Praxis Core Academic Skills for Educators (5752) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: What is the role of chlorophyll in photosynthesis?

It provides the carbon dioxide needed for photosynthesis.
It absorbs light energy, primarily from the red and blue portions of the visible spectrum, to power photosynthesis. (Correct answer)
It transports glucose from leaves to the rest of the plant.
It produces water as a byproduct of photosynthesis.

Correct answer: It absorbs light energy, primarily from the red and blue portions of the visible spectrum, to power photosynthesis.

Chlorophyll is the green pigment in chloroplasts that absorbs light energy (primarily red and blue wavelengths) to power the photosynthetic reactions.

Question 2: From this passage, we can infer that Edison:

D: read the newspaper every day.
B: hated the other boy.
A: knew all about animals.
E: could not climb a tree.
C: lived in a city. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: C: lived in a city.

Working as a newsboy, especially one who would 'fetch the captain' for a shipping company, strongly implies that Edison lived in an urban area or a town with a port. These activities are characteristic of a city environment, where newspapers are distributed and shipping operations are concentrated.

Question 3: A teacher says 'cake' and asks students to change the /k/ to /l/. This phonemic awareness task is:

Rhyme generation
Phoneme substitution (Correct answer)
Phoneme blending
Syllable counting

Correct answer: Phoneme substitution

Replacing one phoneme with another to make a new word is phoneme substitution.

Question 4: Which of the following correctly demonstrates a restrictive clause?

The teacher who, won an award, retired last year.
The teacher, who won an award retired last year.
The teacher who won an award retired last year. (Correct answer)
The teacher, who won an award, retired last year.

Correct answer: The teacher who won an award retired last year.

A restrictive clause is essential to the meaning of the sentence and should NOT be set off by commas. Option B correctly omits commas.

Question 5: A clothing retailer is offering a deal on boots with a 10% discount and gloves with a 15% discount. A pair of boots typically costs b, and a pair of gloves typically costs g. Which of the following expressions best describes the total cost of one pair of boots and two pairs of gloves during this sale?

2.6bg
0.75(b + g)
0.9b + 1.7g (Correct answer)
0.1b + 0.3g

Correct answer: 0.9b + 1.7g

For boots, a 10% discount means the customer pays 90% of the original price, so the cost is 0.9b. For gloves, a 15% discount means the customer pays 85% of the original price, making one pair cost 0.85g. Since the question asks for the cost of one pair of boots and *two* pairs of gloves, the total cost is 0.9b + 2 * (0.85g), which simplifies to 0.9b + 1.7g.

Question 6: Which sentence contains a dangling modifier?

Running to catch the bus, the phone was dropped. (Correct answer)
Maria, running to catch the bus, dropped her phone.
While running to catch the bus, Maria dropped her phone.
Running to catch the bus, Maria dropped her phone.

Correct answer: Running to catch the bus, the phone was dropped.

In option B, the participial phrase 'Running to catch the bus' has no logical subject — the phone cannot run.

Question 7: When mixing sand and water, what type of change occurs?

Physical change (Correct answer)
Combustion
Chemical change
Nuclear change

Correct answer: Physical change

Mixing sand and water is a physical change because no new substance forms and it can be separated.

Question 8: A scientific article describes a study with a sample size of 12 people. What should a critical reader note about this study?

The study is invalid because it should have used animals.
The small sample size limits how broadly the results can be generalized. (Correct answer)
The study is highly reliable because it involved real people.
Small samples are always more accurate than large ones.

Correct answer: The small sample size limits how broadly the results can be generalized.

Small sample sizes reduce statistical power and limit the generalizability of findings to broader populations.

Question 9: What is the standard algorithm for multi-digit multiplication, and what conceptual understanding should accompany it?

Repeated addition; understanding multiplication as adding the same number many times
Using a calculator; understanding that tools support computation
Estimation and rounding; understanding that precise answers aren't needed
The partial products method followed by regrouping; understanding place value and the distributive property (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The partial products method followed by regrouping; understanding place value and the distributive property

The standard multiplication algorithm uses partial products and regrouping, grounded in place value and the distributive property.

Question 10: What is the primary purpose of the conclusion in an argumentative essay?

To list all sources used in the essay
To provide additional evidence for the main claim
To introduce new arguments not previously discussed
To restate the thesis and summarize how evidence supports it (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To restate the thesis and summarize how evidence supports it

The conclusion restates the thesis and synthesizes how the body paragraphs' evidence supports the central argument.

Question 11: Randy got the following test scores in science class: 76,98,78,80 and 54. What is the median test score?

78 (Correct answer)
84
54

Correct answer: 78

To find the median of a set of numbers, first arrange them in ascending order. The scores are 54, 76, 78, 80, 98. The median is the middle value in an ordered list. Since there are five scores, the third score (78) is the middle value, representing the median.

Question 12: Which of the following best defines 'synthesis' in the context of reading informational texts?

Combining information from multiple sources to build a new understanding (Correct answer)
Copying information from multiple texts into one document
Finding errors in two different sources
Summarizing one text at a time without connection

Correct answer: Combining information from multiple sources to build a new understanding

Synthesis is the process of integrating information from multiple sources to create a new, more complete understanding.

Question 13: Which of the following is an example of text-based evidence?

A student's personal experience with the topic
A teacher's explanation of the text
A direct quotation from the passage to support an interpretation (Correct answer)
A student's emotional reaction to the text

Correct answer: A direct quotation from the passage to support an interpretation

Text-based evidence comes directly from the text — quotations, paraphrases, or specific details — not from outside experience or opinion.

Question 14: "If only he had listened to the words of his mother, he wouldn't be in this silly situation."

C: he wouldn’t be
E: No error (Correct answer)
B: of his mother
A: If only he had
D: this silly situation.

Correct answer: E: No error

The sentence is grammatically correct, using the proper conditional structure ("If only he had listened... he wouldn't be"). There are no issues with punctuation, word choice, or verb tense. Therefore, the sentence requires no correction.

Question 15: What are the three states of matter, and what distinguishes them at the molecular level?

Dense, medium, light; distinguished by density
Solid, liquid, plasma; distinguished by temperature only
Solid, liquid, gas; distinguished by particle arrangement, energy, and intermolecular spacing (Correct answer)
Solid, liquid, gas; distinguished by color, weight, and volume

Correct answer: Solid, liquid, gas; distinguished by particle arrangement, energy, and intermolecular spacing

The three common states of matter differ in how their particles are arranged and how much energy they have: solids (tightly packed, vibrate in place), liquids (close but mobile), gases (far apart, move freely).

Question 16: Which of the following best describes a 'logical fallacy' in an argumentative text?

A well-supported claim based on solid evidence
A flaw in reasoning that weakens or invalidates an argument (Correct answer)
A counterargument the author successfully refutes
A statistical claim that cannot be verified

Correct answer: A flaw in reasoning that weakens or invalidates an argument

A logical fallacy is an error in reasoning that makes an argument invalid or misleading, regardless of whether the conclusion might be true.

Question 17: George buys 6 t-shirts for $5 each and 4 pairs of jeans for $8.50 each. He uses the following expression to calculate the total amount of money spent: 6 (5) + 4 (8.5). Which of the following expressions could George also have used?

4 (5 + 8.5) + 2 (5) (Correct answer)
2 (5 + 8.5) + 4 (8.5)
(4 + 2) + (5 + 8.5)

Correct answer: 4 (5 + 8.5) + 2 (5)

George's original expression is 6(5) + 4(8.5). We need to find an equivalent expression. Option B, 4(5 + 8.5) + 2(5), expands to 4(5) + 4(8.5) + 2(5). Combining the terms with 5, we get (4+2)(5) + 4(8.5), which simplifies to 6(5) + 4(8.5), matching the original expression.

Question 18: Which sentence is free of a comma splice?

It was late we, went home.
It was late, we went home.
It was late we went home, .
It was late, so we went home. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It was late, so we went home.

A coordinating conjunction "so" properly joins the two independent clauses.

Question 19: Which sentence correctly uses a colon?

She needed: pencils, paper, and erasers.
She needed the following: pencils, paper, and erasers. (Correct answer)
She needed pencils: paper, and erasers.
She: needed pencils, paper, and erasers.

Correct answer: She needed the following: pencils, paper, and erasers.

A colon follows a complete independent clause to introduce a list.

Question 20: Identify the sentence with no double negative.

She can't hardly wait.
We didn't see nobody.
I don't have any homework. (Correct answer)
I don't have no homework.

Correct answer: I don't have any homework.

"Don't have any" avoids the double negative found in the other options.

Question 21: The Hebrews were considered the first monotheistic civilization. What religion did thy practice?

Hinduism
Protestantism
Judaism (Correct answer)
Christianity

Correct answer: Judaism

The Hebrews are historically recognized as the originators of monotheism, the belief in one God, which formed the basis of their religion. This religion is known as Judaism, making it the first monotheistic civilization to practice this faith.

Question 22: What is an r-controlled vowel?

A vowel that is silent when followed by 'r'
A vowel whose sound is modified by a following 'r,' making neither a short nor long vowel sound (Correct answer)
A vowel that makes the following 'r' silent
An 'r' that acts as a vowel in a word

Correct answer: A vowel whose sound is modified by a following 'r,' making neither a short nor long vowel sound

R-controlled vowels (like 'ar,' 'er,' 'ir,' 'or,' 'ur') have vowel sounds that are modified by the following /r/, producing unique sounds not classified as simply short or long.

