Pharmacy Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield Pharmacy facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which drug suffix is characteristic of calcium channel blockers (dihydropyridine class)? → -dipine
2. Which of the following is the brand name for metformin? → Glucophage
3. What storage condition does the designation "refrigerate" indicate? → 2–8°C
4. The DEA requires a biennial (every 2 years) inventory of all controlled substances on which date? → Any date within 2 years of the previous inventory, on or close to the biennial anniversary
5. All of the drugs listed below are used to treat angina, with the exception of which one? → Montelukast
6. Metformin is primarily prescribed to treat which condition? → Type 2 diabetes
7. What does the prefix "cef-" or "ceph-" typically indicate about a drug? → It is a cephalosporin antibiotic
8. Which USP chapter governs sterile compounding in pharmacies? → USP
9. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is associated with which class of adverse effects in elderly patients? → Anticholinergic effects (confusion, urinary retention, constipation)
10. Which analgesic was rescheduled from Schedule III to Schedule II in 2014 by the DEA? → Hydrocodone combination products (e.g., Vicodin)
11. A patient will receive 100 mg/kg of ampicillin per day. What is the total daily dose for a 40-pound patient? → 1.8 g
12. Warfarin exerts its anticoagulant effect by inhibiting: → Vitamin K epoxide reductase, preventing regeneration of active Vitamin K
13. Prozac is the brand name for which antidepressant? → Fluoxetine
14. Under the Poison Prevention Packaging Act, which type of packaging is generally required for prescription medications? → Child-resistant packaging (CRP)
15. Keppra's active ingredient is → Levetiracetam
16. A patient's phenytoin free fraction increases when albumin drops from 4.0 to 2.0 g/dL. What clinical consequence is most likely? → Toxicity despite a 'normal' total phenytoin level on lab report
17. Which filter pore size is used for sterilization by filtration of a CSP? → 0.22 micron
18. An order is received for heparin 25,000 units in 250 mL D5W to run at 1,000 units/hour. What is the flow rate in mL/hr? → 10 mL/hr
19. If a patient is on which of the following medications, a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) test should be done on a regular basis? → Levothyroxine
20. Which of the following is the primary pharmacological effect of opioids? → Binding mu, kappa, and delta opioid receptors to reduce pain transmission
21. What does "PRN" mean in pharmacy? → As needed
22. A 45-year-old woman is prescribed isotretinoin. Which risk management program must be followed? → REMS with iPLEDGE
23. Which of the following is the correct ISO class for a horizontal laminar airflow workbench (LAFW) used for IV compounding? → ISO Class 5
24. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) requires monitoring for which serious adverse effect? → Aplastic anemia and agranulocytosis
25. Which antipsychotic is most associated with metabolic syndrome, including weight gain and dyslipidemia? → Olanzapine
26. What is the most important professional competency for Pharmacy certification in therapeutics? → Deep knowledge combined with practical application skills
27. A drug with a narrow therapeutic index (NTI) is best described as: → A drug where there is little difference between the effective and toxic dose
28. A patient's legal guardian requests medication information about an adult patient who has been declared incompetent. The pharmacist should: → Verify legal guardianship documentation before sharing protected health information
29. Which of the following is a classic example of a prodrug that requires CYP2C19-mediated hepatic activation for antiplatelet effect? → Clopidogrel
30. Aceon, what is the active ingredient in the medicine? → Perindopril