac muscle is involuntary, striated muscle found only in the myocardium; it contracts rhythmically and continuously without fatigue under normal conditions.

Question 53: What is the normal oral body temperature for an adult in degrees Fahrenheit?

96.8°F
102.2°F
98.6°F (Correct answer)
100.4°F

Correct answer: 98.6°F

98.6°F (37°C) is the widely accepted normal oral body temperature for adults; a reading at or above 100.4°F (38°C) typically indicates a fever.

Question 54: A patient is prescribed digoxin 0.125 mg daily. Before administering the dose, the practical nurse must assess which parameter?

Blood glucose level
Temperature
Respiratory rate
Apical pulse for a full minute (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Apical pulse for a full minute

Digoxin slows the heart rate; the apical pulse must be counted for a full minute and if it is below 60 bpm, the dose is withheld and the RN is notified.

Question 55: When facing an ethical dilemma, what is the recommended first step?

Defer to the most senior person present
Make a quick decision to avoid delays
Ignore the situation until it resolves itself
Identify all stakeholders affected and review applicable codes of conduct (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Identify all stakeholders affected and review applicable codes of conduct

The first step in resolving an ethical dilemma is to identify all affected stakeholders and review relevant codes of professional conduct for guidance.

Question 56: A practical nurse discovers a medication error after giving a patient the wrong dose. What is the FIRST priority action?

Complete the incident report before doing anything else
Document the error in the nurse's notes and monitor the patient
Assess the patient for adverse effects and notify the supervising RN immediately (Correct answer)
Call the pharmacy to report the dispensing error

Correct answer: Assess the patient for adverse effects and notify the supervising RN immediately

Patient safety is always the first priority — the patient must be assessed for harm and the RN notified immediately so interventions can be implemented if needed.

Question 57: What does "system integration" mean in a technology context?

Using the same password for all systems
Installing systems in the same physical location
Connecting different technology systems to work together and share data seamlessly (Correct answer)
Replacing all existing systems with a single new system

Correct answer: Connecting different technology systems to work together and share data seamlessly

System integration involves connecting different technology systems, applications, or platforms so they can work together, share data, and provide a cohesive user experience.

Question 58: What is delegation in the context of team management?

Transferring all responsibility without any oversight
Assigning tasks and authority to team members while maintaining accountability (Correct answer)
Telling others what to do without providing resources
Assigning only the easiest tasks to others

Correct answer: Assigning tasks and authority to team members while maintaining accountability

Delegation involves assigning tasks and appropriate authority to team members while the leader maintains overall accountability for outcomes and provides necessary support.

Question 59: Why is it important to document and standardize best practices?

To ensure consistency, enable training, and facilitate continuous improvement (Correct answer)
To satisfy insurance requirements only
To reduce the number of employees needed
To limit creativity and prevent any changes

Correct answer: To ensure consistency, enable training, and facilitate continuous improvement

Documenting and standardizing best practices ensures consistency across operations, enables effective training, and provides a baseline for continuous improvement.

Question 60: A practical nurse is collecting a urine specimen for a mid-stream clean-catch culture. What is the CORRECT sequence of steps?

Collect any portion of the stream without cleansing
Cleanse the meatus, collect the entire stream in one container
Collect the first stream, discard the last
Cleanse the meatus, discard the first stream, collect the mid-stream (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Cleanse the meatus, discard the first stream, collect the mid-stream

Cleansing the meatus and discarding the initial stream flushes urethral contaminants so the mid-stream sample represents true bladder urine.

Question 61: Red blood cells (erythrocytes) are produced in which location in healthy adults?

Spleen
Liver
Lymph nodes
Red bone marrow (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Red bone marrow

In adults, red blood cells are manufactured through erythropoiesis in red bone marrow, primarily found in flat bones such as the sternum, vertebrae, and iliac crest.

Question 62: How should conflicts within a team be addressed?

By escalating all conflicts to upper management immediately
By ignoring them and hoping they resolve naturally
By removing the conflicting parties from the team
Promptly and directly, focusing on issues rather than personalities (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Promptly and directly, focusing on issues rather than personalities

Team conflicts should be addressed promptly and directly, focusing on the issues at hand rather than personal attributes, to maintain productive working relationships.

Question 63: Which lab value is MOST important to monitor in a patient who is receiving long-term furosemide (Lasix) therapy?

