History and Physical Examination Flashcards
7 cards from real Physician Assistant practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 History and Physical Examination flashcards as text
A 45-year-old woman has a positive straight leg raise (SLR) test at 40°. This finding is most consistent with:
Answer: L4-S1 nerve root compression (lumbar disc herniation)
A positive SLR at less than 60° (reproduction of radicular pain, not just tightness) strongly suggests L4-S1 nerve root irritation from disc herniation.
Which history-taking mnemonic is used to characterize the quality of a patient's pain comprehensively?
Answer: OLDCARTS
OLDCARTS (Onset, Location, Duration, Character, Aggravating factors, Relieving factors, Timing, Severity) is used to fully characterize pain in the HPI.
During a cardiovascular exam, you note that a patient's JVP is elevated at 45° with hepatojugular reflux present. These findings suggest:
Answer: Right heart failure or elevated central venous pressure
Elevated JVP with a positive hepatojugular reflux (sustained rise with abdominal compression) indicates elevated right-sided filling pressures consistent with right heart failure.
When examining the eyes, the consensual light reflex tests the integrity of which pathway?
Answer: Ipsilateral CN II, optic chiasm, and contralateral CN III
Light in one eye travels via CN II to the optic chiasm; efferent fibers cross to activate the contralateral CN III, producing the consensual pupillary response.
A 30-year-old athlete has pain with resisted forearm supination and tenderness at the lateral epicondyle. This presentation is most consistent with:
Answer: Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow)
Lateral epicondylitis involves the extensor origin at the lateral epicondyle; pain with resisted wrist extension/supination and lateral tenderness are hallmarks.
A patient with a history of chronic alcohol use presents with gait ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, and confusion. These findings form which classic triad?
Answer: Wernicke encephalopathy
The triad of ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, and confusion (altered mental status) defines Wernicke encephalopathy, caused by thiamine (B1) deficiency.
During a pelvic exam, the PA notes a blue-gray discoloration of the cervix and vaginal walls in a patient with amenorrhea. This is known as:
Answer: Chadwick's sign
Chadwick's sign is the blue-violet discoloration of the vagina and cervix due to increased vascularity, appearing in early pregnancy.