History and Physical Examination Flashcards
7 cards from real Physician Assistant practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 History and Physical Examination flashcards as text
A 45-year-old woman has a positive straight leg raise (SLR) test at 40°. This finding is most consistent with:
Answer: L4-S1 nerve root compression (lumbar disc herniation)
A positive SLR at less than 60° (reproduction of radicular pain, not just tightness) strongly suggests L4-S1 nerve root irritation from disc herniation.
Which history-taking mnemonic is used to characterize the quality of a patient's pain comprehensively?
Answer: OLDCARTS
OLDCARTS (Onset, Location, Duration, Character, Aggravating factors, Relieving factors, Timing, Severity) is used to fully characterize pain in the HPI.
During a cardiovascular exam, you note that a patient's JVP is elevated at 45° with hepatojugular reflux present. These findings suggest:
Answer: Right heart failure or elevated central venous pressure
Elevated JVP with a positive hepatojugular reflux (sustained rise with abdominal compression) indicates elevated right-sided filling pressures consistent with right heart failure.
When examining the eyes, the consensual light reflex tests the integrity of which pathway?
Answer: Ipsilateral CN II, optic chiasm, and contralateral CN III
Light in one eye travels via CN II to the optic chiasm; efferent fibers cross to activate the contralateral CN III, producing the consensual pupillary response.
A 30-year-old athlete has pain with resisted forearm supination and tenderness at the lateral epicondyle. This presentation is most consistent with:
Answer: Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow)
Lateral epicondylitis involves the extensor origin at the lateral epicondyle; pain with resisted wrist extension/supination and lateral tenderness are hallmarks.
A patient with a history of chronic alcohol use presents with gait ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, and confusion. These findings form which classic triad?
Answer: Wernicke encephalopathy
The triad of ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, and confusion (altered mental status) defines Wernicke encephalopathy, caused by thiamine (B1) deficiency.
During a pelvic exam, the PA notes a blue-gray discoloration of the cervix and vaginal walls in a patient with amenorrhea. This is known as:
Answer: Chadwick's sign
Chadwick's sign is the blue-violet discoloration of the vagina and cervix due to increased vascularity, appearing in early pregnancy.
How this page was made: written with AI tools and published by Nathan Beja, founder of Practice Test Geeks, who is responsible for its content. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy
Sources & references
Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy
- nccpa.net — Test dates, renewal, score validity, retake policy, score release, test delivery, eligibility, fees, registration, exam information · verified Nov 2026