Serum calcium
Serum potassium (Correct answer)
Serum sodium
Serum magnesium

Correct answer: Serum potassium

Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes significant potassium excretion in the urine, making hypokalemia the primary electrolyte concern with ongoing use.

Question 64: Which foundational principle is most critical to professional practice in this field?

Evidence-based decision making and continuous improvement (Correct answer)
Following only traditional methods without adaptation
Maximizing revenue above all other considerations
Prioritizing speed over accuracy in all situations

Correct answer: Evidence-based decision making and continuous improvement

Evidence-based decision making ensures that professional practices are grounded in proven methodologies and current best practices.

Question 65: What is a root cause analysis used for?

To calculate the financial cost of errors
To document problems for annual reporting
To identify the underlying cause of a problem rather than just addressing symptoms (Correct answer)
To assign blame to individuals who made mistakes

Correct answer: To identify the underlying cause of a problem rather than just addressing symptoms

Root cause analysis is a systematic method used to identify the fundamental underlying cause of a problem, enabling solutions that prevent recurrence rather than just treating symptoms.

Question 66: What is the primary purpose of industry regulations in this field?

To limit competition in the marketplace
To create barriers to entry for new professionals
To generate revenue for regulatory bodies
To protect the public and ensure consistent professional standards (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To protect the public and ensure consistent professional standards

Industry regulations are primarily designed to protect the public by ensuring professionals meet consistent standards of competence and conduct.

Question 67: What is the primary purpose of data analysis in professional practice?

To create complex charts for presentations
To fulfill annual reporting requirements only
To justify decisions that have already been made
To transform raw data into actionable insights for decision-making (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To transform raw data into actionable insights for decision-making

Data analysis transforms raw data into meaningful insights that inform evidence-based decision-making and strategic planning.

Question 68: What is the most important element of effective professional communication?

Using the most technical language possible
Clarity and accuracy of the message tailored to the audience (Correct answer)
Communicating as quickly as possible
Sending messages through multiple channels simultaneously

Correct answer: Clarity and accuracy of the message tailored to the audience

Effective professional communication requires clarity and accuracy, with the message tailored to the audience's level of understanding and needs.

Question 69: Oxygen is transported through the bloodstream primarily by which component?

White blood cells
Hemoglobin in red blood cells (Correct answer)
Platelets
Blood plasma

Correct answer: Hemoglobin in red blood cells

Hemoglobin, the iron-containing protein inside red blood cells, binds oxygen in the lungs and releases it to tissues throughout the body.

Question 70: When performing range-of-motion (ROM) exercises on a patient, the practical nurse should stop and assess if:

The patient says the joint feels warm
The patient asks for a short rest break
The joint moves through its full normal arc
The patient reports pain or resistance is felt (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The patient reports pain or resistance is felt

Pain or unexpected resistance during ROM may indicate injury, contracture, or inflammation, requiring assessment before continuing.

Question 71: What is the Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) cycle used for?

One-time project planning only
Annual budget allocation
Continuous improvement of processes and practices (Correct answer)
Employee performance reviews exclusively

Correct answer: Continuous improvement of processes and practices

The PDCA cycle is a systematic approach to continuous improvement where processes are planned, implemented, evaluated, and refined in an ongoing cycle.

Question 72: Which quality management tool is used to identify the most significant factors in a dataset?

Flow chart
Gantt chart
Organizational chart
Pareto chart (80/20 rule) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Pareto chart (80/20 rule)

A Pareto chart applies the 80/20 principle to identify the vital few factors that account for the majority of effects, helping prioritize improvement efforts.

Question 73: What is the normal respiratory rate for a healthy adult at rest?

30–40 breaths per minute
24–30 breaths per minute
8–10 breaths per minute
12–20 breaths per minute (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 12–20 breaths per minute

A normal adult respiratory rate is 12–20 breaths per minute; rates above 20 may indicate tachypnea, while below 12 may indicate bradypnea.

Question 74: Which blood type is known as the universal donor for red blood cell transfusions?

AB positive
B negative
A positive
O negative (Correct answer)

Correct answer: O negative

Type O negative blood lacks A, B, and Rh antigens, making it compatible with all blood types and safe for emergency transfusions.

Question 75: When inserting a urinary catheter in a female patient, the practical nurse should cleanse the meatus using which technique?

