Infectious Diseases Flashcards
7 cards from real Physician Assistant practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Infectious Diseases flashcards as text
What is the current CDC-recommended treatment for uncomplicated gonorrhea in an adult weighing under 150 kg?
Answer: Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM once
Since 2020, CDC guidelines recommend a single 500 mg IM dose of ceftriaxone, plus doxycycline if chlamydia has not been ruled out.
Which treatment is recommended for primary syphilis in a nonpregnant patient without penicillin allergy?
Answer: Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM once
Early syphilis (primary, secondary, or early latent) is treated with one IM dose of benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units.
A few hours after receiving penicillin for secondary syphilis, a patient develops fever, chills, myalgias, and a worse rash. What is the most likely explanation?
Answer: Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction
The Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is an acute febrile response to lysed spirochetes, and it is managed supportively.
A painless genital ulcer with a clean base and indurated border, with painless lymphadenopathy, is most consistent with which infection?
Answer: Primary syphilis
A syphilitic chancre is classically a single painless, indurated, clean-based ulcer.
Which antibiotic class carries an FDA boxed warning for tendon rupture, especially in older adults and patients on corticosteroids?
Answer: Fluoroquinolones
Fluoroquinolones raise the risk of tendinitis and Achilles tendon rupture, and corticosteroid use and age over 60 increase the risk further.
Vancomycin given as a rapid infusion causes flushing and an erythematous rash of the face and upper body. What is the best management?
Answer: Slow the infusion rate and premedicate with an antihistamine
Vancomycin infusion reaction (formerly red man syndrome) is non-IgE histamine release, so slowing the infusion and giving an antihistamine is enough.
Which pathogen is intrinsically resistant to all cephalosporins?
Answer: Enterococcus faecalis
Enterococci are intrinsically resistant to cephalosporins, which is why ampicillin is the drug of choice for susceptible E. faecalis.
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