Question 23: What does it mean when a text includes a counterargument?

The author acknowledges an opposing viewpoint before rebutting it. (Correct answer)
The author disagrees with the main claim of the text.
The text contains factual errors.
The author has changed their position.

Correct answer: The author acknowledges an opposing viewpoint before rebutting it.

A counterargument is an opposing view that the author presents and then addresses or refutes to strengthen their overall argument.

Question 24: She didn't answer him; she was concentrating on her paper.

B: him;
D: paper.
C: was concentrating
A: didn’t
E: No error (Correct answer)

Correct answer: E: No error

The sentence is grammatically correct. The semicolon is appropriately used to connect two closely related independent clauses. There are no errors in punctuation, word choice, or sentence structure.

Question 25: A student can read 'ph' words but struggles with 'gh' words like 'enough' and 'laugh.' What phonics concept applies?

The /f/ sound can be spelled multiple ways, including 'ph,' 'gh,' and 'f' (Correct answer)
R-controlled vowels
Silent letters
Vowel digraphs

Correct answer: The /f/ sound can be spelled multiple ways, including 'ph,' 'gh,' and 'f'

The /f/ phoneme can be spelled as 'f,' 'ff,' 'ph,' or 'gh' (in specific positions). 'Ph' and 'gh' (at the end of some words) both represent /f/.

Question 26: Who knows who will be the winner?

Whom knows who
Who knows whom
Whom knows whom
Who knew whom
Who knows who (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Who knows who

The correct choice uses "who" in both instances because it functions as the subject of a verb in both clauses. In "Who knows...", "who" is the subject of the verb "knows". In the embedded clause "...who will be the winner?", "who" is the subject of the verb phrase "will be". "Whom" is an objective pronoun and would be used when it is the object of a verb or preposition, which is not the case here.

Question 27: Which of the following is the same as the 4:12 ratio?

48
1/3 (Correct answer)
3/4
12:4

Correct answer: 1/3

A ratio like 4:12 can be expressed as a fraction, 4/12. To find an equivalent and simplified form, divide both parts of the ratio (or numerator and denominator of the fraction) by their greatest common divisor. In this case, both 4 and 12 are divisible by 4, so 4 ÷ 4 = 1 and 12 ÷ 4 = 3, resulting in the simplified ratio or fraction of 1/3.

Question 28: Ray drives across town and picked up some supplies for the celebratory meal.

D: celebratory meal.
A: Ray
B: drives (Correct answer)
C: up
E: No error

Correct answer: B: drives

The sentence demonstrates an error in verb tense consistency. "Drives" is in the present tense, while "picked up" is in the past tense. To maintain parallelism and consistency, both verbs should be in the same tense, either "drove" (past) or "drives and picks up" (present).

Question 29: At seventeen he shipped as a cabin boy, bound for Liverpool.

a cabin boy, bound for" (Correct answer)
a cabin boy; bound
a cabin boy—for bound
a cabin boy: bound for
a cabin boy—bound for

Correct answer: a cabin boy, bound for"

The phrase "bound for Liverpool" is a non-restrictive participial phrase that provides additional, descriptive information about the "cabin boy." Since this information is not essential to the meaning of the main clause, it should be set off by a comma. The comma correctly separates the descriptive phrase from the rest of the sentence, following standard punctuation rules for non-essential elements.

Question 30: The description of the windmill as "rheumatic and stiff in the joints from age" is an example of what literary device?"

C: personification (Correct answer)
E: assonance
A: synecdoche
D: simile
B: alliteration

Correct answer: C: personification

Personification is a literary device where human qualities or actions are attributed to inanimate objects or abstract ideas. Describing the windmill as 'rheumatic and stiff in the joints from age' gives it human ailments, making it a clear example of personification.

Question 31: Which sentence contains a comma splice?

She studied all night, consequently she passed the exam. (Correct answer)
She studied all night and consequently passed the exam.
Because she studied all night, she passed the exam.
She studied all night; consequently, she passed the exam.

Correct answer: She studied all night, consequently she passed the exam.

A comma splice occurs when two independent clauses are joined only by a comma. Option A joins two independent clauses ('She studied all night' and 'consequently she passed the exam') with just a comma.

Question 32: Inherited traits are passed from parents to offspring through what?

Genes (Correct answer)
Learned behavior
Diet
Environment

Correct answer: Genes

Genes carry hereditary information passed from parents to offspring.

Question 33: What is fluency in the context of reading instruction?

The ability to read accurately, at an appropriate rate, and with expression (Correct answer)
The ability to comprehend complex texts
The ability to sound out unfamiliar words
The ability to read silently without lip movement

Correct answer: The ability to read accurately, at an appropriate rate, and with expression

Reading fluency encompasses accuracy (correct word recognition), rate (appropriate speed), and prosody (expression/phrasing that reflects meaning).

Question 34: Which sentence correctly uses a semicolon?

The rain stopped, the sun came out.
The rain stopped; and the sun came out.
The rain stopped; the sun came out. (Correct answer)
The rain; stopped the sun came out.

Correct answer: The rain stopped; the sun came out.

A semicolon joins two related independent clauses without a conjunction.

Question 35: What is the difference between accommodations and modifications in special education?

They are synonymous terms for the same concept.
Accommodations change the curriculum; modifications change the testing conditions.
Modifications help all students; accommodations are only for students with IEPs.
Accommodations change how a student accesses learning without changing the standard; modifications change what the student is expected to learn. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Accommodations change how a student accesses learning without changing the standard; modifications change what the student is expected to learn.

Accommodations change how a student accesses or demonstrates learning (extra time, large print) without changing the standard. Modifications change the content or expectations (reduced number of items, simplified text).

Question 36: Without making a sound Geoffrey crept down the stairs.

sound Geoffrey crept
sound, Geoffrey crept (Correct answer)
sound; Geoffrey crept
sound Geoffrey, crept
sound, crept Geoffrey

Correct answer: sound, Geoffrey crept

The phrase "Without making a sound" is an introductory adverbial phrase that modifies the main clause "Geoffrey crept down the stairs." According to standard punctuation rules, an introductory phrase of this length should be followed by a comma to separate it from the independent clause that follows. This improves readability and clarifies the sentence structure.

Question 37: Which of the following is a run-on sentence?

Although the test was hard, most students passed.
The test was hard; however, most students passed.
The test was hard most students still passed. (Correct answer)
The test was hard, but most students passed.

Correct answer: The test was hard most students still passed.

Option B joins two independent clauses without any punctuation or conjunction, making it a run-on sentence.

Question 38: When a student decodes 'rabbit' as 'rab-bit,' splitting between the double consonants, the student is applying:

Syllable division rules (Correct answer)
Sight-word strategy
Prefix removal
Diphthong recognition

Correct answer: Syllable division rules

Dividing between two consonants (VCCV pattern) is a standard syllabication rule for multisyllabic words.

Question 39: What is a consonant blend?

Two or more consonants in sequence where each retains its sound (Correct answer)
A consonant followed by a silent letter
A vowel combined with a consonant
Two letters that represent a single sound

Correct answer: Two or more consonants in sequence where each retains its sound

A consonant blend has two or more consonants that each retain their own sound, like 'str' in 'string' (/s/-/t/-/r/).

Question 40: Which of the following best describes an argumentative text?

A text that describes a process step by step
A text that compares two historical events
A text that tells a fictional story with characters and plot
A text that presents a claim and uses evidence to support it (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A text that presents a claim and uses evidence to support it

An argumentative text presents a claim (thesis) and supports it with evidence, reasoning, and sometimes counterarguments.

Question 41: This passage probably comes from:"

E: an encyclopedia.
D: the end of a long story.
C: an editorial.
B: a brochure for Antwerp.
A: the beginning of a story. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A: the beginning of a story.

The passage likely serves to introduce a setting, a character, or the initial circumstances of a narrative. This descriptive function is characteristic of the beginning of a story, where the author establishes the scene and sets the tone before the main plot unfolds.

Question 42: What error appears in the sentence: 'The data shows that the hypothesis were correct'?

Tense error
Number agreement error only
Both subject-verb and number agreement errors (Correct answer)
Subject-verb agreement error only

Correct answer: Both subject-verb and number agreement errors

'Data' is plural (singular: datum), so the verb should be 'show.' 'Hypothesis' is singular, so 'was' should replace 'were.'

Question 43: A writer describes a child's suffering to evoke sympathy in the reader. This is an example of which rhetorical appeal?

Pathos (Correct answer)
Logos
Kairos
Ethos

Correct answer: Pathos

Pathos appeals to the audience's emotions to persuade them, often using vivid, emotional language or stories.

Question 44: Which is the best revision of the following wordy sentence: 'Due to the fact that he was sick, he did not attend school'?

He was sick due to the fact that he didn't attend.
He did not attend school, he was sick.
Because he was sick, he did not attend school. (Correct answer)
Because he was sick he did not attend school.

Correct answer: Because he was sick, he did not attend school.

'Due to the fact that' is wordy and can be replaced by 'because.' Option B also correctly adds a comma after the introductory clause.

Question 45: A container holds 2.5 liters. If it is 3/4 full, how much liquid is inside?

