PMI Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP)® — Questions and Answers

Question 1: In agile, what does the term 'minimum viable product' (MVP) mean?

The simplest version of a product that allows the team to collect validated learning from customers (Correct answer)
The version of a product with the least number of bugs
The initial prototype created at the start of a project for stakeholder approval
The smallest version of a product that can be sold profitably

Correct answer: The simplest version of a product that allows the team to collect validated learning from customers

An MVP is a product with just enough features to gather validated learning about customers with the least effort, enabling early feedback and learning.

Question 2: What is the primary purpose of a Release Plan in agile projects?

To track daily team progress during a sprint
To assign tasks to individual team members
To document the technical architecture of the system
To provide a high-level view of when features will be delivered over multiple iterations (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To provide a high-level view of when features will be delivered over multiple iterations

A Release Plan maps out which product backlog items are expected to be delivered across future iterations to achieve a release goal.

Question 3: How does Vulnerability Assessment & Penetration Testing contribute to overall professional effectiveness?

It provides essential knowledge and skills that directly impact quality of work and outcomes (Correct answer)
It is relevant only during the certification examination
It serves only as a credential requirement with no practical impact
It applies only to supervisory-level professionals

Correct answer: It provides essential knowledge and skills that directly impact quality of work and outcomes

Vulnerability Assessment & Penetration Testing directly contributes to professional effectiveness by providing essential knowledge and skills that improve the quality of work and outcomes across all career levels.

Question 4: How does Database Management & Security contribute to overall professional effectiveness?

It provides essential knowledge and skills that directly impact quality of work and outcomes (Correct answer)
It applies only to supervisory-level professionals
It serves only as a credential requirement with no practical impact
It is relevant only during the certification examination

Correct answer: It provides essential knowledge and skills that directly impact quality of work and outcomes

Database Management & Security directly contributes to professional effectiveness by providing essential knowledge and skills that improve the quality of work and outcomes across all career levels.

Question 5: In agile projects, how should a Scrum Master handle a stakeholder who frequently interrupts the development team with direct requests?

Shield the team by routing requests through the Product Owner (Correct answer)
Allow direct communication to keep stakeholders informed
Escalate the issue immediately to senior management
Schedule a weekly meeting for the stakeholder to present all requests

Correct answer: Shield the team by routing requests through the Product Owner

The Product Owner acts as the single point of contact for stakeholder requests, protecting the team's focus during the Sprint.

Question 6: What common challenge do professionals face when applying Cryptography & Data Protection principles?

Finding the relevant textbook chapter
The principles are too simple to present any challenge
Balancing theoretical best practices with practical constraints and real-world conditions (Correct answer)
Obtaining permission to use the principles

Correct answer: Balancing theoretical best practices with practical constraints and real-world conditions

Professionals commonly face the challenge of adapting theoretical best practices in Cryptography & Data Protection to the practical constraints and varying conditions encountered in real-world settings.

Question 7: Which agile estimation technique groups user stories into broad size categories such as small, medium, large, and extra-large?

Planning Poker
T-shirt Sizing (Correct answer)
Three-Point Estimation
Wideband Delphi

Correct answer: T-shirt Sizing

T-shirt sizing uses clothing size categories to quickly and relatively group user stories by effort without assigning numeric values.

Question 8: In agile estimation, what unit is commonly used to represent the relative size or complexity of a user story?

Story Points (Correct answer)
Function Points
Hours
Days

Correct answer: Story Points

Story points are a relative unit of measure used in agile to estimate the effort, complexity, and uncertainty of user stories.

Question 9: Which type of agile planning focuses on a single iteration and determines what the team will work on during that timebox?

Iteration Planning (Correct answer)
Product Vision Planning
Portfolio Planning
Release Planning

Correct answer: Iteration Planning

Iteration (or sprint) planning determines which backlog items the team will work on and how they will accomplish the work in the upcoming iteration.

Question 10: What is the purpose of intrusion detection systems (IDS)?

To manage network IP addresses
To speed up network performance
To monitor network traffic for suspicious activity and known threats (Correct answer)
To prevent all unauthorized access automatically

Correct answer: To monitor network traffic for suspicious activity and known threats

IDS monitors network traffic for suspicious activity, known attack patterns, and policy violations, alerting administrators to potential security threats.

Question 11: What is the most important competency assessed in Application Security & Development for professionals in this field?

