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Knowledge Flashcards

11 cards from real PHTLS practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. Applying a traction splint to a fractured foot is mostly done for the following reasons:

    Answer: Control bleeding

    While traction splints are primarily used for long bone fractures (like the femur) to reduce pain and stabilize the limb, stabilization of any severe fracture can indirectly help control bleeding. By preventing movement of jagged bone ends, a splint minimizes further soft tissue and vascular damage, thereby contributing to hemorrhage control. For major fractures, this can be a critical life-saving benefit, even if a traction splint is not typically applied to a foot.

  2. Which part of the spine innervates the phrenic nerve the most?

    Answer: C3 through the C5

    The phrenic nerve is vital for respiration as it innervates the diaphragm, the primary muscle responsible for breathing. It originates from the cervical spinal nerves, specifically C3, C4, and C5. Damage to the spinal cord at or above these levels can lead to paralysis of the diaphragm and subsequent respiratory arrest, making this anatomical knowledge crucial for trauma assessment and management.

  3. Which of the following accurately describes the difference between an epidural and subdural hemorrhage?

    Answer: Epidural hemorrhage may result from a blow to the temple

    An epidural hemorrhage typically results from arterial bleeding, often caused by a direct blow to the temple that fractures the temporal bone and lacerates the middle meningeal artery. This arterial bleed leads to a rapid accumulation of blood between the dura mater and the skull. In contrast, subdural hemorrhages are usually venous, occurring between the dura and arachnoid mater, and often have a slower onset.

  4. Both the anterior left arm and the anterior chest of your patient are burned. What percentage of the surface area of their body is burned?

    Answer: 13.50%

    The 'Rule of Nines' is a common method for estimating the total body surface area (TBSA) affected by burns in adults. According to this rule, the entire anterior chest accounts for 9% of TBSA. An entire arm is 9%, so the anterior left arm is half of that, or 4.5%. Therefore, the total burned surface area is 9% (anterior chest) + 4.5% (anterior left arm) = 13.5%.

  5. Out of all the presentations, which one best represents cardiac tamponade?

    Answer: JVD and decreased pulse pressure

    Cardiac tamponade is a life-threatening condition where fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac, compressing the heart. Beck's Triad, a classic set of signs, includes muffled heart sounds, hypotension (often seen as decreased pulse pressure), and jugular venous distension (JVD). JVD indicates increased venous pressure due to impaired right ventricular filling, while decreased pulse pressure reflects reduced cardiac output, making this combination highly indicative of tamponade.

  6. You are getting ready to apply a moist dressing to a bodily part that has been severed. What is the best way to hydrate the dressing?

    Answer: Normal Saline

    When preparing a moist dressing for a severed body part (amputation), it is crucial to use a sterile, isotonic solution to prevent further cellular damage and maintain tissue viability. Normal Saline (0.9% Sodium Chloride) is the preferred solution because it is isotonic with body fluids, preventing harmful fluid shifts into or out of the cells. D5W and sterile water are hypotonic and could cause cell swelling or lysis, respectively.

  7. The patient had an abdominal gunshot wound and is clearly in shock. Which action on the situation would you be least likely to take?

    Answer: Immobilize the patient on a backboard

    For a patient with an abdominal gunshot wound and signs of shock, the priority is rapid assessment, hemorrhage control, and transport to a trauma center. While spinal immobilization was once routine, current PHTLS guidelines advocate for selective immobilization. An isolated abdominal gunshot wound, without evidence of head, neck, or back trauma or neurological deficits, typically does not require full spinal immobilization on a backboard, which can delay critical interventions and potentially worsen respiratory compromise.

  8. The maximum amount of blood lost from a tibia and fibula fracture is as follows:

    Answer: 1,000 mL

    Tibia and fibula fractures are significant long bone injuries, and these bones are highly vascular. When fractured, they can cause substantial internal bleeding into the surrounding soft tissues of the leg. A blood loss of up to 1,000 mL (1 liter) is a recognized estimate for such fractures, contributing to potential hypovolemic shock if not managed promptly.

  9. Which of the following describes an adult patient who should be sent to a trauma hospital in accordance with the Centers for Disease Control Trauma Triage Guidelines?

    Answer: Respirations of 30 per minute

    The Centers for Disease Control (CDC) Trauma Triage Guidelines use physiological criteria to identify patients needing immediate transport to a trauma center. A respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute in an adult indicates significant respiratory distress or compromise, exceeding the normal range. This physiological derangement is a critical indicator for trauma center activation, suggesting potential life-threatening injury affecting oxygenation and ventilation.

  10. Which of the following describes a spine injury patient as meeting the NEXUS criteria?

    Answer: Determining if the patient is intoxicated

    The NEXUS (National Emergency X-Radiography Utilization Study) criteria are used to clinically clear the cervical spine without imaging. One of the key criteria is that the patient must not be intoxicated, as intoxication can impair their ability to reliably report pain or tenderness, or to cooperate with the physical examination. If a patient is intoxicated, their spine cannot be cleared based on NEXUS criteria, and further imaging or immobilization is required.

  11. Which one most accurately describes the process via which pulmonary contusion impairs gas exchange?

    Answer: Collapse of the alveoli

    A pulmonary contusion is a bruise to the lung tissue, causing hemorrhage and edema within the alveoli and interstitial spaces. This fluid accumulation and inflammation lead to alveolar collapse (atelectasis) and consolidation, preventing proper oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange. The damaged alveoli become non-functional, significantly reducing the lung's ability to oxygenate blood effectively.

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Sources & references

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  1. facs.org — Eligibility · verified Oct 2026
  2. naemt.org — Fees, retake policy, score release, test delivery, eligibility, renewal, score validity · verified Oct 2026