1.875 liters (Correct answer)
2.0 liters
1.75 liters
1.5 liters

Correct answer: 1.875 liters

3/4 of 2.5 = 0.75 × 2.5 = 1.875 liters.

Question 46: Which of the following numbers has the greatest absolute value: 17, -9, 15.5, -20, 19?

15.5
19
- 20 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: - 20

The absolute value of a number is its distance from zero on the number line, always represented as a positive value. For the given numbers: |17|=17, |-9|=9, |15.5|=15.5, |-20|=20, and |19|=19. Comparing these absolute values, 20 is the greatest, which corresponds to the number -20.

Question 47: What does it mean to 'analyze' an informational text?

To translate the text into simpler language
To copy the main points word for word
To read the text one time quickly
To examine how elements of the text work together to create meaning (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To examine how elements of the text work together to create meaning

Analysis involves examining how components of a text — structure, language, evidence, purpose — function together to produce meaning.

Question 48: What is the key difference between 'revising' and 'editing' in the writing process?

They are the same process
Editing focuses on content; revising focuses on spelling
Revising focuses on content and structure; editing focuses on grammar and mechanics (Correct answer)
Revising is done last and only fixes spelling

Correct answer: Revising focuses on content and structure; editing focuses on grammar and mechanics

Revising addresses higher-order concerns like argument and organization, while editing addresses lower-order concerns like grammar and punctuation.

Question 49: Which of the following factors did NOT drive crop prices down after the Civil War?"

E: None of the above.
A: increase in supply
C: decrease in supply (Correct answer)
B: advances in transportation
D: advances in communication

Correct answer: C: decrease in supply

A decrease in supply, assuming demand remains constant, typically leads to an *increase* in prices, not a decrease. Factors like an increase in supply, advances in transportation (making goods cheaper to move), and advances in communication (improving market efficiency) would all contribute to driving crop prices down after the Civil War.

Question 50: Which vowel team correctly represents a long vowel sound?

'ea' in 'bread'
'oo' in 'book'
'ai' in 'rain' (Correct answer)
'ou' in 'cloud'

Correct answer: 'ai' in 'rain'

'Ai' in 'rain' is a vowel team that produces the long /eɪ/ sound. The others produce short or different vowel sounds in these specific words.

Question 51: When organizing a compare-and-contrast essay, which method presents all points about one subject before all points about the other?

Spatial method
Block method (Correct answer)
Point-by-point method
Chronological method

Correct answer: Block method

The block method organizes a compare-and-contrast essay by discussing all aspects of one subject first, then all aspects of the second subject.

Question 52: "These brief setbacks despite being annoying, did not dissuade Leonard from his long - term goals."

E: No error
A: setbacks despite (Correct answer)
C: Leonard
D: long-term goal.
"B: annoying, "

Correct answer: A: setbacks despite

The phrase "despite being annoying" is an introductory or parenthetical phrase that modifies "setbacks." It should be set off by commas to clearly separate it from the main clause. The correct punctuation would be "setbacks, despite being annoying, did not dissuade..."

Question 53: A teacher wants to ensure her lesson on photosynthesis addresses multiple levels of the cognitive domain, according to the revised Bloom's Taxonomy. Which of the following sets of student activities best represents a progression from a lower-order to a higher-order thinking skill?

Applying the concept to a new scenario, then identifying the reactants and products.
Creating a diagram of the process, then listing the key components.
Analyzing the impact of limited sunlight, then explaining the process in their own words.
Recalling the chemical equation for photosynthesis, then designing an experiment to test a variable affecting plant growth. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Recalling the chemical equation for photosynthesis, then designing an experiment to test a variable affecting plant growth.

According to the revised Bloom's Taxonomy, the cognitive levels progress from lower-order to higher-order thinking skills: Remembering, Understanding, Applying, Analyzing, Evaluating, and Creating. [2, 5] Recalling the chemical equation is at the 'Remembering' level. Designing an experiment is at the 'Creating' level, which is the highest level of cognitive skill in the revised taxonomy. [4] This option shows a clear progression from a basic skill to a highly complex one.

Question 54: What distinguishes a 'structured literacy' approach to reading instruction?

A focus exclusively on sight word memorization
An approach that integrates phonological awareness, phonics, fluency, vocabulary, and comprehension in explicit, systematic instruction (Correct answer)
Emphasis on reading for pleasure without explicit skills instruction
An approach based primarily on guided reading groups

Correct answer: An approach that integrates phonological awareness, phonics, fluency, vocabulary, and comprehension in explicit, systematic instruction

Structured literacy is an explicit, systematic, multisensory approach that addresses all components of reading, particularly benefiting students with dyslexia.

Question 55: It went on raining, and every day it got a little higher.

on raining, and every day (Correct answer)
on raining, every day
raining on; and every day
on raining: and every day
raining on, and every day

Correct answer: on raining, and every day

The sentence consists of two independent clauses: "It went on raining" and "every day it got a little higher." These two independent clauses are correctly joined by the coordinating conjunction "and." According to standard punctuation rules, a comma should precede a coordinating conjunction when it connects two independent clauses, making option A the grammatically correct choice.

Question 56: What is 2/3 + 1/4?

8/12
11/12 (Correct answer)
3/7
3/12

Correct answer: 11/12

To add fractions with unlike denominators, find the LCD (12). 2/3 = 8/12; 1/4 = 3/12. 8/12 + 3/12 = 11/12.

Question 57: Which of the following was not a world or regional organization created after World War II?

North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
League of Nations (Correct answer)
World Bank
United Nations (UN)

Correct answer: League of Nations

The League of Nations was established after World War I, in 1920, as an international organization to promote peace and cooperation. It ultimately failed to prevent World War II and was dissolved in 1946, being replaced by the United Nations, which was created after World War II.

Question 58: A passage states: 'Many experts believe that early reading instruction significantly impacts lifelong literacy.' What type of claim is this?

A verifiable fact
A fictional premise
A qualified claim citing expert consensus (Correct answer)
An opinion of all experts worldwide

Correct answer: A qualified claim citing expert consensus

'Many experts believe' qualifies the claim, indicating it is based on expert consensus rather than a universal fact or single opinion.

Question 59: Which of the following is an example of a primary source?

A biography of Abraham Lincoln written in 2010
A textbook chapter on the American Revolution
A documentary about World War II
A diary written by a Civil War soldier (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A diary written by a Civil War soldier

A primary source is created by someone with firsthand experience. A soldier's diary is written by someone who directly experienced the Civil War.

Question 60: What is the function of a topic sentence in a body paragraph?

To state the main idea of the paragraph and connect it to the thesis (Correct answer)
To conclude the paragraph's argument
To introduce a new topic unrelated to the thesis
To provide a transitional phrase only

Correct answer: To state the main idea of the paragraph and connect it to the thesis

A topic sentence introduces the paragraph's main point and shows how it relates to the essay's overall thesis.

Question 61: Which of the following best describes a proportional relationship between two quantities?

One quantity increases as the other decreases.
The quantities are always equal.
The ratio between the two quantities is constant. (Correct answer)
One quantity is always double the other.

Correct answer: The ratio between the two quantities is constant.

In a proportional relationship, the ratio y/x is constant (y = kx for some constant k). The ratio never changes even as the values do.

Question 62: Which of the following words is correctly divided into syllables?

com-pu-ter (com/pu/ter) (Correct answer)
co-mpu-ter (co/mpu/ter)
com-pute-r (comp/ute/r)
c-om-pu-ter (c/om/pu/ter)

Correct answer: com-pu-ter (com/pu/ter)

Computer has three syllables: com-pu-ter. Syllable division follows the VC/CV pattern (between two consonants) and recognizes open/closed syllables.

Question 63: What is the scientific method, and what are its key steps?

A systematic process for investigation: observation → question → hypothesis → experiment → analysis → conclusion (Correct answer)
A memorization technique for science facts
A fixed set of 10 required steps that scientists follow exactly
A method used only in biology, not in other sciences

Correct answer: A systematic process for investigation: observation → question → hypothesis → experiment → analysis → conclusion

The scientific method is a systematic approach to answering questions: observe, ask a question, form a hypothesis, design and conduct an experiment, analyze results, draw conclusions.

Question 64: Which sentence uses quotation marks correctly?

She said, I am tired.
She said, "I am tired." (Correct answer)
She said, 'I am tired.'
She said that 'she was tired.'

Correct answer: She said, "I am tired."

Direct speech should use double quotation marks in American English. Option C correctly uses double quotes with a comma before the quoted speech.

Question 65: Which factor best explains the power of the church in the Middle Ages?

Because there were not governments to maintain law and order, the Church stepped in to "fill the gap."
Paying tithe to the Church was the first priority.
The Church exercised its power to excommunicate those who went against the teachings of the Church. (Correct answer)
The Church fined all those who went against it.

Correct answer: The Church exercised its power to excommunicate those who went against the teachings of the Church.

The Church's power to excommunicate was a formidable weapon during the Middle Ages. Excommunication meant being cut off from the sacraments and the Christian community, which was believed to condemn one's soul to eternal damnation. This spiritual threat, combined with the Church's vast landholdings and influence over daily life, gave it immense control over both rulers and common people, making it the most significant factor in its power.