Circular motions starting at the outer labia
Front to back, using a new swab for each stroke (Correct answer)
A single downward stroke from clitoris to anus
Back to front to avoid contaminating the urethra

Correct answer: Front to back, using a new swab for each stroke

Cleansing front to back with a new swab each time prevents fecal organisms from entering the urethra and reduces UTI risk.

Question 76: What is the role of benchmarking in establishing best practices?

Comparing performance against top performers to identify improvement opportunities (Correct answer)
Setting the lowest acceptable standard for performance
Eliminating all practices that differ from the industry average
Matching exactly what competitors are doing

Correct answer: Comparing performance against top performers to identify improvement opportunities

Benchmarking involves comparing your performance against top performers or industry leaders to identify gaps and opportunities for improvement.

Question 77: What is the primary role of a team leader?

To take credit for all team accomplishments
To closely supervise every task performed by team members
To guide, support, and enable team members to achieve shared objectives (Correct answer)
To shield team members from all challenges and difficulties

Correct answer: To guide, support, and enable team members to achieve shared objectives

A team leader's primary role is to guide, support, and enable team members to work effectively toward shared objectives while fostering growth and development.

Question 78: A practical nurse notes that a patient's nasogastric tube residual volume is 300 mL before the scheduled feeding. The nurse should:

Administer the feeding as scheduled without concern
Double the feeding rate to compensate for the delay
Discard the aspirate and proceed with the feeding
Return the aspirate and hold the feeding, then notify the RN (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Return the aspirate and hold the feeding, then notify the RN

A residual of 300 mL exceeds typical safe thresholds (usually >200–250 mL), so the aspirate should be returned to prevent electrolyte loss and the RN must be notified.

Question 79: The practical nurse is administering eye drops to a patient. After instilling the drops, the patient should be instructed to:

Apply gentle pressure to the inner corner of the eye (nasolacrimal duct) (Correct answer)
Immediately wipe away any excess with a cotton ball
Tilt the head backward and keep eyes wide open for 5 minutes
Blink rapidly to distribute the medication

Correct answer: Apply gentle pressure to the inner corner of the eye (nasolacrimal duct)

Applying pressure to the nasolacrimal duct for 1–2 minutes reduces systemic absorption and keeps the medication in the eye longer for better local effect.

Question 80: A patient taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) antidepressant asks if they can eat aged cheese. The practical nurse explains they must avoid it because it can cause:

Hypoglycemia
Prolonged QT interval
A severe hypertensive crisis (Correct answer)
Severe diarrhea

Correct answer: A severe hypertensive crisis

Aged cheese contains tyramine; MAOIs block its breakdown, leading to a dangerous surge in blood pressure known as a hypertensive crisis.

Question 81: Which medication route provides the fastest onset of action in an emergency?

Intramuscular (IM)
Subcutaneous (SubQ)
Oral (PO)
Intravenous (IV) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Intravenous (IV)

The intravenous route delivers medication directly into the bloodstream, providing immediate systemic absorption and the fastest onset of action.

Question 82: What defines a "best practice" in professional settings?

A method recommended by a single authority
A method or technique that has consistently shown superior results through evidence (Correct answer)
Any procedure that is commonly used regardless of outcomes
The most expensive approach available

Correct answer: A method or technique that has consistently shown superior results through evidence

Best practices are methods or techniques that have consistently demonstrated superior results through evidence, research, and widespread professional validation.

Question 83: When measuring a patient's urinary output, the practical nurse should record the amount in which unit?

Milliliters (mL) (Correct answer)
Grams (g)
Ounces (oz)
Cubic centimeters per hour (cc/hr) only

Correct answer: Milliliters (mL)

Urinary output is measured and documented in milliliters (mL) as part of accurate intake-and-output (I&O) monitoring.

Question 84: When a patient is ordered to receive a subcutaneous heparin injection, the practical nurse should administer it at which angle?

45–90 degrees (Correct answer)
15 degrees
Parallel to the skin surface
10 degrees

Correct answer: 45–90 degrees

Subcutaneous injections are given at 45–90 degrees depending on body fat, ensuring the medication is deposited in the subcutaneous tissue rather than muscle or skin.

Question 85: Which process describes how cells produce identical daughter cells for growth and tissue repair?

Mitosis (Correct answer)
Osmosis
Meiosis
Diffusion

Correct answer: Mitosis

Mitosis produces two genetically identical daughter cells and is the basis of growth, repair, and asexual reproduction in somatic cells.

