PMI Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP)® — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which Agile framework uses a visual board with columns representing workflow stages and limits on work-in-progress?

DSDM
Extreme Programming (XP)
Kanban (Correct answer)
Scrum

Correct answer: Kanban

Kanban is characterized by its visual board and WIP (work-in-progress) limits to optimize flow.

Question 2: What is the most important competency assessed in System Administration & Configuration for professionals in this field?

Applied knowledge and practical problem-solving ability (Correct answer)
Memorization of textbook definitions only
Academic credentials without practical application
Years of experience without demonstrated skill

Correct answer: Applied knowledge and practical problem-solving ability

System Administration & Configuration assessment focuses on applied knowledge and practical problem-solving ability, ensuring professionals can effectively perform in real-world situations.

Question 3: How often should compliance procedures be reviewed and updated?

Regularly, and whenever regulations change or new risks are identified (Correct answer)
Every ten years regardless of changes
Only when an audit is scheduled
Once at initial certification and never again

Correct answer: Regularly, and whenever regulations change or new risks are identified

Compliance procedures should be reviewed regularly and updated whenever regulations change, new risks emerge, or organizational changes occur.

Question 4: In agile planning, what is the purpose of the 'cone of uncertainty'?

To represent the range of possible sprint velocities
To show how estimates become more accurate as a project progresses (Correct answer)
To track the number of risks identified in each iteration
To illustrate how team velocity changes over time

Correct answer: To show how estimates become more accurate as a project progresses

The cone of uncertainty shows that early in a project, estimates have wide variance; as more is learned, the range of uncertainty narrows.

Question 5: A Product Owner wants to communicate the product vision to both technical and non-technical stakeholders. Which tool is MOST effective?

A product roadmap with visual milestones and themes (Correct answer)
A technical architecture diagram with data flow charts
A spreadsheet listing all user stories and acceptance criteria
A detailed 50-page requirements specification document

Correct answer: A product roadmap with visual milestones and themes

A product roadmap with visual milestones communicates direction and value at a level accessible to all stakeholders regardless of technical background.

Question 6: What is the relationship between Vulnerability Assessment & Penetration Testing and ethical professional conduct?

Ethical considerations are integrated into all aspects of professional practice in this area (Correct answer)
Ethics is relevant only when legal issues arise
Ethics applies only to separate, unrelated decisions
There is no connection between technical knowledge and ethics

Correct answer: Ethical considerations are integrated into all aspects of professional practice in this area

Ethical considerations are deeply integrated into Vulnerability Assessment & Penetration Testing, as professional conduct and integrity underpin all aspects of practice in this field.

Question 7: How does Cloud Computing & Virtualization contribute to overall professional effectiveness?

It provides essential knowledge and skills that directly impact quality of work and outcomes (Correct answer)
It serves only as a credential requirement with no practical impact
It applies only to supervisory-level professionals
It is relevant only during the certification examination

Correct answer: It provides essential knowledge and skills that directly impact quality of work and outcomes

Cloud Computing & Virtualization directly contributes to professional effectiveness by providing essential knowledge and skills that improve the quality of work and outcomes across all career levels.

Question 8: Which agile estimation technique groups user stories into broad size categories such as small, medium, large, and extra-large?

Planning Poker
Three-Point Estimation
Wideband Delphi
T-shirt Sizing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: T-shirt Sizing

T-shirt sizing uses clothing size categories to quickly and relatively group user stories by effort without assigning numeric values.

Question 9: In agile estimation, what unit is commonly used to represent the relative size or complexity of a user story?

Function Points
Story Points (Correct answer)
Days
Hours

Correct answer: Story Points

Story points are a relative unit of measure used in agile to estimate the effort, complexity, and uncertainty of user stories.

Question 10: Which best describes the scope of System Administration & Configuration in professional practice?

A comprehensive area covering both theoretical foundations and practical applications (Correct answer)
An outdated concept no longer relevant to modern practice
A theoretical framework with no practical applications
A narrow topic relevant only to entry-level professionals

Correct answer: A comprehensive area covering both theoretical foundations and practical applications

System Administration & Configuration encompasses both theoretical foundations and practical applications that are essential to professional practice in this field.

Question 11: What is the most important competency assessed in Application Security & Development for professionals in this field?

Memorization of textbook definitions only
Applied knowledge and practical problem-solving ability (Correct answer)
Academic credentials without practical application
Years of experience without demonstrated skill

Correct answer: Applied knowledge and practical problem-solving ability

Application Security & Development assessment focuses on applied knowledge and practical problem-solving ability, ensuring professionals can effectively perform in real-world situations.