Question 66: Read the sentence below: 'Despite the artist's burgeoning fame, he remained remarkably humble, shunning the limelight to focus on his craft.' As used in the sentence, the word 'burgeoning' most nearly means:

Unappreciated
Rapidly growing (Correct answer)
Mysterious
Declining

Correct answer: Rapidly growing

The context of the sentence contrasts the artist's 'fame' with his 'humble' nature. The word 'burgeoning' is used to describe this fame. Given that fame can grow, and the contrast implies it was significant, 'rapidly growing' is the most logical meaning.

Question 67: What is the primary purpose of a glossary in an informational text?

To provide a summary of the text
To list the authors and their credentials
To cite all external sources referenced
To define specialized terms used in the text (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To define specialized terms used in the text

A glossary provides definitions of specialized or technical vocabulary used in the text, helping readers understand domain-specific language.

Question 68: Through what means is the uneven distribution of natural resources on Earth being balanced?

Bartering
Forced sharing
Population distribution
World trade (Correct answer)

Correct answer: World trade

The uneven distribution of natural resources across the Earth is primarily balanced through world trade. Countries with abundant specific resources can export them to nations that lack those resources, while importing what they need from others. This global exchange allows countries to access a wider variety of goods and materials than they could produce domestically, fostering economic interdependence.

Question 69: A teacher is preparing a lesson on identifying an author's tone. Which of the following sentences from a text would be the best example of a sentence with a sarcastic tone?

"Oh, fantastic. Another flat tire. That's exactly what I needed on my way to a job interview." (Correct answer)
"The intricate network of ancient Roman roads is a testament to their engineering prowess."
"The sun shone brightly, warming the faces of the children as they played in the park."
"According to the study, 15% of participants showed improvement after the trial."

Correct answer: "Oh, fantastic. Another flat tire. That's exactly what I needed on my way to a job interview."

Sarcasm is a form of verbal irony where the intended meaning is the opposite of the literal meaning, often used to convey contempt or mock. The sentence 'Oh, fantastic. Another flat tire...' expresses frustration and disappointment through words that literally mean the opposite, which is characteristic of a sarcastic tone.

Question 70: Which approach best demonstrates culturally responsive teaching?

Incorporating students' cultural backgrounds, languages, and experiences as assets to enhance learning for all students (Correct answer)
Treating all students identically, regardless of cultural background
Avoiding any discussion of culture in the classroom to stay neutral
Teaching about only the dominant culture's history and literature

Correct answer: Incorporating students' cultural backgrounds, languages, and experiences as assets to enhance learning for all students

Culturally responsive teaching (Gloria Ladson-Billings) incorporates students' cultural identities and experiences as relevant, valued resources that enrich learning for the entire class.

Question 71: What is the best strategy for identifying an author's perspective or point of view in an informational text?

Examining word choice, emphasis, and what information is included or excluded (Correct answer)
Reading only the first and last paragraphs
Counting how many times key words appear
Looking at the font and formatting of the text

Correct answer: Examining word choice, emphasis, and what information is included or excluded

Author perspective is revealed through word choice, tone, what details are emphasized, and what information is omitted.

Question 72: If Isaac scored 16 points in the first half of a basketball game and half as many in the second half, how many did he score in the game in all?

28
24 (Correct answer)
22

Correct answer: 24

Isaac scored 16 points in the first half. In the second half, he scored half as many points, which is 16 / 2 = 8 points. To find his total score for the game, add the points from both halves: 16 + 8 = 24 points. Isaac scored 24 points in total.

Question 73: What is culturally responsive teaching?

Incorporating students' cultural backgrounds and experiences to make learning more relevant and effective (Correct answer)
Teaching only content related to students' home cultures
Avoiding any discussion of cultural differences in the classroom
Using only one teaching style for all students

Correct answer: Incorporating students' cultural backgrounds and experiences to make learning more relevant and effective

Culturally responsive teaching leverages students' cultural knowledge, experiences, and backgrounds to create more engaging, meaningful, and effective learning experiences.

Question 74: Which paragraph structure best supports a well-organized argumentative essay?

Evidence, introduction, body paragraphs
Conclusion, evidence, introduction
Introduction, body paragraphs with evidence, conclusion (Correct answer)
Introduction, conclusion, body paragraphs

Correct answer: Introduction, body paragraphs with evidence, conclusion

An effective argumentative essay follows the structure of introduction, body paragraphs with supporting evidence, and conclusion.

Question 75: At long last the doctor - a total stranger; showed up at the house.

D: at the house.
A: At long last
E: No error
B: -- a
C: stranger; (Correct answer)

Correct answer: C: stranger;

The phrase "a total stranger" is an appositive providing additional information about "the doctor." When an appositive is set off by dashes, both opening and closing dashes should be used. A semicolon is inappropriate here and creates a grammatical error.

Question 76: Students were required to provide an equal approach to express the ratio 8:6 on a test. In the document attached, four of the responses are listed. Which one is the most accurate? Student A: 8/6 Student B: 3/2 Student C: 6:8 Student D: 4/3

Student D
Students A, B, and D
Students A and D (Correct answer)
Student B

Correct answer: Students A and D

The ratio 8:6 can be expressed as a fraction, 8/6, which is what Student A provided. This fraction can then be simplified by dividing both the numerator and denominator by their greatest common divisor, which is 2. Simplifying 8/6 yields 4/3, as shown by Student D. Therefore, both 8/6 and 4/3 are accurate and equivalent expressions of the ratio 8:6.

Question 77: Which sentence uses parallel structure correctly?

She likes to read, swimming, and to hike.
She likes to read, to swimming, and hiking.
She likes reading, to swim, and hiking.
She likes reading, swimming, and hiking. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: She likes reading, swimming, and hiking.

Parallel structure requires that all items in a series use the same grammatical form. Option B uses gerunds (-ing forms) consistently.

Question 78: A first-grade teacher notices a student consistently substitutes visually similar words (reading 'horse' for 'house'). What does this suggest?

The student has memorized too many sight words.
The student has strong phonemic awareness.
The student has strong comprehension skills.
The student is over-relying on visual/whole-word guessing rather than decoding phonetically. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The student is over-relying on visual/whole-word guessing rather than decoding phonetically.

Substituting visually similar words without attending to phonemes suggests the student is using a whole-word visual strategy rather than decoding letter by letter.

Question 79: If 5x + 7 =8x - 2, then

x = 4
x = 5
x = 3 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: x = 3

To solve the equation 5x + 7 = 8x - 2, the goal is to isolate the variable x. First, subtract 5x from both sides of the equation, resulting in 7 = 3x - 2. Next, add 2 to both sides to move the constant term, yielding 9 = 3x. Finally, divide both sides by 3 to find the value of x, which is 3.

Question 80: What is the alphabetic principle?

The idea that letters are arranged alphabetically in the dictionary
The ability to write all letters of the alphabet
The understanding that spoken sounds are represented by written letters (Correct answer)
The knowledge that vowels come before consonants in the alphabet

Correct answer: The understanding that spoken sounds are represented by written letters

The alphabetic principle is the understanding that written letters systematically represent spoken sounds (phonemes), forming the basis of phonics instruction.

Question 81: This passage was probably taken from:

B: a biography of Thomas Edison (Correct answer)
A: a collection of folklore
D: a history of the forest
C: a novel about steamboat captains
E: the memoirs of the steamboat captain

Correct answer: B: a biography of Thomas Edison

Given that multiple questions refer to Thomas Edison and a specific event in his early life, the passage is most likely an excerpt from a biography. Biographies recount the life story of an individual, often detailing significant experiences and lessons learned, which aligns with the content implied by the questions.

Question 82: Choose the sentence with consistent verb tense.

She opens the door and walked inside.
She opened the door and walks inside.
She opened the door and walked inside. (Correct answer)
She open the door and walks inside.

Correct answer: She opened the door and walked inside.

Both verbs are in the past tense, keeping the sentence consistent.

Question 83: What does it mean to make an inference from an informational text?

Finding errors in the author's argument
Repeating information that is directly stated in the text
Summarizing the text in your own words
Drawing a logical conclusion based on evidence and reasoning (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Drawing a logical conclusion based on evidence and reasoning

Inference involves reading between the lines — using stated evidence plus prior knowledge to draw conclusions not explicitly stated.

Question 84: A student reads a graph showing literacy rates across several countries. The graph shows Country A with an 85% rate and Country B with a 62% rate. Which is a valid conclusion from the graph alone?

Country B's low literacy rate is caused by poverty.
Country A has a better education system than Country B.
Students in Country A work harder than those in Country B.
Country A has a higher reported literacy rate than Country B. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Country A has a higher reported literacy rate than Country B.

The graph only shows reported rates. Drawing conclusions about causes, quality, or effort goes beyond the data shown.

Question 85: Which sentence correctly uses "than" or "then"?

First we ate, than we left.
She is taller then her brother.
She is taller than her brother. (Correct answer)
He is smarter then I am.

Correct answer: She is taller than her brother.

"Than" is used for comparisons; "then" refers to time.

Question 86: A teacher uses base-ten blocks to teach subtraction with regrouping. What is the purpose of this manipulative?

To provide a concrete, visual model that makes the concept of exchanging units tangible (Correct answer)
To test whether students understand addition before subtraction
To speed up computation by having students count blocks
To replace the need for standard algorithms

Correct answer: To provide a concrete, visual model that makes the concept of exchanging units tangible

Base-ten blocks make the abstract concept of regrouping (exchanging 1 ten for 10 ones) concrete and visible, supporting conceptual understanding.