Question 86: What is the appropriate action when discovering a colleague has violated professional standards?

Handle it privately without documentation
Report through proper channels as outlined in the code of ethics (Correct answer)
Post about it on social media
Ignore it to maintain the relationship

Correct answer: Report through proper channels as outlined in the code of ethics

Professional standards require reporting violations through proper channels to protect the public and maintain the integrity of the profession.

Question 87: What should a communication plan include at minimum?

Social media posting schedule only
Only the list of email addresses
Stakeholder list, message content, channels, frequency, and responsible parties (Correct answer)
A single announcement template

Correct answer: Stakeholder list, message content, channels, frequency, and responsible parties

A comprehensive communication plan identifies stakeholders, defines message content, specifies communication channels, sets frequency, and assigns responsible parties.

Question 88: What is the role of documentation in regulatory compliance?

It serves no practical purpose beyond record-keeping
It is only necessary for international operations
It provides verifiable evidence that standards are being met (Correct answer)
It is optional if verbal confirmation is available

Correct answer: It provides verifiable evidence that standards are being met

Documentation provides verifiable evidence that regulatory requirements are being met and creates an audit trail for compliance verification.

Question 89: Which organ's primary role is to filter blood, remove waste, and produce urine?

Spleen
Kidney (Correct answer)
Pancreas
Liver

Correct answer: Kidney

The kidneys filter approximately 180 liters of blood per day, regulating fluid balance, electrolytes, and acid-base status while excreting waste as urine.

Question 90: What distinguishes inherent risk from residual risk?

Inherent risk is internal; residual risk is external
Inherent risk exists before controls; residual risk remains after controls are applied (Correct answer)
There is no meaningful difference between them
Inherent risk is financial; residual risk is operational

Correct answer: Inherent risk exists before controls; residual risk remains after controls are applied

Inherent risk is the level of risk present before any controls are implemented, while residual risk is the level that remains after controls and mitigations are applied.

Question 91: What is the primary objective of PSB-PN Exam certification?

To provide tax benefits to employers
To validate professional competence in psb-pn (Correct answer)
To replace formal education requirements
To fulfill a government mandate

Correct answer: To validate professional competence in psb-pn

The PSB-PN Exam certification validates that professionals have demonstrated competence and knowledge in their field.

Question 92: Which organ is considered the largest organ of the human body?

Brain
Skin (Correct answer)
Liver
Heart

Correct answer: Skin

The skin is the largest organ, covering the entire external surface of the body and accounting for about 16% of total body weight.

Question 93: What is the foundation of professional ethics in this field?

Prioritizing organizational politics
Acting in the best interest of stakeholders while maintaining integrity (Correct answer)
Maximizing personal financial gain
Following only the minimum legal requirements

Correct answer: Acting in the best interest of stakeholders while maintaining integrity

Professional ethics is fundamentally about acting with integrity and in the best interest of all stakeholders, going beyond mere legal compliance.

Question 94: What distinguishes a certified professional from a non-certified practitioner?

A specific educational degree only
Longer years of experience only
Higher salary requirements only
Demonstrated knowledge through standardized assessment and adherence to professional standards (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Demonstrated knowledge through standardized assessment and adherence to professional standards

Certification validates that a professional has met established standards of knowledge and competence through standardized assessment.

Question 95: The 'six rights' of medication administration include the right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time, and:

Right documentation (Correct answer)
Right insurance authorization
Right pharmacy
Right physician

Correct answer: Right documentation

The sixth right is right documentation — recording the medication after administration ensures accurate medical records and prevents duplicate dosing.

Question 96: How many bones does the average adult human skeleton contain?

246
206 (Correct answer)
186
226

Correct answer: 206

The adult human skeleton consists of 206 bones; infants begin with about 270–300 bones, many of which fuse together during childhood and adolescence.

Question 97: When applying a nitroglycerin transdermal patch, the practical nurse should:

Apply over the previous patch site without removing it
Place it on the chest only for cardiac effect
Apply it to the same site each day to maintain consistent absorption
Remove the old patch and rotate to a new hairless skin site (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Remove the old patch and rotate to a new hairless skin site

Removing the old patch prevents cumulative drug buildup, and rotating sites prevents skin irritation and ensures consistent absorption.

Question 98: Which vitamin is synthesized in the skin primarily through exposure to sunlight?