Memorization of textbook definitions only
Years of experience without demonstrated skill
Academic credentials without practical application
Applied knowledge and practical problem-solving ability (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Applied knowledge and practical problem-solving ability

Application Security & Development assessment focuses on applied knowledge and practical problem-solving ability, ensuring professionals can effectively perform in real-world situations.

Question 12: How does Cryptography & Data Protection contribute to overall professional effectiveness?

It applies only to supervisory-level professionals
It is relevant only during the certification examination
It serves only as a credential requirement with no practical impact
It provides essential knowledge and skills that directly impact quality of work and outcomes (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It provides essential knowledge and skills that directly impact quality of work and outcomes

Cryptography & Data Protection directly contributes to professional effectiveness by providing essential knowledge and skills that improve the quality of work and outcomes across all career levels.

Question 13: What common challenge do professionals face when applying Application Security & Development principles?

Obtaining permission to use the principles
The principles are too simple to present any challenge
Finding the relevant textbook chapter
Balancing theoretical best practices with practical constraints and real-world conditions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Balancing theoretical best practices with practical constraints and real-world conditions

Professionals commonly face the challenge of adapting theoretical best practices in Application Security & Development to the practical constraints and varying conditions encountered in real-world settings.

Question 14: Which agile practice best ensures ongoing stakeholder alignment throughout a project?

Creating a detailed project charter at the start
Holding Sprint Reviews at the end of each iteration (Correct answer)
Conducting annual stakeholder satisfaction surveys
Sending weekly status email reports

Correct answer: Holding Sprint Reviews at the end of each iteration

Sprint Reviews provide a regular forum for stakeholders to inspect the increment and adapt priorities, ensuring continuous alignment.

Question 15: During Sprint Planning, a stakeholder insists on adding new items to the Sprint backlog mid-session. What should the Scrum Master do?

Add the items immediately since stakeholders have final authority
Accept items only if they replace items of equal size
End Sprint Planning and restart with the new requirements
Acknowledge the request and route new items through the Product Owner for backlog refinement (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Acknowledge the request and route new items through the Product Owner for backlog refinement

New scope requests should go through the Product Owner for proper prioritization and backlog refinement rather than disrupting committed Sprint scope.

Question 16: In Scrum, who is responsible for maximizing the value of the product resulting from the work of the Development Team?

Project Manager
Product Owner (Correct answer)
Scrum Master
Development Team Lead

Correct answer: Product Owner

The Product Owner is solely responsible for managing the Product Backlog and maximizing the value of the product.

Question 17: What does the concept of an 'information radiator' mean in agile communication?

A tool that automatically sends daily emails to stakeholders
A confidential report shared only with senior management
A highly visible display of project information accessible to all (Correct answer)
A specialized software for tracking technical debt

Correct answer: A highly visible display of project information accessible to all

Information radiators are large, visible displays (like task boards or burn-down charts) that passively communicate project status to anyone who sees them.

Question 18: In agile planning, what is the purpose of the 'cone of uncertainty'?

To represent the range of possible sprint velocities
To track the number of risks identified in each iteration
To show how estimates become more accurate as a project progresses (Correct answer)
To illustrate how team velocity changes over time

Correct answer: To show how estimates become more accurate as a project progresses

The cone of uncertainty shows that early in a project, estimates have wide variance; as more is learned, the range of uncertainty narrows.

Question 19: Which metric measures the total amount of value delivered to customers over the life of an agile project?

Lead Time
Net Present Value (NPV) (Correct answer)
Cycle Time
Cumulative Story Points

Correct answer: Net Present Value (NPV)

Net Present Value (NPV) is a financial metric used in agile portfolio management to measure the overall value delivered by a project relative to its cost.

Question 20: In agile, what is 'progressive elaboration'?

Breaking user stories into smaller tasks during sprint planning
Adding more team members as the project grows in scope
Using retrospectives to improve team processes each sprint
Continuously refining plans and estimates as more information becomes available (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Continuously refining plans and estimates as more information becomes available

Progressive elaboration is the iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project plan as more information and understanding become available.

Question 21: Which communication technique is most aligned with the agile value of 'individuals and interactions over processes and tools'?

Structured change request forms for all scope modifications
Formal written status reports distributed weekly
Face-to-face conversation as the preferred communication mode (Correct answer)
A centralized issue-tracking system for all team communications

Correct answer: Face-to-face conversation as the preferred communication mode

The Agile Manifesto explicitly identifies face-to-face conversation as the most efficient and effective method of conveying information.