Question 87: Which of the following correctly describes the process of natural selection?

Organisms can choose which traits they pass on to their offspring.
Organisms with traits better suited to their environment tend to survive and reproduce more, passing those traits on. (Correct answer)
All members of a species evolve at the same rate.
New species form when organisms deliberately change their behavior.

Correct answer: Organisms with traits better suited to their environment tend to survive and reproduce more, passing those traits on.

Natural selection: individuals with heritable traits better suited to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce, increasing the frequency of those traits over generations.

Question 88: A teacher uses 'I do, we do, you do' during a math lesson. This sequence is an example of:

Standardized testing
Cooperative grouping only
Gradual release of responsibility (Correct answer)
Summative review

Correct answer: Gradual release of responsibility

The 'I do, we do, you do' model gradually shifts responsibility from teacher to student.

Question 89: Which word best describes the villagers' attitude to the mill?

D: calm
E: apathetic
A: loyal (Correct answer)
C: reverent
B: annoyed

Correct answer: A: loyal

If the windmill is described with human-like qualities and is an old, established part of the community, it suggests a deep-seated connection and affection from the villagers. This implies a sense of loyalty, as they likely view the mill as a venerable and integral part of their heritage and daily lives.

Question 90: What does 'context clues' mean in the context of reading informational texts?

Using a dictionary to find word definitions
Memorizing vocabulary lists before reading
Asking a teacher for help with unknown words
Using surrounding text to infer the meaning of an unfamiliar word (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Using surrounding text to infer the meaning of an unfamiliar word

Context clues are hints within the surrounding text that help readers infer the meaning of unfamiliar words.

Question 91: Read the passage below and answer the question that follows. 'The theory of plate tectonics, a concept that revolutionized Earth sciences, posits that the Earth's outer shell is divided into several plates that glide over the mantle, the rocky inner layer above the core. This movement is responsible for a wide range of geological phenomena, including earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, and the formation of mountain ranges. Before this theory was widely accepted in the mid-20th century, various other hypotheses were proposed to explain these phenomena, but none could provide a comprehensive and unifying framework. The concept of continental drift, a precursor to plate tectonics, was initially met with significant skepticism primarily due to the lack of a clear mechanism to explain how continents could move.' Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of this passage?

To argue against the theory of plate tectonics
To detail the various types of geological phenomena
To explain the composition of the Earth's mantle and core
To provide a brief overview and historical context of the theory of plate tectonics (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To provide a brief overview and historical context of the theory of plate tectonics

The passage introduces the theory of plate tectonics, explains its basic principles, mentions its explanatory power for geological events, and provides historical context by mentioning its precursor and the initial skepticism. Therefore, its main purpose is to give a summary and background.

Question 92: What is the difference between kinetic energy and potential energy?

Kinetic energy comes from electricity; potential energy comes from chemical reactions.
Kinetic energy is stored energy; potential energy is energy of motion.
They are the same type of energy at different temperatures.
Kinetic energy is the energy of motion; potential energy is stored energy due to position or condition. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Kinetic energy is the energy of motion; potential energy is stored energy due to position or condition.

Kinetic energy is the energy an object has due to its motion (KE = ½mv²). Potential energy is stored energy based on position, shape, or chemical state.

Question 93: 3/8 + 1/3 + 1/8 =

5/6 (Correct answer)
3/4
1/2

Correct answer: 5/6

To add these fractions, first combine the fractions with the same denominator: 3/8 + 1/8 = 4/8, which simplifies to 1/2. Now, add 1/2 to 1/3. Find a common denominator for 2 and 3, which is 6, converting the fractions to 3/6 and 2/6. Adding these gives 3/6 + 2/6 = 5/6.

Question 94: Which of the following instructional models is characterized by a teacher-centered approach where information is explicitly presented to students through lectures, demonstrations, and structured practice?

Indirect instruction
Interactive instruction
Direct instruction (Correct answer)
Experiential learning

Correct answer: Direct instruction

Direct instruction is a teacher-led instructional approach where the teacher systematically and explicitly teaches content. [15] Key components include lectures, demonstrations, guided practice, and independent practice, which aligns perfectly with the description. [18]

Question 95: What caused the United States government to abandon the Gold Standard during the Great Depression?

There was a shortage of Gold, as the miners had over-excavated California's gold mines.
Banks were collecting gold to sell for profit.
Citizens were demanding gold in exchange for dollars. (Correct answer)
Gold was owed to several other countries as debt.

Correct answer: Citizens were demanding gold in exchange for dollars.

During the Great Depression, widespread fear and lack of confidence in banks led many citizens to hoard gold, believing it was a safer asset than paper money. This 'run on gold' threatened to deplete the nation's gold reserves, which backed the currency under the gold standard. To prevent a complete collapse of the banking system and allow the government to inflate the money supply to stimulate the economy, President Roosevelt suspended the gold standard.

Question 96: A historical text states: 'The Industrial Revolution brought about unprecedented urbanization. As factories sprang up in cities, masses of people migrated from rural areas seeking employment. This rapid influx led to overcrowded living conditions, poor sanitation, and the spread of disease in urban centers.' Based on the passage, what can be reasonably inferred about life in rural areas before the Industrial Revolution?

Disease was not a concern in rural areas.
Living conditions were generally less crowded than in the cities during the revolution. (Correct answer)
Rural areas had more advanced sanitation systems than the cities.
There were no employment opportunities in rural areas.

Correct answer: Living conditions were generally less crowded than in the cities during the revolution.

The passage explicitly states that the migration to cities led to 'overcrowded living conditions.' By inference, if people were moving *to* the cities and this resulted in overcrowding, it is logical to conclude that the places they came from (rural areas) were less crowded. The passage does not provide enough information to support the other inferences.

Question 97: The hard and soft sounds of 'c' depend on the letter that follows. 'C' is usually soft (/s/) when followed by:

e, i, or y (Correct answer)
any consonant
a, o, or u
a silent e only

Correct answer: e, i, or y

The letter 'c' typically makes the soft /s/ sound before e, i, or y, as in 'cent,' 'city,' and 'cycle.'

Question 98: A student reads an article arguing that standardized testing improves educational outcomes. The article cites only studies funded by testing companies. What reading strategy should the student apply?

Evaluate the credibility and potential bias of the sources. (Correct answer)
Summarize the main claim without evaluation.
Reject the argument because standardized testing is controversial.
Accept the argument because it is supported by studies.

Correct answer: Evaluate the credibility and potential bias of the sources.

Critical readers evaluate the credibility of sources and identify potential bias, especially when sources have financial conflicts of interest.

Question 99: Which sentence is correctly punctuated with an appositive?

My brother a teacher, is arriving tomorrow.
My brother, a teacher is arriving tomorrow.
My brother a teacher is arriving tomorrow.
My brother, a teacher, is arriving tomorrow. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: My brother, a teacher, is arriving tomorrow.

A non-restrictive appositive is set off by commas on both sides. 'A teacher' is a non-restrictive appositive for 'my brother.'

Question 100: He had just come to the bridge; and not looking where he was going; he tripped over something.

where he was going he tripped
where he was going. He tripped
where he was going, he tripped (Correct answer)
where he was going: he tripped
where he was going; he tripped

Correct answer: where he was going, he tripped

The phrase "not looking where he was going" is a participial phrase that describes the subject "he." Such a phrase, when it introduces or interjects into a sentence, should be set off by a comma. The original use of a semicolon is incorrect because a semicolon is used to separate independent clauses or items in a complex list, not to set off a participial phrase.

Question 101: Which federal law mandates that students with disabilities receive a Free Appropriate Public Education (FAPE) in the Least Restrictive Environment (LRE)?

Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
No Child Left Behind Act
Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act
Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA)

IDEA specifically mandates FAPE and LRE for students with qualifying disabilities, guiding how schools provide special education services.

Question 102: Which development resulted from the influence of Christian fundamentalism on 20th century politics?

Emphasis on consumer culture
Focus on moral issues (Correct answer)
Promotion of gender equality
Establishment of welfare programs

Correct answer: Focus on moral issues

Christian fundamentalism, particularly in the latter half of the 20th century, significantly influenced politics by advocating for policies based on conservative moral and religious values. This led to a strong focus on issues such as abortion, prayer in schools, family values, and opposition to LGBTQ+ rights, often mobilizing voters around these specific moral concerns.

Question 103: Which of the following sentences uses the active voice?

The report had been submitted.
The report was submitted by the committee.
The committee submitted the report. (Correct answer)
It was the committee that submitted the report.

Correct answer: The committee submitted the report.

Active voice has the subject performing the action. In option B, 'the committee' (subject) performs 'submitted' (verb).

Question 104: Who is the most likely author of this passage?

D: Poet
A: Indian
E: Daniel Boone
C: Newspaper columnist
B: American folklorist (Correct answer)

Correct answer: B: American folklorist

Daniel Boone is a legendary figure in American history, often celebrated through folklore and frontier tales that blend historical fact with myth. An American folklorist would be interested in collecting, preserving, and sharing these stories that contribute to the national identity and cultural heritage.

Question 105: Which of the following would be considered an improper fraction?