Vitamin A
Vitamin B12
Vitamin C
Vitamin D (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Vitamin D

UVB radiation from sunlight converts 7-dehydrocholesterol in the skin to Vitamin D3, which is essential for calcium absorption and bone health.

Question 99: What are the key characteristics of effective documentation?

Detailed enough to fill required page counts
Created only when requested by supervisors
Accurate, complete, timely, legible, and objective (Correct answer)
Brief, opinionated, and created after the fact

Correct answer: Accurate, complete, timely, legible, and objective

Effective documentation must be accurate, complete, timely (recorded promptly), legible, and objective to serve its intended purposes reliably.

Question 100: What is the purpose of a technology needs assessment?

To purchase the most expensive available solution
To justify the IT department's budget
To replace all manual processes immediately
To identify gaps between current capabilities and desired outcomes (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To identify gaps between current capabilities and desired outcomes

A technology needs assessment systematically identifies gaps between current technological capabilities and desired outcomes, guiding informed technology investment decisions.

Question 101: What constitutes a conflict of interest in professional practice?

When two colleagues disagree on a procedure
When personal interests could improperly influence professional judgment (Correct answer)
When a client requests a service outside normal hours
When multiple projects have the same deadline

Correct answer: When personal interests could improperly influence professional judgment

A conflict of interest occurs when personal, financial, or other interests could compromise or appear to compromise professional objectivity and judgment.

Question 102: A patient is allergic to penicillin. The practical nurse should be aware that there is a potential cross-reactivity with which class of antibiotics?

Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin)
Sulfonamides (e.g., trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole)
Macrolides (e.g., azithromycin)
Cephalosporins (e.g., cephalexin) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Cephalosporins (e.g., cephalexin)

Penicillins and cephalosporins share a beta-lactam ring structure; patients allergic to penicillin have a small but significant risk of cross-reactivity to cephalosporins.

Question 103: What role do key performance indicators play in strategic implementation?

They provide measurable benchmarks to track progress toward strategic objectives (Correct answer)
They replace the need for strategic planning entirely
They are used only for employee salary decisions
They are optional reporting tools with no strategic value

Correct answer: They provide measurable benchmarks to track progress toward strategic objectives

KPIs serve as measurable benchmarks that enable organizations to track progress toward strategic objectives and make data-driven adjustments to implementation plans.

Question 104: When communicating with diverse stakeholders, what approach is recommended?

Provide only positive information
Adapt communication style and detail level to each stakeholder group (Correct answer)
Use the same template for all stakeholders
Minimize communication frequency to avoid overload

Correct answer: Adapt communication style and detail level to each stakeholder group

Different stakeholders have different needs, interests, and levels of expertise, requiring adapted communication approaches for each group.

Question 105: The nurse is reviewing a medication administration record (MAR). The abbreviation 'PRN' means the medication should be given:

By mouth only
Before meals
As needed, based on patient condition (Correct answer)
Immediately (stat)

Correct answer: As needed, based on patient condition

PRN (Latin: pro re nata) means 'as needed' — the medication is given based on the patient's specific condition or complaint rather than on a fixed schedule.

Question 106: Why is maintaining confidentiality important in record keeping?

Only because it is a legal requirement
To make file storage easier to manage
To reduce the number of people who need training
To protect sensitive personal and professional information from unauthorized access (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To protect sensitive personal and professional information from unauthorized access

Maintaining confidentiality in record keeping protects sensitive personal, medical, financial, and professional information from unauthorized access, maintaining trust and legal compliance.

Question 107: The epiglottis serves which primary function during swallowing?

Moves food into the esophagus by peristalsis
Produces saliva to begin digestion
Covers the trachea to prevent aspiration (Correct answer)
Filters air entering the nasal passage

Correct answer: Covers the trachea to prevent aspiration

The epiglottis is a cartilaginous flap that folds over the trachea during swallowing to prevent food and liquid from entering the airway.

Question 108: What characterizes a high-performing team?

Clear goals, mutual trust, open communication, and shared accountability (Correct answer)
Complete absence of disagreement
A single dominant leader who makes all decisions
Members who work independently without coordination

Correct answer: Clear goals, mutual trust, open communication, and shared accountability

High-performing teams are characterized by clear shared goals, mutual trust among members, open and honest communication, and a sense of shared accountability for results.