Question 12: What is network segmentation and why is it important?

Upgrading all network cables simultaneously
Removing old network equipment
Increasing the number of network devices
Dividing a network into smaller segments to contain breaches and control access (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Dividing a network into smaller segments to contain breaches and control access

Network segmentation divides a network into isolated segments, limiting the spread of security breaches and providing granular access control.

Question 13: What is the relationship between Database Management & Security and ethical professional conduct?

Ethics is relevant only when legal issues arise
There is no connection between technical knowledge and ethics
Ethical considerations are integrated into all aspects of professional practice in this area (Correct answer)
Ethics applies only to separate, unrelated decisions

Correct answer: Ethical considerations are integrated into all aspects of professional practice in this area

Ethical considerations are deeply integrated into Database Management & Security, as professional conduct and integrity underpin all aspects of practice in this field.

Question 14: In the Cynefin framework, how should communication differ when a project moves from 'complicated' to 'complex' domains?

Reduce stakeholder communication to avoid confusion
Increase the number of formal documentation requirements
Apply best practices from similar past projects directly
Switch from expert analysis to probe-sense-respond experimentation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Switch from expert analysis to probe-sense-respond experimentation

In complex domains, cause-and-effect relationships are only understood retrospectively, requiring experimental approaches (probe-sense-respond) rather than expert analysis.

Question 15: Which best describes the scope of Threat Detection & Incident Response in professional practice?

An outdated concept no longer relevant to modern practice
A theoretical framework with no practical applications
A comprehensive area covering both theoretical foundations and practical applications (Correct answer)
A narrow topic relevant only to entry-level professionals

Correct answer: A comprehensive area covering both theoretical foundations and practical applications

Threat Detection & Incident Response encompasses both theoretical foundations and practical applications that are essential to professional practice in this field.

Question 16: What is the recommended approach to staying current in Vulnerability Assessment & Penetration Testing?

Reviewing initial training materials once per year
Relying solely on past experience
Waiting for regulatory changes to force updates
Regular professional development, industry publications, and peer collaboration (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Regular professional development, industry publications, and peer collaboration

Staying current in Vulnerability Assessment & Penetration Testing requires ongoing professional development, reading industry publications, and collaborating with peers to share knowledge and best practices.

Question 17: According to PMI-ACP principles, how frequently should stakeholders receive updates on project progress?

Annually during formal project reviews
Only when problems or risks are identified
Only when major milestones are completed
At regular intervals aligned with iteration cadence (Correct answer)

Correct answer: At regular intervals aligned with iteration cadence

Agile emphasizes frequent, regular communication aligned with the iteration rhythm to enable timely feedback and course corrections.

Question 18: When presenting agile metrics to executive stakeholders, which combination of metrics provides the BEST strategic view?

Story points completed per Sprint and number of bugs fixed
Release burn-down, team velocity trend, and business value delivered (Correct answer)
Lines of code written and test coverage percentage
Number of daily standups held and retrospective action items closed

Correct answer: Release burn-down, team velocity trend, and business value delivered

Release burn-down, velocity trends, and business value delivered give executives insight into predictability, capacity, and ROI without requiring technical knowledge.

Question 19: Which principle from the Agile Manifesto states that working software is delivered frequently, with a preference for a shorter timescale?

Principle 11
Principle 1
Principle 3 (Correct answer)
Principle 7

Correct answer: Principle 3

Agile Principle 3 states: deliver working software frequently, from a couple of weeks to a couple of months, with a preference for the shorter timescale.

Question 20: In the Cynefin framework, which domain requires sensing, analyzing, and responding where cause-and-effect are not immediately apparent?

Complex (Correct answer)
Chaotic
Complicated
Simple

Correct answer: Complex

In the Complex domain, cause-and-effect can only be understood in retrospect, requiring probe-sense-respond approaches.

Question 21: What is the purpose of a 'Definition of Ready' (DoR) in agile planning?

To outline the acceptance criteria for the final product
To list all tasks that must be done before a release can go live
To define when a sprint has been successfully completed
To establish criteria that a user story must meet before it can be taken into a sprint (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To establish criteria that a user story must meet before it can be taken into a sprint

The Definition of Ready specifies the minimum criteria a user story must meet (e.g., estimated, clearly defined, testable) before the team can pull it into a sprint.

Question 22: A product owner discovers that two key stakeholders have conflicting priorities for the next release. What is the BEST approach?