2/3
1/2
4 5/9
7/2 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 7/2

An improper fraction is defined as a fraction where the numerator (the top number) is greater than or equal to the denominator (the bottom number). In the option 7/2, the numerator (7) is greater than the denominator (2), making it an improper fraction. The other options are either proper fractions or a mixed number.

Question 106: What is the name of the system in which individuals can buy things directly from the whole-sale distributor?"

C: corporations
B: populists
E: cooperatives (Correct answer)
D: conglomerates
A: collectives

Correct answer: E: cooperatives

A cooperative is an organization owned and operated by its members for their mutual benefit. Farmers often formed cooperatives to collectively purchase supplies directly from wholesale distributors or to market their produce, allowing them to bypass middlemen and secure better prices or terms.

Question 107: Asking for directions when you are lost is the properly course of action.

C: you are lost
D: properly (Correct answer)
A: Asking
B: for directions
E: No error

Correct answer: D: properly

The word "properly" is an adverb, but the sentence requires an adjective to modify the noun "course." The correct word should be "proper," as in "the proper course of action." Adverbs modify verbs, adjectives, or other adverbs, while adjectives modify nouns.

Question 108: What is the name of the ancient city located in the Andes Mountains of Peru?

Chichen Itza
Machu Picchu (Correct answer)
Teotihuacan
Tenochtitlan

Correct answer: Machu Picchu

Machu Picchu is the renowned ancient city of the Inca civilization, famously located high in the Andes Mountains of Peru. This UNESCO World Heritage site is celebrated for its sophisticated dry-stone architecture, intricate agricultural terraces, and breathtaking panoramic views, making it a significant archaeological and cultural landmark.

Question 109: Gerald received the following test scores in math class: 76, 86, 89, 81, and 99. What was Gerald's average test score, rounded to the nearest point?

86 (Correct answer)
84
87

Correct answer: 86

To find Gerald's average test score, first sum all his scores: 76 + 86 + 89 + 81 + 99 = 431. Then, divide the sum by the number of scores, which is 5. So, 431 / 5 = 86.2. Rounded to the nearest whole point, Gerald's average test score is 86.

Question 110: What is the function of a heading in an informational text?

To organize and preview the content of the section that follows (Correct answer)
To provide the author's personal opinion on the section
To provide a list of sources used
To summarize the entire article

Correct answer: To organize and preview the content of the section that follows

Headings organize informational texts into sections and preview the topic of the content that follows.

Question 111: John will be x in 7 years. How old was he last year?

x - 8 (Correct answer)
x + 8
7x

Correct answer: x - 8

Let John's current age be C. The problem states that John will be x years old in 7 years, so C + 7 = x. Solving for C, John's current age is x - 7. To find his age last year, subtract 1 from his current age: (x - 7) - 1. Therefore, John was x - 8 years old last year.

Question 112: 4 2/3 - 2 ½

2 1/4
2 1/6 (Correct answer)
2 2/3

Correct answer: 2 1/6

To subtract mixed numbers, first convert them to improper fractions: 4 2/3 becomes 14/3 and 2 1/2 becomes 5/2. Find a common denominator, which is 6, so the fractions become 28/6 and 15/6. Subtracting these gives 13/6, which converts back to the mixed number 2 1/6.

Question 113: Which lobe of the brain appears o be the most responsible for vision?

Parietal lobe
Frontal lobe
Occipital lobe (Correct answer)
Temporal lobe

Correct answer: Occipital lobe

The occipital lobe is located at the very back of the brain and is primarily responsible for processing visual information. It receives raw visual data from the eyes and interprets it, allowing us to perceive and understand aspects like shapes, colors, and motion from our environment.

Question 114: Which type of assessment would a teacher use to measure a student's phonemic awareness at the beginning of kindergarten?

A standardized reading comprehension test
A running record using a leveled book
A vocabulary knowledge scale
A phoneme segmentation fluency probe (oral task asking students to segment words into sounds) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A phoneme segmentation fluency probe (oral task asking students to segment words into sounds)

A phoneme segmentation fluency probe is an oral assessment of phonemic awareness — appropriate for kindergarten because phonemic awareness is a pre-reading, auditory skill.

Question 115: What is the difference between a food chain and a food web?

A food chain shows decomposers; a food web does not
A food chain is for plants; a food web is for animals
They are the same thing with different names
A food chain shows a single path of energy flow; a food web shows multiple interconnected paths (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A food chain shows a single path of energy flow; a food web shows multiple interconnected paths

A food chain is a linear sequence showing one path of energy transfer. A food web shows the complex, interconnected network of multiple overlapping food chains.

Question 116: A student solves 43 − 18 and gets 35. What error did the student likely make?

The student rounded to the nearest ten.
The student made an arithmetic error on the tens digit only.
The student added instead of subtracting.
The student forgot to regroup (borrow) and subtracted 3 − 8 as 8 − 3 = 5. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The student forgot to regroup (borrow) and subtracted 3 − 8 as 8 − 3 = 5.

The typical error is subtracting the smaller digit from the larger within a column (8 − 3 = 5 in ones column), rather than regrouping. 43 − 18: if student does 8 − 3 = 5 (ones) and 4 − 1 = 3 (tens), they get 35.

Question 117: "He wasn't going to not say anything, until it became clear that this would be impossible."

B: say anything
A: wasn’t (Correct answer)
D: impossible.
E: No error
C: it became

Correct answer: A: wasn’t

The sentence contains a double negative: "wasn't going to not say anything." This construction is grammatically incorrect and confusing, as two negatives cancel each other out, implying the opposite of the intended meaning. To correct it, one of the negatives should be removed, for example, by changing "wasn't" to "was" or removing "not say anything" and replacing it with a positive action.

Question 118: "Lester, a giant fro his age; was respected by all the other children."

A: Lester
E: No error
B: a giant for
D: other children.
C: age; was (Correct answer)

Correct answer: C: age; was

The phrase "a giant for his age" is an appositive, providing additional information about Lester. Appositives should be set off by commas, not semicolons, when they are non-essential. A semicolon incorrectly separates the subject ("Lester") from its verb ("was respected").

Question 119: Humanitarian responses to natural disasters led to the creation of what body?

Red Cross (Correct answer)
European Union
Commonwealth of Nations
United Nations

Correct answer: Red Cross

The International Red Cross and Red Crescent Movement was founded in 1863 by Henry Dunant, inspired by the suffering he witnessed after the Battle of Solferino. Its primary mission is to provide humanitarian aid and protection to victims of armed conflict and natural disasters. Thus, it directly resulted from humanitarian responses to such crises.

Question 120: A teacher has students clap the syllables in 'elephant.' How many claps should students make?

2
3 (Correct answer)
5
4

Correct answer: 3

'Elephant' has three syllables: el-e-phant.

Question 121: Which word best signals a compare-and-contrast text structure?

Consequently
However (Correct answer)
As a result
Therefore

Correct answer: However

'However' signals contrast between two ideas, which is characteristic of compare-and-contrast text structure.

Question 122: What is the purpose of a text's central idea or main idea?

To present the strongest evidence in the text
To summarize each paragraph individually
To state what the text is primarily about (Correct answer)
To provide background history on the topic

Correct answer: To state what the text is primarily about

The central idea is the overarching point the author wants to communicate throughout the text. All supporting details relate back to it.

Question 123: If a recipe for cookies calls for ¾ of a cup of sugar, and you want to quadruple the recipe, how many cups of sugar will you need?

2 ¾ cups
3 cups (Correct answer)
4 cups

Correct answer: 3 cups

To quadruple a recipe means to multiply all ingredients by 4. If the recipe calls for 3/4 of a cup of sugar, you need to calculate (3/4) * 4. Multiplying the fraction by 4 gives (3 * 4) / 4 = 12/4. This simplifies to 3 cups of sugar.

Question 124: Which organizational pattern presents events in the order they occurred?

Compare and contrast
Order of importance
Chronological order (Correct answer)
Spatial order

Correct answer: Chronological order

Chronological order arranges information according to time sequence, from earliest to most recent.

Question 125: Which sentence correctly uses the word 'fewer' vs. 'less'?

There are fewer students in class today. (Correct answer)
There are less students in class today.
There are fewer water in the bottle.
There is less books on the shelf.

Correct answer: There are fewer students in class today.

'Fewer' is used with countable nouns like 'students.' 'Less' is used with uncountable nouns.

Question 126: A farmer wants to know how much insect damage his corn crop has, so he picks 75 plants at random from different parts of the cornfield and inspects each one for damage. Nine of the 75 plants had been infested with corn borers. He understands that each acre has around 31,000 plants, and he has a 50-acre field to work with. In a 50-acre field, how many afflicted plants would you expect to find?

186,000 plants (Correct answer)
202,000 plants
117,000 plants
97,000 plants

Correct answer: 186,000 plants

First, determine the proportion of infested plants from the sample: 9 infested plants out of 75 sampled plants is 9/75, which simplifies to 0.12 or 12%. Next, calculate the total number of plants in the entire 50-acre field by multiplying 50 acres by 31,000 plants per acre, resulting in 1,550,000 total plants. Finally, apply the infestation rate to the total number of plants: 0.12 * 1,550,000 = 186,000 afflicted plants.

Question 127: A teacher wants students to distinguish between relevant and irrelevant details in a passage about photosynthesis. Which detail is IRRELEVANT?