Question 109: What is the primary benefit of adopting technology in professional practice?

Reducing the workforce to zero
Eliminating the need for human judgment
Improved efficiency, accuracy, and the ability to scale operations (Correct answer)
Meeting a technology trend without clear purpose

Correct answer: Improved efficiency, accuracy, and the ability to scale operations

Technology adoption in professional practice primarily improves efficiency, enhances accuracy, and enables scalability of operations while supporting human decision-making.

Question 110: A patient has a left-sided weakness from a stroke and needs to use a cane. Where should the cane be held?

In the left (weaker) hand
Alternating hands with each step
In the right (stronger) hand (Correct answer)
Whichever hand is more comfortable

Correct answer: In the right (stronger) hand

Holding the cane in the stronger hand allows it to bear weight when the weaker leg steps forward, improving stability and gait.

Question 111: What should be done when strategic implementation encounters unexpected obstacles?

Continue without changes regardless of obstacles
Assess the situation, adjust the plan as needed, and communicate changes to stakeholders (Correct answer)
Abandon the strategy entirely and start over
Blame the planning team and reassign responsibilities

Correct answer: Assess the situation, adjust the plan as needed, and communicate changes to stakeholders

When obstacles arise during implementation, the appropriate response is to assess the situation, make necessary adjustments to the plan, and communicate changes to all affected stakeholders.

Question 112: A practical nurse is assisting a patient who has had a stroke with ambulation. Where should the nurse stand to provide safe support?

On the patient's weaker (affected) side (Correct answer)
Directly behind the patient
In front of the patient, facing them
On the patient's stronger (unaffected) side

Correct answer: On the patient's weaker (affected) side

Standing on the patient's weaker side provides support where balance and muscle control are compromised, reducing the risk of falls.

Question 113: What is the normal resting heart rate range for a healthy adult?

120–150 beats per minute
100–120 beats per minute
60–100 beats per minute (Correct answer)
40–60 beats per minute

Correct answer: 60–100 beats per minute

A normal adult resting heart rate is 60–100 beats per minute; rates outside this range may indicate bradycardia or tachycardia.

Question 114: Which approach to compliance is considered most effective?

Hiring a consultant once a year for a brief review
A proactive approach that integrates compliance into daily operations (Correct answer)
Focusing compliance efforts only on areas that have been cited previously
A reactive approach that addresses issues only after violations

Correct answer: A proactive approach that integrates compliance into daily operations

A proactive compliance approach that integrates regulatory requirements into daily operations is most effective at preventing violations and maintaining standards.

Question 115: What distinguishes quality assurance from quality control?

There is no practical difference between them
QA is proactive and process-focused; QC is reactive and product-focused (Correct answer)
QA is more expensive; QC is free
QA is performed by managers; QC is performed by workers

Correct answer: QA is proactive and process-focused; QC is reactive and product-focused

Quality assurance is a proactive approach focused on preventing defects through process improvement, while quality control is reactive, focused on identifying defects in products.

Question 116: Why is data visualization important in professional reporting?

It makes complex data more accessible and easier to understand quickly (Correct answer)
It is only used to make reports more colorful
It is required by law in all professional fields
It replaces the need for written analysis

Correct answer: It makes complex data more accessible and easier to understand quickly

Data visualization transforms complex data sets into visual representations that make patterns, trends, and insights more immediately accessible and understandable to diverse audiences.

Question 117: A patient has a pressure injury that shows a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed and no slough. This is classified as which stage?

Stage II (Correct answer)
Stage I
Stage III
Stage IV

Correct answer: Stage II

Stage II pressure injuries present as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed, representing partial-thickness skin loss.

Question 118: When caring for a patient in contact isolation, the practical nurse should remove personal protective equipment (PPE) in which order?

Mask → gown → gloves → hand hygiene
Gloves → gown → mask → hand hygiene (Correct answer)
Gloves → mask → gown → hand hygiene
Gown → gloves → mask → hand hygiene

Correct answer: Gloves → gown → mask → hand hygiene

CDC doffing guidelines specify removing gloves first (most contaminated), then gown, then mask, finishing with hand hygiene to prevent self-contamination.

Question 119: Which approach best describes the integration of theory and practice in this profession?

