← All PHTLS Flashcard Decks

Traumatic Brain Injury Flashcards

21 cards from real PHTLS practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 20 Traumatic Brain Injury flashcards as text
  1. A patient with a severe TBI has a GCS of 6 and a systolic BP of 80 mmHg. What is the PHTLS priority for this patient?

    Answer: Restore systolic BP to ≥90 mmHg as quickly as possible

    Hypotension (SBP <90 mmHg) doubles mortality in severe TBI, so restoring perfusion pressure is the immediate priority.

  2. Which herniation pattern is characterized by unilateral fixed and dilated pupil combined with contralateral motor weakness?

    Answer: Uncal (transtentorial) herniation

    Uncal herniation compresses CN III on the ipsilateral side, causing a blown pupil, and compresses the cerebral peduncle, causing contralateral weakness.

  3. In the context of TBI, what does the Monroe-Kellie doctrine state?

    Answer: The skull is a rigid compartment so any volume increase must displace another component

    The Monroe-Kellie doctrine holds that brain, blood, and CSF occupy a fixed skull volume, so expansion of one component compresses the others.

  4. A TBI patient is breathing at a rate of 6 breaths per minute. What is the PHTLS-recommended bag-valve-mask intervention?

    Answer: Assist ventilations to achieve 10 breaths/min for adults

    PHTLS recommends assisting ventilation to approximately 10 breaths/min in adults to correct hypoventilation without causing harmful hypocapnia.

  5. Which of the following BEST describes cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)?

    Answer: Mean arterial pressure minus intracranial pressure

    CPP = MAP − ICP; maintaining adequate CPP is the primary goal in managing severe TBI.

  6. During transport of a severe TBI patient, SpO2 drops to 88%. What is the correct action?

    Answer: Increase supplemental oxygen and reassess airway positioning immediately

    Hypoxia (SpO2 <90%) causes secondary brain injury; correcting it immediately with supplemental oxygen and airway optimization is the priority.

  7. A helmeted motorcyclist is unresponsive after a crash. When should the helmet be removed in the prehospital setting?

    Answer: Only if it prevents airway assessment or management

    PHTLS recommends helmet removal when it prevents adequate airway management or assessment, requiring a two-rescuer technique to maintain spinal alignment.

  8. A 30-year-old construction worker fell 20 feet and is confused (GCS 12). His right pupil is 6 mm and non-reactive. Which injury does this MOST suggest?

    Answer: Epidural hematoma with uncal herniation

    A unilateral blown pupil following head trauma indicates uncal herniation, classically caused by an expanding epidural hematoma from a torn middle meningeal artery.

  9. Which TBI type is MOST commonly associated with rapid arterial bleeding between the skull and dura mater?

    Answer: Epidural hematoma

    Epidural hematomas result from tearing of the middle meningeal artery, causing rapid accumulation of arterial blood between the skull and the dura.

  10. Which patient population is at HIGHEST risk for subdural hematoma from seemingly minor head trauma?

    Answer: Elderly patients on anticoagulants

    Cerebral atrophy in the elderly stretches bridging veins, and anticoagulants impair clotting, dramatically increasing subdural hematoma risk even from minor falls.

  11. What is the significance of Cushing's triad in a TBI patient?

    Answer: It signals severely elevated ICP and impending brainstem herniation

    Cushing's triad (hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respirations) is a late, ominous sign of critically elevated ICP with impending brainstem herniation.

  12. When is brief prophylactic hyperventilation (PaCO2 ~35 mmHg) acceptable in PHTLS guidelines for TBI?

    Answer: Only when signs of herniation (blown pupil, posturing) are present

    PHTLS permits brief targeted hyperventilation only as a temporizing measure for impending herniation, not as routine ICP management.

  13. A TBI patient exhibits decorticate posturing. Which brain region does this MOST likely indicate injury to?

    Answer: Cerebral hemispheres or internal capsule above the midbrain

    Decorticate posturing (flexion of arms, extension of legs) indicates disruption of cortical and subcortical motor pathways above the red nucleus in the midbrain.

  14. During secondary assessment of a TBI patient, you note bilateral periorbital ecchymosis. This finding is MOST associated with:

    Answer: Basilar skull fracture

    Bilateral periorbital ecchymosis ('raccoon eyes') is a classic sign of anterior basilar skull fracture with blood tracking into the periorbital tissues.

  15. A pediatric TBI patient, age 4, has a GCS of 8 and blood pressure of 70/40 mmHg. What is the minimum acceptable systolic BP target in PHTLS for this child?

    Answer: 80 mmHg

    PHTLS targets a minimum SBP of 80 mmHg for pediatric TBI patients, compared to 90 mmHg for adults, reflecting age-related physiologic norms.

  16. Which prehospital intervention has been shown to MOST reliably reduce secondary brain injury from TBI?

    Answer: Prevention and correction of hypoxia and hypotension

    Preventing and correcting hypoxia and hypotension are the most impactful prehospital interventions to reduce secondary injury in TBI patients.

  17. A patient with known TBI begins having a generalized tonic-clonic seizure en route to the hospital. After ensuring airway safety, what is the next PHTLS priority?

    Answer: Protect the patient from injury and monitor for airway compromise

    Seizure management focuses on patient safety (preventing fall injury) and airway protection; definitive anticonvulsant treatment is typically a hospital intervention.

  18. Why is hyperthermia particularly harmful in TBI patients?

    Answer: It increases cerebral metabolic demand, worsening ischemia in injured tissue

    Hyperthermia raises cerebral metabolic rate, increasing oxygen demand in already-vulnerable injured brain tissue and exacerbating ischemic damage.

  19. A TBI patient who was initially alert (GCS 15) deteriorates to GCS 9 over 20 minutes. This pattern is MOST consistent with:

    Answer: Epidural hematoma with an expanding hematoma (lucid interval)

    A lucid interval followed by rapid neurologic deterioration is the classic presentation of an expanding epidural hematoma compressing the brain.

  20. When managing a TBI patient's airway with BVM ventilation, what EtCO2 target should be maintained to avoid secondary injury?

    Answer: 35–40 mmHg

    A target EtCO2 of 35–40 mmHg maintains normocapnia, preventing both vasodilatory hypercarbia and vasoconstrictive hypocapnia.

How this page was made: written with AI tools and published by Nathan Beja, founder of Practice Test Geeks, who is responsible for its content. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

Sources & references

Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy

  1. facs.org — Eligibility · verified Oct 2026
  2. naemt.org — Fees, retake policy, score release, test delivery, eligibility, renewal, score validity · verified Oct 2026