Photosynthesis requires sunlight to produce energy.
Chlorophyll is the green pigment that absorbs light.
The scientist who studied photosynthesis grew up in Germany. (Correct answer)
Carbon dioxide is absorbed through tiny pores called stomata.

Correct answer: The scientist who studied photosynthesis grew up in Germany.

A scientist's birthplace has no bearing on how photosynthesis works. It is irrelevant to the scientific topic of the passage.

Question 128: What is the function of the underlined word in: 'The test, which was difficult, covered all units'? (underlined: 'which was difficult')

Noun clause
Restrictive relative clause
Adverbial clause
Non-restrictive relative clause (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Non-restrictive relative clause

The clause is set off by commas, meaning it adds extra information and is non-restrictive (non-defining).

Question 129: If John scores 20% of his team's oint in a basketball game, how many points does the team score if John scores 14 points?

68
70 (Correct answer)
72

Correct answer: 70

If John scores 20% of his team's points and that amounts to 14 points, you can set up the equation: 0.20 * Total Points = 14. To find the total points, divide John's score by his percentage contribution. So, 14 / 0.20 equals 70. The team scored 70 points in total.

Question 130: How should a teacher approach working with a paraprofessional in the classroom?

Assign the paraprofessional to manage all students with IEPs independently.
Defer all instructional decisions to the paraprofessional.
Collaborate with the paraprofessional by sharing lesson plans, providing direction, and communicating regularly to support all students effectively. (Correct answer)
Keep the paraprofessional occupied with non-instructional tasks only.

Correct answer: Collaborate with the paraprofessional by sharing lesson plans, providing direction, and communicating regularly to support all students effectively.

Paraprofessionals are instructional partners. The teacher remains responsible for instruction and must communicate clearly, share plans, and collaboratively support students.

Question 131: Before beginning a new unit on fractions, a math teacher gives a short quiz to identify students' pre-existing knowledge and misconceptions. The teacher will use the results to plan lessons and form flexible instructional groups. The primary purpose of this quiz is:

Formative
Diagnostic (Correct answer)
Performance-based
Summative

Correct answer: Diagnostic

This is a diagnostic assessment. The main goal of a diagnostic assessment is to identify students' existing strengths, weaknesses, and knowledge gaps *before* instruction begins to inform planning. The teacher is using the pre-test to diagnose the students' current understanding to tailor future lessons effectively.

Question 132: A student is asked to estimate 48 × 52. Which estimation strategy gives the most reasonable result?

Multiply exactly: 48 × 52 = 2,496
Round up: 50 × 60 = 3,000
Round both to nearest ten: 50 × 50 = 2,500 (Correct answer)
Round down: 40 × 50 = 2,000

Correct answer: Round both to nearest ten: 50 × 50 = 2,500

Rounding both to the nearest ten gives 50 × 50 = 2,500, which is the closest estimate to the actual answer of 2,496.

Question 133: Choose the sentence with correct modifier placement.

She drove almost her kids to school every day.
She almost drove her kids to school every day.
Almost she drove her kids to school every day.
She drove her kids to school almost every day. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: She drove her kids to school almost every day.

"Almost" should modify "every day," placing it closest to that phrase.

Question 134: A history textbook includes an infographic alongside a written passage. What is the primary function of the infographic?

To provide visual representation of data that supports and extends the text (Correct answer)
To replace the written text entirely
To provide a summary of the chapter conclusion
To offer the author's personal opinions on the topic

Correct answer: To provide visual representation of data that supports and extends the text

Infographics visually represent data or concepts to supplement and clarify the written text, making complex information easier to understand.

Question 135: Which of the following phrases is an example of simile?

D: “a faint gleam of daylight”
C: “pitch-black night”
B: “dark as ink” (Correct answer)
D: “a faint gleam of daylight”
A: “up against a tree”

Correct answer: B: “dark as ink”

A simile is a literary device that directly compares two different things using the words 'like' or 'as'. The phrase 'dark as ink' explicitly uses 'as' to draw a comparison between the degree of darkness and the color of ink. This makes it a clear example of a simile.

Question 136: Which of the following best describes the purpose of a topic sentence?

To transition to the next paragraph
To provide evidence for the paragraph's argument
To summarize the entire essay
To introduce and state the main idea of the paragraph (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To introduce and state the main idea of the paragraph

A topic sentence states the main idea of a paragraph, orienting the reader to what that paragraph will discuss.

Question 137: What is the purpose of a decodable text in early reading instruction?

To expose students to complex literary language before they can read independently
To provide practice reading words that contain phonics patterns students have already been taught (Correct answer)
To build background knowledge about various topics
To assess reading comprehension of unfamiliar texts

Correct answer: To provide practice reading words that contain phonics patterns students have already been taught

Decodable texts contain a high proportion of words built from phonics patterns students have been explicitly taught, allowing them to apply and practice decoding skills.

Question 138: Which word pair best illustrates a minimal pair useful for teaching phoneme discrimination?

bat / pat (Correct answer)
big / large
run / running
house / home

Correct answer: bat / pat

'Bat' and 'pat' differ by a single phoneme, making them a minimal pair for practicing sound discrimination.

Question 139: " But it's important!" Hannah exclaimed.

B: it’s
C: important!”
D: exclaimed.
A: “But
E: No error (Correct answer)

Correct answer: E: No error

The sentence is grammatically correct and properly punctuated. The quotation marks, apostrophe in "it's," exclamation point, and capitalization are all used correctly. Therefore, no correction is needed.

Question 140: According to Lev Vygotsky's theory, what is the 'Zone of Proximal Development' (ZPD)?

The curriculum standard a student must reach by year end
The area of the classroom where students work independently
The gap between what a learner can do alone and what they can do with guidance (Correct answer)
A physical learning center in the classroom

Correct answer: The gap between what a learner can do alone and what they can do with guidance

Vygotsky's ZPD describes the range of tasks a student can accomplish with support but cannot yet complete independently, making it the ideal target for instruction.

Question 141: Which classroom management approach emphasizes clearly stated rules and consistent consequences developed by Lee Canter?

Open classroom model
Non-directive teaching
Assertive Discipline (Correct answer)
Discovery learning

Correct answer: Assertive Discipline

Assertive Discipline, developed by Lee Canter, emphasizes clearly stated rules, consistent positive reinforcement, and predictable consequences for misbehavior.

Question 142: Choose the sentence with the correct relative pronoun.

The student that scored highest won. (Correct answer)
The book who I read was excellent.
The book whom I read was excellent.
The student which scored highest won.

Correct answer: The student that scored highest won.

"That" correctly refers to a person in a defining clause, while "who" would also work.

Question 143: What is the primary purpose of a thesis statement in an argumentative essay?

To list supporting evidence
To summarize the entire essay
To introduce background information
To state the writer's main claim and position (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To state the writer's main claim and position

A thesis statement presents the writer's central argument or position that will be supported throughout the essay.

Question 144: Which type of evidence is generally considered most reliable in an academic argumentative essay?

Personal anecdotes
Social media posts
Popular opinion polls
Peer-reviewed research studies (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Peer-reviewed research studies

Peer-reviewed research studies undergo rigorous evaluation by experts, making them the most credible form of evidence in academic writing.

Question 145: Don gets paid $9 an hour, but if he works more than 30 hours in a week his rate of pay is increased by ½. How much would Don get paid for a 38-hour work week?

$365
$378 (Correct answer)
$367

Correct answer: $378

Don works 30 hours at his regular rate of $9/hour, earning 30 * $9 = $270. He works an additional 8 hours (38 - 30) at an increased rate. His increased rate is $9 + ($9 * 0.5) = $9 + $4.50 = $13.50/hour. For the overtime hours, he earns 8 * $13.50 = $108. His total pay is $270 + $108 = $378.

Question 146: Under IDEA, which of the following is the primary purpose of an Individualized Education Program (IEP)?

To provide a standardized curriculum for all students with learning differences
To outline measurable annual goals and services for a student with a disability (Correct answer)
To replace the general education curriculum for students with disabilities
To document a student's medical history for insurance purposes

Correct answer: To outline measurable annual goals and services for a student with a disability

An IEP outlines measurable annual goals, special education services, and accommodations tailored to a specific student's disability-related needs.

Question 147: Why did Edison want an extra $10?

D: because he was a slick negotiator
B: so that he could get another boy to accompany him (Correct answer)
A: so that he could buy dinner on the way
C: so that he could buy an extra lamp oil
E: so that he could pay his electric bill

Correct answer: B: so that he could get another boy to accompany him

Edison requested an additional $10 to hire another boy to accompany him on his urgent delivery. This suggests the task was challenging or potentially dangerous, requiring assistance or companionship. The extra money was a practical request to ensure the successful and safe completion of the message delivery.

Question 148: A teacher is teaching students that the prefix 'un-' means 'not.' Which word study approach is this?

Phonemic awareness
Morphological analysis (Correct answer)
Phonics decoding
Syllabication

Correct answer: Morphological analysis

Teaching prefixes, suffixes, and roots is morphological analysis — the study of word structure and meaning units.

Question 149: What is a morpheme?

A letter combination that makes a vowel sound
A unit of sound with no inherent meaning
The smallest unit of meaning in a language (Correct answer)
A type of syllable pattern

Correct answer: The smallest unit of meaning in a language

A morpheme is the smallest unit of meaning in a language. 'Unhappiness' has three morphemes: un- (not) + happy (base) + -ness (state of being).