Applying theoretical knowledge to solve real-world problems while adapting to specific contexts (Correct answer)
Using theory only during examinations
Ignoring theory and relying solely on experience
Following theory exactly without any modification

Correct answer: Applying theoretical knowledge to solve real-world problems while adapting to specific contexts

Effective professional practice involves applying theoretical foundations to real-world situations while adapting approaches to specific contexts and needs.

Question 120: Which of the following is a sign of narcotic (opioid) overdose that the practical nurse should recognize and report immediately?

Hypertension and tachycardia
Agitation and hyperreflexia
Pupil dilation (mydriasis)
Respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute

A respiratory rate below 12 breaths per minute (respiratory depression) is the hallmark sign of opioid overdose and requires immediate intervention with naloxone.

Question 121: The femur bone is located in which region of the body?

Forearm
Upper leg (thigh) (Correct answer)
Upper arm
Lower leg

Correct answer: Upper leg (thigh)

The femur is the thigh bone, connecting the hip at the acetabulum to the knee joint, and is the longest and strongest bone in the body.

Question 122: What is the purpose of a risk register?

To document, track, and manage all identified risks throughout a project or operation (Correct answer)
To satisfy audit requirements only
To assign blame when problems occur
To eliminate all risks before starting work

Correct answer: To document, track, and manage all identified risks throughout a project or operation

A risk register is a living document that records all identified risks, their assessments, response plans, and status updates throughout the lifecycle of a project or operation.

Question 123: What is the consequence of non-compliance with mandatory regulations?

Penalties including fines, license revocation, and potential legal action (Correct answer)
A verbal warning with no further consequences
Automatic extension of compliance deadline
Reduced insurance premiums

Correct answer: Penalties including fines, license revocation, and potential legal action

Non-compliance with mandatory regulations can result in serious consequences including financial penalties, loss of licensure, and legal proceedings.

Question 124: What is the primary purpose of professional documentation?

To fill storage space with paper files
To create an accurate, permanent record of activities, decisions, and outcomes (Correct answer)
To create work for administrative staff
To satisfy paperwork requirements without practical use

Correct answer: To create an accurate, permanent record of activities, decisions, and outcomes

Professional documentation creates accurate, permanent records of activities, decisions, and outcomes that serve legal, regulatory, quality, and communication purposes.

Question 125: Why is confidentiality important in professional practice?

It eliminates the need for documentation
It reduces paperwork requirements
It simplifies communication processes
It protects sensitive information and maintains trust between professionals and clients (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It protects sensitive information and maintains trust between professionals and clients

Confidentiality is essential because it protects sensitive information entrusted to professionals and maintains the trust necessary for effective professional relationships.

Question 126: What is the first phase of strategic planning?

Performance evaluation and reporting
Budget allocation and resource distribution
Implementation of tactical initiatives
Environmental analysis and assessment of current position (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Environmental analysis and assessment of current position

Strategic planning begins with analyzing the current environment, including internal strengths and weaknesses and external opportunities and threats (SWOT analysis).

Question 127: A patient is receiving IV potassium chloride. The practical nurse knows that IV potassium must NEVER be administered:

Undiluted as a direct IV push (Correct answer)
Through a peripheral IV line
In a saline-based IV solution
At a rate slower than 10 mEq/hr

Correct answer: Undiluted as a direct IV push

IV potassium given undiluted as a direct push causes fatal cardiac arrhythmias; it must always be diluted and infused slowly.

Question 128: What is the accepted normal blood pressure reading for a healthy adult?

120/80 mmHg (Correct answer)
160/100 mmHg
90/60 mmHg
140/90 mmHg

Correct answer: 120/80 mmHg

120/80 mmHg is the standard reference for normal blood pressure; readings at or above 130/80 mmHg are now classified as hypertension Stage 1 per current guidelines.

Question 129: What is the proper way to correct an error in professional documentation?

Draw a single line through the error, initial, date, and write the correction (Correct answer)
Ignore the error if it seems minor
Use white-out to cover the error completely
Remove the page and create a new one

Correct answer: Draw a single line through the error, initial, date, and write the correction

Proper error correction involves drawing a single line through the error (so it remains readable), adding initials and date, and writing the correct information nearby.

PSB Aptitude for Practical Nursing Examination (PSB-PN)

The PSB-PN is an entrance/aptitude examination by Psychological Services Bureau used by practical nursing programs to assess candidates across academic aptitude, natural sciences knowledge, spelling, nursing judgment, and vocational suitability.

360

Questions

120 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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