Question 22: What is a DMZ (Demilitarized Zone) in network architecture?

A network segment between internal and external networks that hosts public-facing services (Correct answer)
A restricted area where damaged equipment is stored
A meeting room for discussing network security
A backup data center in a remote location

Correct answer: A network segment between internal and external networks that hosts public-facing services

A DMZ is a network segment that sits between the internal network and external networks, hosting public-facing services while protecting the internal network from direct exposure.

Question 23: Which agile estimation technique involves team members simultaneously revealing their estimates to avoid anchoring bias?

Planning Poker (Correct answer)
T-shirt Sizing
Affinity Estimation
Dot Voting

Correct answer: Planning Poker

Planning Poker uses simultaneous card reveals so that individual estimates are not influenced by what others say first, reducing anchoring bias.

Question 24: In agile release planning, what is the concept of a 'minimal marketable feature' (MMF)?

The most frequently requested feature in the product backlog
The smallest chunk of functionality that delivers meaningful value to the customer (Correct answer)
A feature that can be completed within a single sprint
The feature with the lowest development cost

Correct answer: The smallest chunk of functionality that delivers meaningful value to the customer

An MMF is the smallest set of functionality that provides enough value that a customer would pay for it or recognize its benefit, enabling early value delivery.

Question 25: What does the term 'backlog refinement' (also called grooming) refer to in agile?

Removing completed items from the sprint board
Re-estimating velocity after a team member leaves
The ongoing process of reviewing, estimating, and prioritizing backlog items (Correct answer)
Closing out a release and archiving completed stories

Correct answer: The ongoing process of reviewing, estimating, and prioritizing backlog items

Backlog refinement is the activity of adding detail, estimates, and order to product backlog items to keep it ready for upcoming sprints.

Question 26: A product owner discovers that two key stakeholders have conflicting priorities for the next release. What is the BEST approach?

Implement both priorities simultaneously to satisfy everyone
Facilitate a prioritization session using relative ranking techniques (Correct answer)
Let the development team decide which feature to build first
Defer both features to a future release to avoid conflict

Correct answer: Facilitate a prioritization session using relative ranking techniques

Facilitating collaborative prioritization sessions (e.g., MoSCoW or dot voting) helps stakeholders reach consensus on relative value.

Question 27: A stakeholder map categorizes stakeholders by power and interest. Which group requires the MOST active engagement from the agile team?

High power, high interest stakeholders (Correct answer)
Low power, high interest stakeholders
High power, low interest stakeholders
Low power, low interest stakeholders

Correct answer: High power, high interest stakeholders

Stakeholders with high power and high interest have both the ability to influence the project and strong motivation to do so, making them the most critical to engage actively.

Question 28: Which best describes the scope of System Administration & Configuration in professional practice?

A theoretical framework with no practical applications
A comprehensive area covering both theoretical foundations and practical applications (Correct answer)
A narrow topic relevant only to entry-level professionals
An outdated concept no longer relevant to modern practice

Correct answer: A comprehensive area covering both theoretical foundations and practical applications

System Administration & Configuration encompasses both theoretical foundations and practical applications that are essential to professional practice in this field.

Question 29: What is the relationship between Operating Systems & Platforms and ethical professional conduct?

Ethics is relevant only when legal issues arise
Ethical considerations are integrated into all aspects of professional practice in this area (Correct answer)
There is no connection between technical knowledge and ethics
Ethics applies only to separate, unrelated decisions

Correct answer: Ethical considerations are integrated into all aspects of professional practice in this area

Ethical considerations are deeply integrated into Operating Systems & Platforms, as professional conduct and integrity underpin all aspects of practice in this field.

Question 30: Which of the following best describes a Definition of Done (DoD) in Scrum?

A shared understanding of what it means for work to be complete (Correct answer)
The set of features planned for the next release
A list of acceptance criteria for a single user story
The product backlog items selected for the current sprint

Correct answer: A shared understanding of what it means for work to be complete

The Definition of Done is a shared agreement across the Scrum Team about the quality standards that must be met before an increment is considered complete.

PMI Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP)®

The PMI-ACP® certifies practitioners' knowledge of agile principles and skill with agile techniques, recognizing proficiency across four domains: Mindset, Leadership, Product, and Delivery. It validates the ability to apply agile approaches to project management in real-world environments.

Questions

35 min

Time Limit

70%

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These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

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