Question 150: Which of the following correctly identifies the type of sentence? 'Although she was tired, she continued to work.'

Simple sentence
Compound-complex sentence
Complex sentence (Correct answer)
Compound sentence

Correct answer: Complex sentence

A complex sentence has one independent clause and at least one dependent clause. 'Although she was tired' is dependent; 'she continued to work' is independent.

Question 151: Which sentence correctly uses a hyphen?

She is a well-known author. (Correct answer)
She is a well known author.
Well known authors inspire readers.
The author is well-known.

Correct answer: She is a well-known author.

Compound modifiers before a noun are hyphenated. 'Well-known' modifies 'author' and precedes it, so a hyphen is required.

Question 152: A company that divides itself into individual shares to allow fro multiple owners would be called:

Corporation (Correct answer)
Partnership
Monopoly
Sole proprietor

Correct answer: Corporation

A corporation is a legal entity that is separate and distinct from its owners, allowing it to issue shares of stock to multiple individuals. This structure enables the company to raise capital from many investors, who become shareholders, and limits the personal liability of these owners to the amount of their investment.

Question 153: What is the difference between weathering and erosion?

Weathering breaks down rock in place; erosion is the transportation of weathered material. (Correct answer)
Weathering only occurs chemically; erosion only occurs physically.
They are the same process.
Weathering moves sediment; erosion breaks down rock.

Correct answer: Weathering breaks down rock in place; erosion is the transportation of weathered material.

Weathering is the breakdown of rock in place (chemical or mechanical). Erosion is the removal and transport of weathered material by water, wind, ice, or gravity.

Question 154: Which sentence uses 'lay' vs. 'lie' correctly?

She lay down for a nap. (Correct answer)
She laid down for a nap.
She lied down for a nap.
She lays down for a nap yesterday.

Correct answer: She lay down for a nap.

'Lay' is the past tense of 'lie' (to recline). 'She lay down' is the correct past tense form.

Question 155: Listen to you're parents; they know more than you might think.

E: your parents; (Correct answer)
"C: you’re parents, "
B: you’re parents
"D: your parents,"
A: you’re parents;

Correct answer: E: your parents;

The original sentence incorrectly uses "you're," which is a contraction of "you are," instead of the possessive pronoun "your." "Your" is needed here to indicate that the parents belong to "you." The semicolon is correctly used to separate two independent clauses that are closely related in meaning.

Question 156: What does 'professional learning community' (PLC) mean in educational settings?

A collaborative group of educators who work together to improve instructional practices and student outcomes through shared inquiry, reflection, and data-driven decisions (Correct answer)
A group of teachers who socialize outside of school
A meeting where administrators evaluate teacher performance
A professional development course required for recertification

Correct answer: A collaborative group of educators who work together to improve instructional practices and student outcomes through shared inquiry, reflection, and data-driven decisions

A PLC is a collaborative model where teachers work together continuously to analyze student data, share best practices, and improve instruction with a shared focus on student learning.

Question 157: The only person who can make that decision is the president of the United States.

E: No error
C: that decision
B: who can
D: the president (Correct answer)
A: The only person

Correct answer: D: the president

When referring to a specific person holding a high office, such as "President of the United States," the title should be capitalized. In this sentence, "the president" refers to a specific individual in that role, thus requiring capitalization for proper noun usage.

Question 158: To determine the weight of a bowling ball, which unit should be used?

meter
milliliter
kilogram (Correct answer)
centimeter

Correct answer: kilogram

The kilogram is the standard unit of mass in the International System of Units (SI), which is commonly used to measure the 'weight' (more accurately, mass) of objects in everyday contexts. A bowling ball is a relatively heavy object, making the kilogram an appropriate and practical unit for its measurement. Other options like milliliter, centimeter, and meter are units for volume and length, not mass or weight.

Question 159: "I don't want too and you can't make me," said he."

E: No error
B: too (Correct answer)
D: said he.
A: “I don’t
"C: me,”"

Correct answer: B: too

The original sentence incorrectly uses "too," which means "also" or "excessively." The correct word here is "to," which is part of the implied infinitive phrase "to do something" (e.g., "I don't want to [do it]"). This is a common homophone error.

Question 160: Which of the following is an example of a long vowel sound in a closed syllable?

The /iː/ in 'bike'
The /ɑ/ in 'hat'
The /eɪ/ in 'lake'
This is not possible — closed syllables always have short vowel sounds. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: This is not possible — closed syllables always have short vowel sounds.

By definition, a closed syllable ends in a consonant and contains a short vowel sound. Long vowels do not occur in closed syllables.

Question 161: During the revision process, which aspect should a writer primarily focus on?

Checking punctuation marks
Evaluating the overall argument, structure, and clarity of ideas (Correct answer)
Correcting spelling errors
Counting the number of words

Correct answer: Evaluating the overall argument, structure, and clarity of ideas

Revision involves reviewing the essay's big-picture elements like argument strength, organization, and clarity before editing for mechanics.

Question 162: Why did the shipping company ask Edison to fetch the captain?

D: another captain had recently died
D: another captain had recently died (Correct answer)
A: he was a better captain
C: another captain had retired
B: to stop trees from being cut down

Correct answer: D: another captain had recently died

In the context of a shipping company needing a new captain, the most direct and critical reason for such an urgent request would be the sudden unavailability of the previous captain. The death of a captain would necessitate immediate action to find a replacement to ensure the continuity of shipping operations.

Question 163: Which sentence demonstrates the most precise and formal academic writing style?

The data clearly indicates a significant correlation between emissions and temperature rise. (Correct answer)
We should all care about the environment a lot.
This stuff totally proves my point about climate.
Everyone knows pollution is bad.

Correct answer: The data clearly indicates a significant correlation between emissions and temperature rise.

Precise, formal academic writing uses specific terminology, avoids colloquialisms, and presents evidence objectively.

Question 164: Which practice best supports valid assessment results for English language learners?

Providing accommodations like extra time or simplified language (Correct answer)
Grading on a strict curve
Adding more difficult vocabulary
Shortening only the answer choices

Correct answer: Providing accommodations like extra time or simplified language

Accommodations reduce language barriers so the assessment measures content knowledge, not English proficiency.

Question 165: When a writer uses statistical data and logical reasoning to support a claim, which rhetorical appeal are they primarily employing?

Logos (Correct answer)
Pathos
Ethos
Kairos

Correct answer: Logos

Logos appeals to the audience's reason and logic, often using facts, statistics, and logical arguments as evidence.

Question 166: Which sentence correctly uses 'its' vs. 'it's'?

The cat licked its paws. (Correct answer)
Its raining outside.
The school published it's newsletter.
The dog wagged it's tail.

Correct answer: The cat licked its paws.

'Its' (no apostrophe) is the possessive pronoun. Option D correctly uses 'its' to show possession.

Question 167: What does 'onset' and 'rime' refer to in phonological awareness?

The stressed and unstressed syllables in a word
The initial consonant(s) and the vowel-consonant unit of a syllable (Correct answer)
The first and last syllables of a multisyllabic word
The beginning and ending sounds of a sentence

Correct answer: The initial consonant(s) and the vowel-consonant unit of a syllable

The onset is the initial consonant(s) before the vowel; the rime is the vowel and everything after it in the syllable (e.g., 'cat': onset = /k/, rime = /æt/).

Question 168: Which of the following is a key difference between a summary and a paraphrase?

A summary is always longer than the original text, while a paraphrase is shorter.
A summary restates the original text in the writer's own words, while a paraphrase uses direct quotes.
A summary focuses only on minor details, while a paraphrase focuses on the main idea.
A summary condenses the main points of a text, while a paraphrase restates the original text in different words, often of similar length. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A summary condenses the main points of a text, while a paraphrase restates the original text in different words, often of similar length.

The core function of a summary is to shorten a text by focusing only on its main ideas and key points. A paraphrase, on the other hand, is a restatement of the text in new words, which typically results in a passage of similar length to the original and aims to clarify meaning.

Question 169: There will be a wide path, almost big enough for a car.

There will be a wide path, (Correct answer)
They’re will be a wide path,
Will there be a wide path,
They’re will be a wide path
There will not be a wide path,

Correct answer: There will be a wide path,

The original sentence is grammatically correct and requires no changes. "There will be" is the proper existential construction to introduce the existence of something. The comma before "almost big enough for a car" correctly sets off a non-restrictive descriptive phrase that provides additional information about the path without being essential to its identification.

Question 170: The final competitors were Susan, that was considered the challenger, and Gail, the defending champion.

Susan, who was considered the challenger, (Correct answer)
Susan, which was considered the challenger,
Susan, that was considered the challenger,
Susan, whom was considered the challenger,
Susan, considered the challenger,

Correct answer: Susan, who was considered the challenger,

The original sentence incorrectly uses "that" to refer to a person (Susan). For people, the relative pronoun "who" is always the correct choice. "Who" properly introduces a non-restrictive clause providing additional information about Susan, making the sentence grammatically sound.

Praxis Core Academic Skills for Educators (5752)

The Praxis Core Academic Skills for Educators (Core) tests measure academic skills in reading, writing, and mathematics deemed essential for all candidates entering teacher preparation programs.

170

Questions

270 min

Time Limit

65%

To Pass

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Sources & references

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nj.gov — Eligibility, passing score · verified Nov 2026
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