Facilitate a prioritization session using relative ranking techniques (Correct answer)
Let the development team decide which feature to build first
Defer both features to a future release to avoid conflict
Implement both priorities simultaneously to satisfy everyone

Correct answer: Facilitate a prioritization session using relative ranking techniques

Facilitating collaborative prioritization sessions (e.g., MoSCoW or dot voting) helps stakeholders reach consensus on relative value.

Question 23: Which agile practice best ensures ongoing stakeholder alignment throughout a project?

Conducting annual stakeholder satisfaction surveys
Holding Sprint Reviews at the end of each iteration (Correct answer)
Creating a detailed project charter at the start
Sending weekly status email reports

Correct answer: Holding Sprint Reviews at the end of each iteration

Sprint Reviews provide a regular forum for stakeholders to inspect the increment and adapt priorities, ensuring continuous alignment.

Question 24: A newly formed agile team has a remote Product Owner in a different time zone. What practice BEST mitigates communication risks?

Conduct all backlog refinement sessions at 2 AM local time
Replace the Product Owner with a local business analyst
Establish overlapping working hours and async communication protocols (Correct answer)
Require the Product Owner to relocate temporarily

Correct answer: Establish overlapping working hours and async communication protocols

Establishing overlapping hours for synchronous meetings and using asynchronous tools for other communication balances the need for collaboration with time zone constraints.

Question 25: What is the relationship between Application Security & Development and ethical professional conduct?

Ethics is relevant only when legal issues arise
Ethics applies only to separate, unrelated decisions
There is no connection between technical knowledge and ethics
Ethical considerations are integrated into all aspects of professional practice in this area (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ethical considerations are integrated into all aspects of professional practice in this area

Ethical considerations are deeply integrated into Application Security & Development, as professional conduct and integrity underpin all aspects of practice in this field.

Question 26: Which stakeholder communication approach is described in the Agile Practice Guide as most effective for managing expectations?

Comprehensive upfront planning that eliminates surprises
Under-promise and over-deliver on all commitments
Frequent delivery of working software with transparent progress sharing (Correct answer)
Limiting stakeholder access to technical team details

Correct answer: Frequent delivery of working software with transparent progress sharing

The Agile Practice Guide emphasizes that frequent delivery of working software combined with transparent reporting manages expectations more effectively than planning promises.

Question 27: What does 'osmotic communication' mean in agile teams?

Sending information through formal written channels
Information absorbed passively by co-located team members overhearing conversations (Correct answer)
A structured daily meeting where all project information is shared
Using project management software to broadcast updates

Correct answer: Information absorbed passively by co-located team members overhearing conversations

Osmotic communication refers to the passive absorption of project information that occurs naturally in a co-located team environment through overheard conversations.

Question 28: Which best describes the scope of Vulnerability Assessment & Penetration Testing in professional practice?

A narrow topic relevant only to entry-level professionals
A theoretical framework with no practical applications
An outdated concept no longer relevant to modern practice
A comprehensive area covering both theoretical foundations and practical applications (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A comprehensive area covering both theoretical foundations and practical applications

Vulnerability Assessment & Penetration Testing encompasses both theoretical foundations and practical applications that are essential to professional practice in this field.

Question 29: Velocity in agile is calculated as:

The number of user stories completed per sprint
Total story points in the backlog divided by team size
The maximum story points a team can commit to in a sprint
The average number of story points completed per iteration (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The average number of story points completed per iteration

Velocity is the average amount of work (in story points) a team completes per sprint, used for forecasting future sprints.

Question 30: What is the relationship between Threat Detection & Incident Response and ethical professional conduct?

Ethical considerations are integrated into all aspects of professional practice in this area (Correct answer)
There is no connection between technical knowledge and ethics
Ethics is relevant only when legal issues arise
Ethics applies only to separate, unrelated decisions

Correct answer: Ethical considerations are integrated into all aspects of professional practice in this area

Ethical considerations are deeply integrated into Threat Detection & Incident Response, as professional conduct and integrity underpin all aspects of practice in this field.

PMI Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP)®

The PMI-ACP® certifies practitioners' knowledge of agile principles and skill with agile techniques, recognizing proficiency across four domains: Mindset, Leadership, Product, and Delivery. It validates the ability to apply agile approaches to project management in real-world environments.

Questions

35 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

Checking for saved progress...

Exam Rules

You can skip questions and return to them later
Flag questions for review before submitting
No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
Timer auto-submits when time runs out
Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds